- Latest available (Revised)
- Point in Time (27/06/2017)
- Original (As enacted)
Version Superseded: 21/07/2019
Point in time view as at 27/06/2017.
Financial Services Act 2012,
PART 2
is up to date with all changes known to be in force on or before 15 August 2024. There are changes that may be brought into force at a future date. Changes that have been made appear in the content and are referenced with annotations.
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(1)For sections 1 to 18 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (in this Act referred to as “FSMA 2000”) substitute—
(1)The body corporate previously known as the Financial Services Authority is renamed as the Financial Conduct Authority.
(2)The Financial Conduct Authority is in this Act referred to as “the FCA”.
(3)The FCA is to have the functions conferred on it by or under this Act.
(4)The FCA must comply with the requirements as to its constitution set out in Schedule 1ZA.
(5)Schedule 1ZA also makes provision about the status of the FCA and the exercise of certain of its functions.
(6)References in this Act or any other enactment to functions conferred on the FCA by or under this Act include references to functions conferred on the FCA by or under—
(a)the Insolvency Act 1986,
(b)the Banking Act 2009,
(c)the Financial Services Act 2012, or
(d)a qualifying EU provision that is specified, or of a description specified, for the purposes of this subsection by the Treasury by order.
(1)In discharging its general functions the FCA must, so far as is reasonably possible, act in a way which—
(a)is compatible with its strategic objective, and
(b)advances one or more of its operational objectives.
(2)The FCA's strategic objective is: ensuring that the relevant markets (see section 1F) function well.
(3)The FCA's operational objectives are—
(a)the consumer protection objective (see section 1C);
(b)the integrity objective (see section 1D);
(c)the competition objective (see section 1E).
(4)The FCA must, so far as is compatible with acting in a way which advances the consumer protection objective or the integrity objective, discharge its general functions in a way which promotes effective competition in the interests of consumers.
(5)In discharging its general functions the FCA must have regard to—
(a)the regulatory principles in section 3B, and
(b)the importance of taking action intended to minimise the extent to which it is possible for a business carried on—
(i)by an authorised person or a recognised investment exchange, or
(ii)in contravention of the general prohibition,
to be used for a purpose connected with financial crime.
(6)For the purposes of this Chapter, the FCA's general functions are—
(a)its function of making rules under this Act (considered as a whole),
(b)its function of preparing and issuing codes under this Act (considered as a whole),
(c)its functions in relation to the giving of general guidance under this Act (considered as a whole), and
(d)its function of determining the general policy and principles by reference to which it performs particular functions under this Act.
(7)Except to the extent that an order under section 50 of the Financial Services Act 2012 (orders relating to mutual societies functions) so provides, the FCA's general functions do not include functions that are transferred functions within the meaning of section 52 of that Act.
(8)“General guidance” has the meaning given in section 139B(5).
(1)The consumer protection objective is: securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers.
(2)In considering what degree of protection for consumers may be appropriate, the FCA must have regard to—
(a)the differing degrees of risk involved in different kinds of investment or other transaction;
(b)the differing degrees of experience and expertise that different consumers may have;
(c)the needs that consumers may have for the timely provision of information and advice that is accurate and fit for purpose;
(d)the general principle that consumers should take responsibility for their decisions;
(e)the general principle that those providing regulated financial services should be expected to provide consumers with a level of care that is appropriate having regard to the degree of risk involved in relation to the investment or other transaction and the capabilities of the consumers in question;
(f)the differing expectations that consumers may have in relation to different kinds of investment or other transaction;
(g)any information which the consumer financial education body has provided to the FCA in the exercise of the consumer financial education function;
(h)any information which the scheme operator of the ombudsman scheme has provided to the FCA pursuant to section 232A.
(1)The integrity objective is: protecting and enhancing the integrity of the UK financial system.
(2)The “integrity” of the UK financial system includes—
(a)its soundness, stability and resilience,
(b)its not being used for a purpose connected with financial crime,
(c)its not being affected by behaviour that amounts to market abuse,
(d)the orderly operation of the financial markets, and
(e)the transparency of the price formation process in those markets.
(1)The competition objective is: promoting effective competition in the interests of consumers in the markets for—
(a)regulated financial services, or
(b)services provided by a recognised investment exchange in carrying on regulated activities in respect of which it is by virtue of section 285(2) exempt from the general prohibition.
(2)The matters to which the FCA may have regard in considering the effectiveness of competition in the market for any services mentioned in subsection (1) include—
(a)the needs of different consumers who use or may use those services, including their need for information that enables them to make informed choices,
(b)the ease with which consumers who may wish to use those services, including consumers in areas affected by social or economic deprivation, can access them,
(c)the ease with which consumers who obtain those services can change the person from whom they obtain them,
(d)the ease with which new entrants can enter the market, and
(e)how far competition is encouraging innovation.
In section 1B(2) “the relevant markets” means—
(a)the financial markets,
(b)the markets for regulated financial services (see section 1H(2)), and
(c)the markets for services that are provided by persons other than authorised persons in carrying on regulated activities but are provided without contravening the general prohibition.
(1)In sections 1B to 1E “consumers” means persons who—
(a)use, have used or may use—
(i)regulated financial services, or
(ii)services that are provided by persons other than authorised persons but are provided in carrying on regulated activities,
(b)have relevant rights or interests in relation to any of those services,
(c)have invested, or may invest, in financial instruments, or
(d)have relevant rights or interests in relation to financial instruments.
(2)A person (“P”) has a “relevant right or interest” in relation to any services within subsection (1)(a) if P has a right or interest—
(a)which is derived from, or is otherwise attributable to, the use of the services by others, or
(b)which may be adversely affected by the use of the services by persons acting on P's behalf or in a fiduciary capacity in relation to P.
(3)If a person is providing a service within subsection (1)(a) as trustee, the persons who are, have been or may be beneficiaries of the trust are to be treated as persons who use, have used or may use the service.
(4)A person who deals with another person (“B”) in the course of B providing a service within subsection (1)(a) is to be treated as using the service.
(5)A person (“P”) has a “relevant right or interest” in relation to any financial instrument if P has—
(a)a right or interest which is derived from, or is otherwise attributable to, investment in the instrument by others, or
(b)a right or interest which may be adversely affected by the investment in the instrument by persons acting on P's behalf or in a fiduciary capacity in relation to P.
(1)The following provisions have effect for the interpretation of sections 1B to 1G.
(2)“Regulated financial services” means services provided—
(a)by authorised persons in carrying on regulated activities;
(b)by authorised persons in carrying on a consumer credit business in connection with the accepting of deposits;
(c)by authorised persons in communicating, or approving the communication by others of, invitations to engage in investment activity;
(d)by authorised persons who are investment firms, or credit institutions, in providing relevant ancillary services;
(e)by persons acting as appointed representatives;
(f)by payment service providers in providing payment services;
(g)by electronic money issuers in issuing electronic money;
(h)by sponsors to issuers of securities;
(i)by primary information providers to persons who issue financial instruments.
(3)“Financial crime” includes any offence involving—
(a)fraud or dishonesty,
(b)misconduct in, or misuse of information relating to, a financial market,
(c)handling the proceeds of crime, or
(d)the financing of terrorism.
(4)“Offence” includes an act or omission which would be an offence if it had taken place in the United Kingdom.
(5)“Issuer”, except in the expression “electronic money issuer”, has the meaning given in section 102A(6).
(6)“Financial instrument” has the meaning given in section 102A(4).
(7)“Securities” has the meaning given in section 102A(2).
(8)In this section—
“accepting”, in relation to deposits, includes agreeing to accept;
“consumer credit business” has the same meaning as in the Consumer Credit Act 1974;
“credit institution” means—
a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive, or
an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have a registered office, its head office) in an EEA State;
“electronic money” has the same meaning as in the Electronic Money Regulations 2011;
“electronic money issuer” means a person who is an electronic money issuer as defined in regulation 2(1) of the Electronic Money Regulations 2011 other than a person falling within paragraph (f), (g) or (j) of the definition;
“engage in investment activity” has the meaning given in section 21;
“financial instrument” has the meaning given in section 102A(4);
“payment services” has the same meaning as in the Payment Services Regulations 2009;
“payment service provider” means a person who is a payment service provider as defined in regulation 2(1) of the Payment Services Regulations 2009 other than a person falling within paragraph (g) or (h) of the definition;
“primary information provider” has the meaning given in section 89P(2);
“relevant ancillary service” means any service of a kind mentioned in Section B of Annex I to the markets in financial instruments directive the provision of which does not involve the carrying on of a regulated activity;
“sponsor” has the meaning given in section 88(2).
In this Act “the UK financial system” means the financial system operating in the United Kingdom and includes—
(a)financial markets and exchanges,
(b)regulated activities, and
(c)other activities connected with financial markets and exchanges.
The Treasury may by order amend any of the following provisions—
(a)in section 1E(1), paragraphs (a) and (b),
(b)section 1G, and
(c)section 1H(2) and (5) to (8).
(1)The general guidance given by the FCA under section 139A must include guidance about how it intends to advance its operational objectives in discharging its general functions in relation to different categories of authorised person or regulated activity.
(2)Before giving or altering any guidance complying with subsection (1), the FCA must consult the PRA.
(1)The FCA must maintain arrangements for supervising authorised persons.
(2)The FCA must maintain arrangements designed to enable it to determine whether persons other than authorised persons are complying—
(a)with requirements imposed on them by or under this Act, in cases where the FCA is the appropriate regulator for the purposes of Part 14 (disciplinary measures), or
(b)with requirements imposed on them by any qualifying EU provision that is specified, or of a description specified, for the purposes of this subsection by the Treasury by order.
(3)The FCA must also maintain arrangements for enforcing compliance by persons other than authorised persons with relevant requirements, within the meaning of Part 14, in cases where the FCA is the appropriate regulator for the purposes of any provision of that Part.
The FCA must make and maintain effective arrangements for consulting practitioners and consumers on the extent to which its general policies and practices are consistent with its general duties under section 1B.
(1)Arrangements under section 1M must include the establishment and maintenance of a panel of persons (to be known as “the FCA Practitioner Panel”) to represent the interests of practitioners.
(2)The FCA must appoint one of the members of the FCA Practitioner Panel to be its chair.
(3)The Treasury's approval is required for the appointment or dismissal of the chair.
(4)The FCA must appoint to the FCA Practitioner Panel such—
(a)persons representing authorised persons, and
(b)persons representing recognised investment exchanges,
as it considers appropriate.
(5)The FCA may appoint to the FCA Practitioner Panel such other persons as it considers appropriate.
(1)Arrangements under section 1M must include the establishment and maintenance of a panel of persons (to be known as “the Smaller Business Practitioner Panel”) to represent the interests of eligible practitioners.
(2)“Eligible practitioners” means authorised persons of a description specified in a statement maintained by the FCA.
(3)The FCA must appoint one of the members of the Smaller Business Practitioner Panel to be its chair.
(4)The Treasury's approval is required for the appointment or dismissal of the chair.
(5)The FCA must appoint to the Smaller Business Practitioner Panel such—
(a)individuals who are eligible practitioners, and
(b)persons representing eligible practitioners,
as it considers appropriate.
(6)The FCA may appoint to the Smaller Business Practitioner Panel such other persons as it considers appropriate.
(7)In making the appointments, the FCA must have regard to the desirability of ensuring the representation of eligible practitioners carrying on a range of regulated activities.
(8)The FCA may revise the statement maintained under subsection (2).
(9)The FCA must—
(a)give the Treasury a copy of the statement or revised statement without delay, and
(b)publish the statement as for the time being in force in such manner as it thinks fit.
(1)Arrangements under section 1M must include the establishment and maintenance of a panel of persons (to be known as “the Markets Practitioner Panel”) to represent the interests of practitioners who are likely to be affected by the exercise by the FCA of its functions relating to markets, including its functions under Parts 6, 8A and 18.
(2)The FCA must appoint one of the members of the Markets Practitioner Panel to be its chair.
(3)The Treasury's approval is required for the appointment or dismissal of the chair.
(4)The FCA must appoint to the Markets Practitioner Panel such persons to represent the interests of persons within subsection (5) as it considers appropriate.
(5)The persons within this subsection are—
(a)authorised persons,
(b)persons who issue financial instruments,
(c)sponsors, as defined in section 88(2),
(d)recognised investment exchanges, and
(e)primary information providers, as defined in section 89P(2).
(6)The FCA may appoint to the Markets Practitioner Panel such other persons as it considers appropriate.
(1)Arrangements under section 1M must include the establishment and maintenance of a panel of persons (to be known as “the Consumer Panel”) to represent the interests of consumers.
(2)The FCA must appoint one of the members of the Consumer Panel to be its chair.
(3)The Treasury's approval is required for the appointment or dismissal of the chair.
(4)The FCA may appoint to the Consumer Panel such consumers, or persons representing the interests of consumers, as it considers appropriate.
(5)The FCA must secure that membership of the Consumer Panel is such as to give a fair degree of representation to those who are using, or are or may be contemplating using, services otherwise than in connection with businesses carried on by them.
(6)Sections 425A and 425B (meaning of “consumers”) apply for the purposes of this section, but the references to consumers in this section do not include consumers who are authorised persons.
(1)The FCA must consider representations that are made to it in accordance with arrangements made under section 1M.
(2)The FCA must from time to time publish in such manner as it thinks fit responses to the representations.
(1)The Treasury may appoint an independent person to conduct a review of the economy, efficiency and effectiveness with which the FCA has used its resources in discharging its functions.
(2)A review may be limited by the Treasury to such functions of the FCA (however described) as the Treasury may specify in appointing the person to conduct it.
(3)A review is not to be concerned with the merits of the FCA's general policy or principles in complying with its general duties under section 1B(1) and (4).
(4)On completion of a review, the person conducting it must make a written report to the Treasury—
(a)setting out the result of the review, and
(b)making such recommendations (if any) as the person considers appropriate.
(5)A copy of the report must be—
(a)laid before Parliament, and
(b)published in such manner as the Treasury consider appropriate.
(6)Any expenses reasonably incurred in the conduct of the review are to be met by the Treasury out of money provided by Parliament.
(7)“Independent” means appearing to the Treasury to be independent of the FCA.
(1)A person conducting a review under section 1S—
(a)has a right of access at any reasonable time to all such documents as the person may reasonably require for the purposes of the review, and
(b)may require any person holding or accountable for any such document to provide such information and explanation as are reasonably necessary for that purpose.
(2)Subsection (1) applies only to documents in the custody of or under the control of the FCA.
(3)An obligation imposed on a person as a result of the exercise of the powers conferred by subsection (1) is enforceable by injunction or, in Scotland, by an order for specific performance under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988.
(1)The body corporate originally incorporated as the Prudential Regulation Authority Limited is renamed as the Prudential Regulation Authority.
(2)The Prudential Regulation Authority is in this Act referred to as “the PRA”.
(3)The PRA is to have the functions conferred on it by or under this Act.
(4)The PRA must comply with the requirements as to its constitution set out in Schedule 1ZB.
(5)Schedule 1ZB also confers on the Bank of England functions in relation to the PRA and makes provision about the status of the PRA and the exercise of certain of its functions.
(6)References in this Act or any other enactment to functions conferred on the PRA by or under this Act include references to functions conferred on the PRA by or under—
(a)the Insolvency Act 1986,
(b)the Banking Act 2009,
(c)the Financial Services Act 2012, or
(d)a qualifying EU provision that is specified, or of a description specified, for the purposes of this subsection by the Treasury by order.
(1)In discharging its general functions the PRA must, so far as is reasonably possible, act in a way which advances its general objective.
(2)The PRA's general objective is: promoting the safety and soundness of PRA-authorised persons.
(3)That objective is to be advanced primarily by—
(a)seeking to ensure that the business of PRA-authorised persons is carried on in a way which avoids any adverse effect on the stability of the UK financial system, and
(b)seeking to minimise the adverse effect that the failure of a PRA-authorised person could be expected to have on the stability of the UK financial system.
(4)The adverse effects mentioned in subsection (3) may, in particular, result from the disruption of the continuity of financial services.
(5)In this Act “PRA-authorised person” means an authorised person who has permission—
(a)given under Part 4A, or
(b)resulting from any other provision of this Act,
to carry on regulated activities that consist of or include one or more PRA-regulated activities (see section 22A).
(6)Subsection (1) is subject to sections 2C and 2D.
(1)In discharging its general functions so far as relating to a PRA-regulated activity relating to the effecting or carrying out of contracts of insurance or PRA-authorised persons carrying on that activity, the PRA must, so far as is reasonably possible, act in a way—
(a)which is compatible with its general objective and its insurance objective, and
(b)which the PRA considers most appropriate for the purpose of advancing those objectives.
(2)The PRA's insurance objective is: contributing to the securing of an appropriate degree of protection for those who are or may become policyholders.
(3)This section applies only if the effecting or carrying out of contracts of insurance as principal is to any extent a PRA-regulated activity.
(1)Subsection (2) applies to an order under section 22A which—
(a)is made at any time after the coming into force of the first order under that section, and
(b)contains a statement by the Treasury that, in their opinion, the effect (or one of the effects) of the proposed order is that an activity would become a PRA-regulated activity.
(2)An order to which this subsection applies may specify an additional objective (“the specified objective”) in relation to specified activities that become PRA-regulated activities by virtue of the order (“the additional activities”).
(3)In discharging its general functions so far as relating to the additional activities or PRA-authorised persons carrying on those activities, the PRA must, so far as is reasonably possible, act in a way—
(a)which is compatible with its general objective and the specified objective, and
(b)which the PRA considers most appropriate for the purpose of advancing those objectives.
(1)The PRA must—
(a)determine its strategy in relation to its objectives, and
(b)from time to time review, and if necessary revise, the strategy.
(2)Before determining or revising its strategy, the PRA must consult the court of directors of the Bank of England about a draft of the strategy or of the revisions.
(3)The PRA must determine its strategy within 12 months of the coming into force of this section.
(4)The PRA must carry out and complete a review of its strategy before the end of each relevant period.
(5)The relevant period is 12 months beginning with the date on which the previous review was completed, except that in the case of the first review the relevant period is the period of 12 months beginning with the date on which the strategy was determined under subsection (3).
(6)The PRA must publish its strategy.
(7)If the strategy is revised the PRA must publish the revised strategy.
(8)Publication under subsection (6) or (7) is to be in such manner as the PRA thinks fit.
In this Act, a reference, in relation to any function of the PRA, to the objectives of the PRA is a reference to its general objective but—
(a)so far as the function is exercisable in relation to the activity of effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance, or PRA-authorised persons carrying on that activity, is a reference to its general objective and its insurance objective;
(b)so far as the function is exercisable in relation to an activity to which an objective specified by order by virtue of section 2D(2) relates, or PRA-authorised persons carrying on that activity, is a reference to its general objective and the objective specified by the order.
Nothing in sections 2B to 2D is to be regarded as requiring the PRA to ensure that no PRA-authorised person fails.
(1)In discharging its general functions, the PRA must also have regard to—
(a)the regulatory principles in section 3B, and
(b)the need to minimise any adverse effect on competition in the relevant markets that may result from the manner in which the PRA discharges those functions.
(2)In subsection (1)(b) “the relevant markets” means the markets for services provided by PRA-authorised persons in carrying on regulated activities.
(1)The PRA must give, and from time to time review, guidance about how it intends to advance its objectives in discharging its general functions in relation to different categories of PRA-authorised person or PRA-regulated activity.
(2)Before giving or altering any guidance complying with subsection (1), the PRA must consult the FCA.
(3)The PRA must publish the guidance as for the time being in force.
(1)For the purposes of this Chapter, the PRA's general functions are—
(a)its function of making rules under this Act (considered as a whole),
(b)its function of preparing and issuing codes under this Act (considered as a whole), and
(c)its function of determining the general policy and principles by reference to which it performs particular functions under this Act.
(2)Except to the extent that an order under section 50 of the Financial Services Act 2012 (orders relating to mutual societies functions) so provides, the PRA's general functions do not include functions that are transferred functions within the meaning of section 52 of that Act.
(3)For the purposes of this Chapter, the cases in which a PRA-authorised person (“P”) is to be regarded as failing include those where—
(a)P enters insolvency,
(b)any of the stabilisation options in Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 is achieved in relation to P, or
(c)P falls to be taken for the purposes of the compensation scheme to be unable, or likely to be unable, to satisfy claims against P.
(4)In subsection (3)(a) “insolvency” includes—
(a)bankruptcy,
(b)liquidation,
(c)bank insolvency,
(d)administration,
(e)bank administration,
(f)receivership,
(g)a composition between P and P's creditors, and
(h)a scheme of arrangement of P's affairs.
The PRA must maintain arrangements for supervising PRA-authorised persons.
The PRA must make and maintain effective arrangements for consulting PRA-authorised persons or, where appropriate, persons appearing to the PRA to represent the interests of such persons on the extent to which its general policies and practices are consistent with its general duties under sections 2B to 2H.
(1)Arrangements under section 2L must include the establishment and maintenance of a panel of persons (to be known as “the PRA Practitioner Panel”) to represent the interests of practitioners.
(2)The PRA must appoint one of the members of the PRA Practitioner Panel to be its chair.
(3)The Treasury's approval is required for the appointment or dismissal of the chair.
(4)The PRA must appoint to the PRA Practitioner Panel such persons representing PRA-authorised persons as it considers appropriate.
(5)The PRA may appoint to the PRA Practitioner Panel such other persons as it considers appropriate.
(1)The PRA must consider representations that are made to it in accordance with arrangements made under section 2L.
(2)The PRA must from time to time publish in such manner as it thinks fit responses to the representations.
(1)The Treasury may appoint an independent person to conduct a review of the economy, efficiency and effectiveness with which the PRA has used its resources in discharging its functions.
(2)A review may be limited by the Treasury to such functions of the PRA (however described) as the Treasury may specify in appointing the person to conduct it.
(3)A review is not to be concerned with the merits of the PRA's general policy or principles in pursuing the PRA's objectives.
(4)On completion of a review, the person conducting it must make a written report to the Treasury—
(a)setting out the result of the review, and
(b)making such recommendations (if any) as the person considers appropriate.
(5)A copy of the report must be—
(a)laid before Parliament, and
(b)published in such manner as the Treasury consider appropriate.
(6)Any expenses reasonably incurred in the conduct of the review are to be met by the Treasury out of money provided by Parliament.
(7)“Independent” means appearing to the Treasury to be independent of the PRA.
(1)A person conducting a review under section 2O—
(a)has a right of access at any reasonable time to all such documents as the person may reasonably require for the purposes of the review, and
(b)may require any person holding or accountable for any such document to provide such information and explanation as are reasonably necessary for that purpose.
(2)Subsection (1) applies only to documents in the custody of or under the control of the PRA.
(3)An obligation imposed on a person as a result of the exercise of the powers conferred by subsection (1) is enforceable by injunction or, in Scotland, by an order for specific performance under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988.
(1)This section has effect for the interpretation of this Act.
(2)The FCA and the PRA are the “regulators”, and references to a regulator are to be read accordingly.
(3)Subsection (2) does not affect—
(a)the meaning of the following expressions—
“home state regulator”;
“host state regulator”;
“overseas regulator”; or
(b)the meaning of “the appropriate regulator” in Part 18 (recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).
(1)In relation to the regulators, the regulatory principles referred to in section 1B(5)(a) and 2H(1)(a) are as follows—
(a)the need to use the resources of each regulator in the most efficient and economic way;
(b)the principle that a burden or restriction which is imposed on a person, or on the carrying on of an activity, should be proportionate to the benefits, considered in general terms, which are expected to result from the imposition of that burden or restriction;
(c)the desirability of sustainable growth in the economy of the United Kingdom in the medium or long term;
(d)the general principle that consumers should take responsibility for their decisions;
(e)the responsibilities of the senior management of persons subject to requirements imposed by or under this Act, including those affecting consumers, in relation to compliance with those requirements;
(f)the desirability where appropriate of each regulator exercising its functions in a way that recognises differences in the nature of, and objectives of, businesses carried on by different persons subject to requirements imposed by or under this Act;
(g)the desirability in appropriate cases of each regulator publishing information relating to persons on whom requirements are imposed by or under this Act, or requiring such persons to publish information, as a means of contributing to the advancement by each regulator of its objectives;
(h)the principle that the regulators should exercise their functions as transparently as possible.
(2)“Consumer” has the meaning given in section 1G.
(3)“Objectives”, in relation to the FCA, means operational objectives.
(4)The Treasury may by order amend subsection (2).
In managing its affairs, each regulator must have regard to such generally accepted principles of good corporate governance as it is reasonable to regard as applicable to it.
(1)The regulators must co-ordinate the exercise of their respective functions conferred by or under this Act with a view to ensuring—
(a)that each regulator consults the other regulator (where not otherwise required to do so) in connection with any proposed exercise of a function in a way that may have a material adverse effect on the advancement by the other regulator of any of its objectives;
(b)that where appropriate each regulator obtains information and advice from the other regulator in connection with the exercise of its functions in relation to matters of common regulatory interest in cases where the other regulator may be expected to have relevant information or relevant expertise;
(c)that where either regulator exercises functions in relation to matters of common regulatory interest, both regulators comply with their respective duties under section 1B(5)(a) or 2H(1)(a), so far as relating to the regulatory principles in section 3B(1)(a) and (b).
(2)The duty in subsection (1) applies only to the extent that compliance with the duty—
(a)is compatible with the advancement by each regulator of any of its objectives, and
(b)does not impose a burden on the regulators that is disproportionate to the benefits of compliance.
(3)A function conferred on either regulator by or under this Act relates to matters of common regulatory interest if—
(a)the other regulator exercises similar or related functions in relation to the same persons,
(b)the other regulator exercises functions which relate to different persons but relate to similar subject-matter, or
(c)its exercise could affect the advancement by the other regulator of any of its objectives.
(4)“Objectives”, in relation to the FCA, means operational objectives.
(1)The regulators must prepare and maintain a memorandum which describes in general terms—
(a)the role of each regulator in relation to the exercise of functions conferred by or under this Act which relate to matters of common regulatory interest, and
(b)how the regulators intend to comply with section 3D in relation to the exercise of such functions.
(2)The memorandum may in particular contain provisions about how the regulators intend to comply with section 3D in relation to—
(a)applications for Part 4A permission;
(b)the variation of permission;
(c)the imposition of requirements;
(d)the obtaining and disclosure of information;
(e)cases where a PRA-authorised person is a member of a group whose other members include one or more other authorised persons (whether or not PRA-authorised persons);
(f)functions under Schedule 3 (EEA passport rights) and Schedule 4 (Treaty rights);
(g)the making of rules;
(h)directions under section 138A (modification or waiver of rules);
(i)powers to appoint competent persons under Part 11 (information gathering and investigations) to conduct investigations on their behalf;
(j)functions under Part 12 (control over authorised persons);
(k)functions under Part 13 (incoming firms: intervention by regulator);
(l)functions under Part 19 (Lloyd's);
(m)functions under section 347 (record of authorised persons etc.);
(n)functions under Part 24 (insolvency);
(o)fees payable to either regulator.
(3)The memorandum must contain provision about the co-ordination by the regulators of—
(a)the exercise of their functions relating to membership of, and their relations with, the European Supervisory Authorities (namely, the European Banking Authority, the European Insurance and Occupational Pensions Authority and the European Securities and Markets Authority),
(b)their relations with regulatory bodies outside the United Kingdom, and
(c)the exercise of their functions in relation to the compensation scheme.
(4)The regulators must review the memorandum at least once in each calendar year.
(5)The regulators must give the Treasury a copy of the memorandum and any revised memorandum.
(6)The Treasury must lay before Parliament a copy of any document received by them under this section.
(7)The regulators must ensure that the memorandum as currently in force is published in the way appearing to them to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(8)The memorandum need not relate to any aspect of compliance with section 3D if the regulators consider—
(a)that publication of information about that aspect would be against the public interest, or
(b)that that aspect is a technical or operational matter not affecting the public.
(9)The reference in subsection (1)(a) to matters of common regulatory interest is to be read in accordance with section 3D(3).
(1)The regulators must prepare and maintain a memorandum which describes in general terms—
(a)the role of each regulator in relation to the exercise of functions conferred by or under this Act so far as they relate to with-profits insurers, and
(b)how the regulators intend to comply with section 3D in relation to the exercise of those functions so far as they relate to the effecting or carrying out of with-profits policies by with-profits insurers.
(2)The memorandum required by this section may be combined with the memorandum required by section 3E.
(3)If the memorandum required by this section is contained in a separate document, the PRA and the FCA must publish the memorandum as currently in force in such manner as they think fit.
(4)Subsections (1) to (3) apply only if the effecting or carrying out of with-profits policies is a PRA-regulated activity.
(5)For the purposes of this section—
(a)a “with-profits policy” is a contract of insurance under which the policyholder is eligible to receive a financial benefit at the discretion of the insurer;
(b)a “with-profits insurer” is a PRA-authorised person who has a Part 4A permission, or permission resulting from any other provision of this Act, relating to the effecting or carrying out of with-profits policies (whether or not the permission also relates to contracts of insurance of other kinds).
(6)The Treasury may by order amend the definition of “with-profits policy” applying for the purposes of this section.
(1)The Treasury may by order specify matters that, in relation to the exercise by either regulator of its functions relating to PRA-authorised persons, are to be, or are to be primarily, the responsibility of one regulator rather than the other.
(2)The order may—
(a)provide that one regulator is or is not to have regard to specified matters when exercising specified functions;
(b)require one regulator to consult the other.
(1)No order may be made under section 3G unless—
(a)a draft of the order has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House, or
(b)subsection (3) applies.
(2)Subsection (3) applies if an order under section 3G contains a statement that the Treasury are of the opinion that, by reason of urgency, it is necessary to make the order without a draft being so laid and approved.
(3)Where this subsection applies the order—
(a)must be laid before Parliament after being made, and
(b)ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period unless before the end of that period the order is approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament (but without that affecting anything done under the order or the power to make a new order).
(4)The “relevant period” is a period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the order is made.
(5)In calculating the relevant period no account is to be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during which both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days.
(1)Where the first, second and third conditions are met, the PRA may give a direction under this section to the FCA.
(2)The first condition is that the FCA is proposing—
(a)to exercise any of its regulatory powers in relation to PRA-authorised persons generally, a class of PRA-authorised persons or a particular PRA-authorised person, or
(b)to exercise any of its insolvency powers in relation to—
(i)a PRA-authorised person,
(ii)an appointed representative whose principal, or one of whose principals, is a PRA-authorised person, or
(iii)a person who is carrying on a PRA-regulated activity in contravention of the general prohibition.
(3)In subsection (2)—
(a)“regulatory powers”, in relation to the FCA, means its powers in relation to the regulation of authorised persons, other than its powers in relation to consent for the purposes of section 55F or 55I or its powers under Part 24;
(b)“insolvency powers”, in relation to the FCA, means its powers under Part 24.
(4)The second condition is that the PRA is of the opinion that the exercise of the power in the manner proposed may—
(a)threaten the stability of the UK financial system, or
(b)result in the failure of a PRA-authorised person in a way that would adversely affect the UK financial system.
(5)The third condition is that the PRA is of the opinion that the giving of the direction is necessary in order to avoid the possible consequence falling within subsection (4).
(6)A direction under this section is a direction requiring the FCA not to exercise the power or not to exercise it in a specified manner.
(7)The direction may be expressed to have effect during a specified period or until revoked.
(8)The FCA is not required to comply with a direction under this section if or to the extent that in the opinion of the FCA compliance would be incompatible with any EU obligation or any other international obligation of the United Kingdom.
(9)The reference in subsection (4)(b) to the “failure” of a PRA-authorised person is to be read in accordance with section 2J(3) and (4).
(1)Where the first, second and third conditions are met, the PRA may give a direction under this section to the FCA.
(2)The first condition is that the FCA is proposing to exercise any of its regulatory powers in relation to with-profits insurers, a class of with-profits insurers or a particular with-profits insurer.
(3)In subsection (2) “regulatory powers”, in relation to the FCA, means its powers in relation to the regulation of authorised persons, including its powers under Part 24 (insolvency) but not its powers in relation to consent for the purposes of section 55F or 55I.
(4)The second condition is that the proposed exercise of the power relates to the provision of financial benefits under with-profits policies at the discretion of the insurer, or affects or may affect the amount, timing or distribution of financial benefits that are so provided or the entitlement to future benefits that are so provided.
(5)The third condition is that the PRA is of the opinion that the giving of the direction is desirable in order to advance the PRA's general objective or its insurance objective.
(6)A direction under this section is a direction requiring the FCA not to exercise the power or not to exercise it in a specified manner.
(7)The direction may be expressed to have effect during a specified period or until revoked.
(8)The FCA is not required to comply with a direction under this section if or to the extent that in the opinion of the FCA compliance would be incompatible with any EU obligation or any other international obligation of the United Kingdom.
(9)Subsections (1) to (8) apply only if the effecting or carrying out of with-profits policies is a PRA-regulated activity.
(10)In this section “with-profits insurer” and “with-profits policy” have the same meaning as they have for the purposes of section 3F.
(1)The PRA may at any time by notice to the FCA revoke a direction under section 3I or 3J.
(2)The revocation of a direction under section 3I or 3J does not affect the validity of anything previously done in accordance with it.
(1)Before giving a direction under section 3I or 3J, the PRA must consult the FCA.
(2)A direction under section 3I or 3J must be given or confirmed in writing, and must be accompanied by a statement of the reasons for giving it.
(3)A notice revoking a direction under section 3I or 3J must be given or confirmed in writing.
(4)The PRA must—
(a)publish the direction and statement, or the notice, in such manner as it thinks fit, and
(b)where the direction or notice relates to a particular authorised person or a particular with-profits insurer, give a copy of the direction and statement, or the notice, to that person.
(5)The PRA must give the Treasury a copy of—
(a)a direction under section 3I;
(b)a statement relating to such a direction;
(c)a notice revoking such a direction.
(6)The Treasury must lay before Parliament any document received by them under subsection (5).
(7)Subsection (4) does not apply where the PRA, after consulting the Treasury, decides that compliance with that subsection would be against the public interest, and at any time when this subsection excludes the application of subsection (4) in relation to a direction under section 3I, subsection (6) also does not apply.
(8)Where the PRA decides that compliance with subsection (4) would be against the public interest, it must from time to time review that decision and if it subsequently decides that compliance is no longer against the public interest it must—
(a)comply with that subsection, and
(b)in the case of a direction under section 3I, notify the Treasury for the purposes of subsection (6).
(1)This section applies where one of the regulators (“the supervising regulator”), but not the other, is the competent authority for the purpose of consolidated supervision that is required in relation to some or all of the members of a group (“the relevant group”) in pursuance of any of the relevant directives.
(2)“Consolidated supervision” includes supplementary supervision.
(3)The “relevant directives” are—
(a)the banking consolidation directive;
(b)Directive 2002/87/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the supplementary supervision of credit institutions, insurance undertakings and investment firms in a financial conglomerate;
(c)Directive 2006/49/EC on the capital adequacy of investment firms and credit institutions;
(d)Directive 2009/138/EC of the European Parliament and the Council of 25 November 2009 on the taking-up and pursuit of the business of Insurance and Reinsurance (Solvency II).
(4)The supervising regulator may, if it considers it necessary to do so for the effective consolidated supervision of the relevant group, give the other regulator a direction under this section.
(5)A direction under this section is a direction requiring the other regulator to exercise, or not to exercise, a relevant function in a specified manner in relation to authorised persons who are members of the relevant group.
(6)The direction may relate to members of the relevant group other than the members in respect of which consolidated supervision is required.
(7)A “relevant function”, in relation to either regulator, is a function conferred by or under this Act which relates to the regulation of authorised persons, but does not include—
(a)the regulator's function of making rules under this Act;
(b)its function of preparing and issuing codes under this Act;
(c)its function of determining the general policy and principles by reference to which it performs particular functions;
(d)the FCA's functions in relation to the giving of general guidance;
(e)the PRA's functions in relation to the giving of guidance under section 2I;
(f)the FCA's functions in relation to consent for the purposes of section 55F or 55I.
(8)The direction may not require the regulator to which it is given (“the directed regulator”) to do anything that it has no power to do, but the direction is relevant to the exercise of any discretion conferred on the directed regulator.
(9)The directed regulator must comply with the direction as soon as practicable, but this is subject to subsections (10) and (11).
(10)The directed regulator is not required to comply with a direction under this section if or to the extent that in its opinion compliance would be incompatible with any EU obligation or any other international obligation of the United Kingdom.
(11)Directions given by the FCA under this section are subject to any directions given to the FCA under section 3I or 3J.
(1)The supervising regulator may at any time by notice to the other regulator revoke a direction under section 3M.
(2)The revocation of the direction does not affect the validity of anything previously done in accordance with it.
(3)Expressions defined for the purposes of section 3M have the same meaning in this section.
(1)Before giving a direction under section 3M, the supervising regulator must consult the other regulator.
(2)A direction under section 3M must be given or confirmed in writing, and must be accompanied by a statement of the reasons for giving it.
(3)A notice revoking a direction under section 3M must be given or confirmed in writing.
(4)The regulator to which a direction under section 3M is given must give a copy of the direction and statement to each of the authorised persons to whom the direction relates.
(5)The supervising regulator must publish the direction and statement, or the notice, in such manner as it thinks fit.
(6)But subsection (4) or (5) does not apply in a case where the regulator on which the duty is imposed considers that compliance with that subsection would be against the public interest.
(7)In a case where a regulator decides that compliance with subsection (4) or (5) would be against the public interest, the regulator must from time to time review that decision and if it subsequently decides that compliance is no longer against the public interest it must comply with the subsection.
(8)Expressions defined for the purposes of section 3M have the same meaning in this section.
(1)If the directed regulator is required by this Act to consult any person other than the supervising regulator before exercising the relevant function to which the direction relates, the directed regulator must give the supervising regulator copies of any written representations received from the persons consulted.
(2)Expressions defined for the purposes of section 3M have the same meaning in this section.
(1)Each regulator must take such steps as it considers appropriate to co-operate with the Bank of England in connection with—
(a)the pursuit by the Bank of its Financial Stability Objective, and
(b)the Bank's compliance with its duties under sections 58 and 59 of the Financial Services Act 2012 (duty to notify Treasury of possible need for public funds and of subsequent changes).
(2)Co-operation under subsection (1) may include the sharing of information that the regulator is not prevented from disclosing.
(1)The regulators may enter into arrangements with each other for the provision of services by one of them to the other.
(2)Either regulator may enter into arrangements with the Bank of England for the provision of services—
(a)by the Bank to the regulator, or
(b)by the regulator to the Bank.
(3)Either regulator may enter into arrangements with any of the bodies specified in subsection (4) for the provision of services by the regulator to that body.
(4)Those bodies are—
(a)the consumer financial education body (see section 3S(2)),
(b)the scheme manager (see section 212(1)), and
(c)the scheme operator (see section 225(2)).
(5)The FCA may enter into arrangements with—
(a)a local weights and measures authority in England, Wales or Scotland, or
(b)the Department of Enterprise, Trade and Investment in Northern Ireland,
for the provision by the authority or department to the FCA of services which relate to activities to which this subsection applies.
(6)Subsection (5) applies to activities that are regulated activities by virtue of—
(a)an order made under section 22(1) in relation to an investment of a kind falling within paragraph 23 or 23B of Schedule 2, or
(b)an order made under section 22(1A)(a).
(7)Arrangements under this section are to be on such terms as may be agreed by the parties.
(1)The consumer financial education body continues to have the consumer financial education function.
(2)The “consumer financial education body” means the body corporate originally established by the Financial Services Authority under section 6A of this Act (as it had effect before the passing of the Financial Services Act 2012).
(3)The consumer financial education function is to enhance—
(a)the understanding and knowledge of members of the public of financial matters (including the UK financial system), and
(b)the ability of members of the public to manage their own financial affairs.
(4)The consumer financial education function includes, in particular—
(a)promoting awareness of the benefits of financial planning;
(b)promoting awareness of the financial advantages and disadvantages in relation to particular decisions relating to different kinds of goods or services;
(c)promoting awareness of the benefits and risks associated with different kinds of financial dealing (which includes informing the FCA and other bodies of those benefits and risks);
(d)the publication of educational materials or the carrying out of other educational activities;
(e)the provision of information and advice to members of the public;
(f)assisting members of the public with the management of debt;
(g)working with other organisations which provide debt services, with a view to improving—
(i)the availability to the public of those services;
(ii)the quality of the services provided;
(iii)consistency in the services available, in the way in which they are provided and in the advice given.
(5)In subsection (4) “debt services” means debt advice or assistance with the management of debt.
(6)Schedule 1A makes further provision about the consumer financial education body.”
(2)For Schedule 1 to FSMA 2000 substitute the Schedules 1ZA and 1ZB set out in Schedule 3 to this Act.
Commencement Information
I1S. 6 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I2S. 6 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I3S. 6 in force at 19.2.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(2), Sch. Pt. 4
I4S. 6 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)In section 22 of FSMA 2000 (the classes of activity and categories of investment)—
(a)after subsection (1) insert—
“(1A)An activity is also a regulated activity for the purposes of this Act if it is an activity of a specified kind which is carried on by way of business and relates to—
(a)information about a person's financial standing, or
(b)the setting of a specified benchmark.”,
(b)in subsection (3), after “(1)” insert “ or (1A) ”,
(c)after subsection (5) insert—
“(6)Benchmark” means an index, rate or price that—
(a)is determined from time to time by reference to the state of the market,
(b)is made available to the public (whether free of charge or on payment), and
(c)is used for reference for purposes that include one or more of the following—
(i)determining the interest payable, or other sums due, under loan agreements or under other contracts relating to investments;
(ii)determining the price at which investments may be bought or sold or the value of investments;
(iii)measuring the performance of investments.”, and”
(d)for the heading substitute “ Regulated activities ”.
(2)Schedule 2 to FSMA 2000 (regulated activities) is amended as follows.
(3)For paragraph 23 (and the italic heading before it) substitute—
(1)Rights under any contract under which one person provides another with credit.
(2)“Credit” includes any cash loan or other financial accommodation.
(3)“Cash” includes money in any form.
(4)It is immaterial for the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) whether or not the obligation of the borrower is secured on property of any kind.”
(4)After paragraph 23A insert—
(1)Rights under a contract for the bailment or (in Scotland) hiring of goods to a person other than a body corporate.
(2)“Goods” has the meaning given in section 61(1) of the Sale of Goods Act 1979.
(3)It is immaterial for the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) whether the rights of the person to whom the goods are bailed or hired have been assigned to a body corporate.”
(5)After paragraph 24 insert—
24AThe matters with respect to which provision may be made under section 22(1A)(a) include, in particular, those described in general terms in this Part of this Schedule.
24BFurnishing persons with information that—
(a)is relevant to the financial standing of persons other than bodies corporate, and
(b)is collected for that purpose by the person furnishing it.
(1)Taking steps on behalf of a person other than a body corporate in connection with information relevant to that person's financial standing that is or may be held by a regulated person.
(2)“Regulated person” means—
(a)a person who is carrying on a regulated activity, or
(b)a person who is carrying on a business in respect of which a licence under section 21 of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 is required.
24DGiving advice to a person other than a body corporate in relation to the taking of any steps of the kind mentioned in paragraph 24C(1).
24EThe matters with respect to which provisions may be made under section 22(1A)(b) include, in particular, those described in general terms in this Part of this Schedule.
24FProviding any information or expression of opinion that—
(a)is required by another person in connection with the determination of a benchmark, and
(b)is provided to that person for that purpose.
(1)Administering the arrangements for determining a benchmark.
(2)Collecting, analysing or processing information or expressions of opinion for the purpose of the determination of a benchmark.
(1)Determining a benchmark.
(2)Publishing a benchmark or information connected with a benchmark.”
Commencement Information
I5S. 7 in force at 24.1.2013 by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(a), Sch. Pt. 1
(1)Schedule 2 to FSMA 2000 (regulated activities) is amended as follows.
(2)In paragraph 25(1)—
(a)after “22(1)” insert “ or (1A) ”, and
(b)for “the Authority”, in each place, substitute “ either regulator ”.
(3)For paragraph 26 substitute—
(1)This paragraph applies to any order made under section 22(1) or (1A) which contains a statement by the Treasury that, in their opinion, the effect (or one of the effects) of the proposed order would be that an activity which is not a regulated activity would become a regulated activity.
(2)No order to which this paragraph applies may be made unless—
(a)a draft of the order has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House, or
(b)sub-paragraph (4) applies.
(3)Sub-paragraph (4) applies if an order to which this paragraph applies also contains a statement that the Treasury are of the opinion that, by reason of urgency, it is necessary to make the order without a draft being so laid and approved.
(4)Where this sub-paragraph applies the order—
(a)must be laid before Parliament after being made, and
(b)ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period unless before the end of that period the order is approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament (but without that affecting anything done under the order or the power to make a new order).
(5)The “relevant period” is a period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the order is made.
(6)In calculating the relevant period no account is to be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during which both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days.”
Commencement Information
I6S. 8 in force at 24.1.2013 by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(a), Sch. Pt. 1
After section 22 of FSMA 2000 insert—
(1)The Treasury may by order specify the regulated activities that are “PRA-regulated activities” for the purposes of this Act.
(2)An order under subsection (1) may—
(a)provide for exceptions;
(b)confer powers on the Treasury or either regulator;
(c)authorise the making of rules or other instruments by either regulator for purposes of, or connected with, any relevant provision;
(d)make provision in respect of any information or document which in the opinion of the Treasury or either regulator is relevant for purposes of, or connected with, any relevant provision;
(e)make such consequential, transitional, or supplemental provision as the Treasury consider appropriate for purposes of, or connected with, any relevant provision.
(3)Provision made as a result of subsection (2)(e) may amend any primary or subordinate legislation, including any provision of, or made under, this Act.
(4)“Relevant provision” means this section or any provision made under this section.
(1)This section applies to the first order made under section 22A(1).
(2)This section also applies to any subsequent order made under section 22A(1) which—
(a)contains a statement by the Treasury that, in their opinion, the effect (or one of the effects) of the proposed order would be—
(i)that an activity would become a PRA-regulated activity, or
(ii)that a PRA-regulated activity would become a regulated activity that is not a PRA-regulated activity, or
(b)amends primary legislation.
(3)No order to which this section applies may be made unless—
(a)a draft of the order has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House, or
(b)subsection (5) applies.
(4)Subsection (5) applies if an order to which this section applies contains a statement that the Treasury are of the opinion that, by reason of urgency, it is necessary to make the order without a draft being so laid and approved.
(5)Where this subsection applies the order—
(a)must be laid before Parliament after being made, and
(b)ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period unless before the end of that period the order is approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament (but without that affecting anything done under the order or the power to make a new order).
(6)The “relevant period” is a period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the order is made.
(7)In calculating the relevant period no account is to be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during which both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days.”
Commencement Information
I7S. 9 in force at 24.1.2013 by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(a), Sch. Pt. 1
(1)Section 39 of FSMA 2000 (appointed representatives) is amended as follows.
(2)After subsection (1B) insert—
“(1C)Subsection (1D) applies where an authorised person (“A”)—
(a)has permission under Part 4A, or permission resulting from any other provision of this Act, only in relation to one or more qualifying activities,
(b)is a party to a contract with another authorised person (A's “principal”) which—
(i)permits or requires A to carry on business of a prescribed description (“the relevant business”), and
(ii)complies with such requirements as may be prescribed, and
(c)is someone for whose activities in carrying on the whole or part of the relevant business A's principal has accepted responsibility in writing.
(1D)Sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) do not apply in relation to the carrying on by A of a relevant additional activity.
(1E)In subsections (1C) and (1D)—
(a)“qualifying activity” means a regulated activity which is of a prescribed kind and relates—
(i)to rights under a contract of the kind mentioned in paragraph 23 of Schedule 2, other than one under which the obligation of the borrower to repay is secured on land, or
(ii)to rights under a contract of the kind mentioned in paragraph 23B of that Schedule;
(b)“relevant additional activity” means a regulated activity which—
(i)is not one to which A's permission relates, and
(ii)is comprised in the carrying on of the business for which A's principal has accepted responsibility.”
(3)For subsection (2) substitute—
“(2)In this Act “appointed representative” means—
(a)a person who is exempt as a result of subsection (1), or
(b)a person carrying on a regulated activity in circumstances where, as a result of subsection (1D), sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) do not apply.”
Commencement Information
I8S. 10 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)In section 31 (authorised persons), in subsection (1)(a), for “Part IV permission” substitute “ Part 4A permission ”.
(2)For sections 40 to 55 of FSMA 2000 substitute—
(1)An application for permission to carry on one or more regulated activities may be made to the appropriate regulator by—
(a)an individual,
(b)a body corporate,
(c)a partnership, or
(d)an unincorporated association.
(2)“The appropriate regulator”, in relation to an application under this section, means—
(a)the PRA, in a case where—
(i)the regulated activities to which the application relates consist of or include a PRA-regulated activity, or
(ii)the applicant is a PRA-authorised person otherwise than by virtue of a Part 4A permission;
(b)the FCA, in any other case.
(3)An authorised person who has a permission under this Part which is in force may not apply for permission under this section.
(4)An EEA firm may not apply for permission under this section to carry on a regulated activity which it is, or would be, entitled to carry on in exercise of an EEA right, whether through a United Kingdom branch or by providing services in the United Kingdom.
(5)A permission given by the appropriate regulator under this Part or having effect as if so given is referred to in this Act as “a Part 4A permission”.
(1)“The threshold conditions”, in relation to a regulated activity, means the conditions set out in or specified under Schedule 6, as read with any threshold condition code made by either regulator under section 137O.
(2)Any reference in this Part to the threshold conditions for which either regulator is responsible is to be read as a reference to the conditions set out in or specified under Schedule 6 that are expressed to be relevant to the discharge by that regulator of its functions, as read with any threshold condition code made by that regulator under section 137O.
(3)In giving or varying permission, imposing or varying a requirement, or giving consent, under any provision of this Part, each regulator must ensure that the person concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in relation to all of the regulated activities for which the person has or will have permission, the threshold conditions for which that regulator is responsible.
(4)But the duty imposed by subsection (3) does not prevent a regulator, having due regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers are necessary, in relation to a particular person, in order to advance—
(a)in the case of the FCA, any of its operational objectives;
(b)in the case of the PRA, any of its objectives.
(1)The Treasury may by order amend Parts 1 and 2 of Schedule 6 by altering, adding or repealing provisions, or by substituting for those Parts as they have effect for the time being provisions specified in the order.
(2)Different provision may be made under this section—
(a)in relation to the discharge of the functions of each regulator;
(b)in relation to different regulated activities;
(c)in relation to persons who carry on, or seek to carry on, activities that consist of or include a PRA-regulated activity and in relation to other persons.
(1)This section applies in relation to a person (“the non-EEA firm”)—
(a)who is a body incorporated in, or formed under the law of, or is an individual who is a national of, any country or territory outside the EEA, and
(b)who is carrying on a regulated activity in any country or territory outside the United Kingdom in accordance with the law of that country or territory (“the overseas state”).
(2)In determining whether the non-EEA firm is satisfying or will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, any one or more of the threshold conditions for which a UK regulator is responsible, the UK regulator may have regard to any opinion notified to it by a regulatory authority in the overseas state (“the overseas regulator”) which relates to the non-EEA firm and appears to the UK regulator to be relevant to compliance with those conditions.
(3)In considering how much weight (if any) to attach to the opinion, the UK regulator must have regard to the nature and scope of the supervision exercised in relation to the non-EEA firm by the overseas regulator.
(4)In this section “UK regulator” means the FCA or the PRA.
(1)This section applies where the FCA is the appropriate regulator in relation to an application for permission under section 55A.
(2)The FCA may give permission for the applicant to carry on the regulated activity or activities to which the application relates or such of them as may be specified in the permission.
(3)If the applicant is a member of a group which includes a PRA-authorised person, the FCA must consult the PRA before determining the application.
(4)If it gives permission, the FCA must specify the permitted regulated activity or activities, described in such manner as the FCA considers appropriate.
(5)The FCA may—
(a)incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example as to circumstances in which the activity may, or may not, be carried on) as it considers appropriate;
(b)specify a narrower or wider description of regulated activity than that to which the application relates;
(c)give permission for the carrying on of a regulated activity which is not included among those to which the application relates and is not a PRA-regulated activity.
(1)This section applies where the PRA is the appropriate regulator in relation to an application for permission under section 55A.
(2)The PRA may with the consent of the FCA give permission for the applicant to carry on the regulated activity or activities to which the application relates or such of them as may be specified in the permission.
(3)If it gives permission, the PRA must specify the permitted regulated activity or activities, described in such manner as the PRA considers appropriate.
(4)The PRA may—
(a)incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example as to circumstances in which the activity may, or may not, be carried on) as it considers appropriate;
(b)specify a narrower or wider description of regulated activity than that to which the application relates;
(c)give permission for the carrying on of a regulated activity which is not included among those to which the application relates.
(5)Consent given by the FCA for the purposes of this section may be conditional on the manner in which the PRA exercises its powers under subsections (3) and (4).
(6)Subsections (3) and (4)(b) and (c) do not enable the PRA to give permission that relates only to activities that are not PRA-regulated activities, except where the applicant is a PRA-authorised person otherwise than by virtue of a Part 4A permission.
(1)“The applicant” means an applicant for permission under section 55A.
(2)If the applicant—
(a)in relation to a particular regulated activity, is exempt from the general prohibition as a result of section 39(1) or an order made under section 38(1), but
(b)has applied for permission in relation to another regulated activity,
the application is to be treated as relating to all the regulated activities which, if permission is given, the applicant will carry on.
(3)If the applicant—
(a)in relation to a particular regulated activity, is exempt from the general prohibition as a result of section 285(2) or (3), but
(b)has applied for permission in relation to another regulated activity,
the application is to be treated as relating only to that other regulated activity.
(4)If the applicant—
(a)is a person to whom, in relation to a particular regulated activity, the general prohibition does not apply as a result of Part 19, but
(b)has applied for permission in relation to another regulated activity,
the application is to be treated as relating only to that other regulated activity.
(5)Subsection (6) applies where either regulator (“the responsible regulator”) receives an application for permission under section 55A which is in the regulator's opinion similar to an application which was previously made to the other regulator and was either—
(a)treated by the other regulator as not being a valid application to that regulator because of the regulated activities to which it related, or
(b)refused by the other regulator after being considered.
(6)The responsible regulator must have regard to the desirability of minimising—
(a)the additional work for the applicant in dealing with the new application, and
(b)the time taken to deal with the new application.
(1)This section applies in relation to an authorised person who has a Part 4A permission but is not a PRA-authorised person.
(2)The FCA may, on the application of the authorised person, vary the permission by—
(a)adding a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity, to those to which the permission relates;
(b)removing a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates;
(c)varying the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates.
(3)The FCA may, on the application of the authorised person, cancel the permission.
(4)The FCA may refuse an application under this section if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance any of its operational objectives.
(5)If the applicant is a member of a group which includes a PRA-authorised person, the FCA must consult the PRA before determining the application.
(6)If as a result of a variation of a Part 4A permission under this section there are no longer any regulated activities for which the authorised person concerned has permission, the FCA must, once it is satisfied that it is no longer necessary to keep the permission in force, cancel it.
(7)The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission under this section extends to including in the permission as varied any provision that could be included if a fresh permission were being given by it in response to an application under section 55A.
(1)On the application of a PRA-authorised person with a Part 4A permission, the PRA may with the consent of the FCA vary the permission by—
(a)adding a regulated activity to those to which the permission relates;
(b)removing a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates;
(c)varying the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates.
(2)On the application of a PRA-authorised person with a Part 4A permission, the PRA may, after consulting the FCA, cancel the permission.
(3)On the application of an authorised person other than a PRA-authorised person, the PRA may with the consent of the FCA vary the permission by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
(4)The PRA may refuse an application under this section if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance any of its objectives.
(5)The FCA may withhold its consent to a proposed variation under this section if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.
(6)If as a result of a variation of a Part 4A permission under this section there are no longer any regulated activities for which the authorised person concerned has permission, the PRA must, once it is satisfied after consulting the FCA that it is no longer necessary to keep the permission in force, cancel it.
(7)The PRA's power to vary a Part 4A permission under this section extends to including in the permission as varied any provision that could be included if a fresh permission were being given by it in response to an application under section 55A.
(8)Consent given by the FCA for the purposes of subsection (1) may be conditional on the manner in which the PRA exercises its powers under section 55F(3) and (4) (as a result of subsection (7)).
(1)Either regulator may exercise its power under this section in relation to an authorised person with a Part 4A permission (“A”) if it appears to the regulator that—
(a)A is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the regulator is responsible,
(b)A has failed, during a period of at least 12 months, to carry on a regulated activity to which the Part 4A permission relates, or
(c)it is desirable to exercise the power in order to advance—
(i)in the case of the FCA, one or more of its operational objectives,
(ii)in the case of the PRA, any of its objectives.
(2)The FCA's power under this section is the power—
(a)to vary the Part 4A permission by—
(i)adding a regulated activity other than a PRA-regulated activity to those to which the permission relates,
(ii)removing a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates, or
(iii)varying the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates in a way which, if it is a PRA-regulated activity, does not, in the opinion of the FCA, widen the description, or
(b)to cancel the Part 4A permission.
(3)The PRA's power under this section is the power—
(a)in the case of a PRA-authorised person, to vary the Part 4A permission in any of the ways mentioned in section 55I(1) or to cancel it;
(b)in the case of an authorised person who is not a PRA-authorised person, to vary the Part 4A permission by adding a PRA-regulated activity to those to which the permission relates and, if the PRA does so, to vary the Part 4A permission in any of the other ways mentioned in section 55I(1).
(4)The FCA—
(a)must consult the PRA before exercising its power under this section in relation to—
(i)a PRA-authorised person, or
(ii)a member of a group which includes a PRA-authorised person, and
(b)in the case of a PRA-authorised person, may exercise the power so as to add a new activity to those to which the permission relates or to widen the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates, only with the consent of the PRA.
(5)The PRA—
(a)must consult the FCA before exercising its power under this section, and
(b)may exercise the power so as to add a new activity to those to which the permission relates or to widen the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates, only with the consent of the FCA.
(6)Without prejudice to the generality of subsections (1) to (3), a regulator may, in relation to an authorised person who is an investment firm, exercise its power under this section to cancel the Part 4A permission if it appears to it that any of the conditions in section 55K is met.
(7)Without prejudice to the generality of subsections (1) and (2), the FCA may, in relation to an authorised person who has permission to carry on the regulated activity specified in article 24A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (which relates to bids in emission allowance auctions), exercise its power under this section to vary the Part 4A permission of the person concerned by removing that activity from those to which the permission relates if it appears to the FCA that the person has seriously and systematically infringed the provisions of paragraph 2 or 3 of Article 59 of the emission allowance auctioning regulation.
(8)If, as a result of a variation of a Part 4A permission under this section, there are no longer any regulated activities for which the authorised person concerned has permission, the regulator responsible for the variation must, once it is satisfied that it is no longer necessary to keep the permission in force, cancel it.
(9)Before cancelling under subsection (8) a Part 4A permission which relates to a person who (before the variation) was a PRA-authorised person, the regulator must consult the other regulator.
(10)The power of either regulator to vary a Part 4A permission under this section extends to including in the permission as varied any provision that could be included if a fresh permission were being given in response to an application to that regulator under section 55A.
(11)Consent given by one regulator for the purpose of subsection (4)(b) or (5)(b) may be conditional on the manner in which the other regulator exercises its powers under section 55E(4) and (5) or 55F(3) and (4) (as a result of subsection (10)).
(12)The power of the FCA or the PRA under this section is referred to in this Part as its own-initiative variation power.
(1)The conditions referred to in section 55J(6) are as follows—
(a)that the firm has failed, during a period of at least 6 months, to carry on a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity for which it has a Part 4A permission;
(b)that the firm obtained the Part 4A permission by making a false statement or by other irregular means;
(c)that the firm no longer satisfies the requirements for authorisation pursuant to Chapter I of Title II of the markets in financial instruments directive, or pursuant to or contained in any EU legislation made under that Chapter, in relation to a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity for which it has a Part 4A permission;
(d)that the firm has seriously and systematically infringed the operating conditions pursuant to Chapter II of Title II of the markets in financial instruments directive, or pursuant to or contained in any EU legislation made under that Chapter, in relation to a regulated activity which is an investment service or activity for which it has a Part 4A permission.
(2)For the purposes of this section a regulated activity is an investment service or activity if it falls within the definition of “investment services and activities” in section 417(1).
(1)Where a person has applied (whether to the FCA or the PRA) for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission, the FCA may impose on that person such requirements, taking effect on or after the giving or variation of the permission, as the FCA considers appropriate.
(2)The FCA may exercise its power under subsection (3) in relation to an authorised person with a Part 4A permission (whether given by it or by the PRA) (“A”) if it appears to the FCA that—
(a)A is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible,
(b)A has failed, during a period of at least 12 months, to carry on a regulated activity to which the Part 4A permission relates, or
(c)it is desirable to exercise the power in order to advance one or more of the FCA's operational objectives.
(3)The FCA's power under this subsection is a power—
(a)to impose a new requirement,
(b)to vary a requirement imposed by the FCA under this section, or
(c)to cancel such a requirement.
(4)The FCA's power under subsection (3) is referred to in this Part as its own-initiative requirement power.
(5)The FCA may, on the application of an authorised person with a Part 4A permission—
(a)impose a new requirement,
(b)vary a requirement imposed by the FCA under this section, or
(c)cancel such a requirement.
(6)The FCA may refuse an application under subsection (5) if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance any of its operational objectives.
(7)The FCA must consult the PRA before imposing or varying a requirement which relates to—
(a)a person who is, or will on the granting of an application for Part 4A permission be, a PRA-authorised person, or
(b)a person who is a member of a group which includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1)Where—
(a)a person has applied for a Part 4A permission in relation to activities which consist of or include a PRA-regulated activity,
(b)a PRA-authorised person has applied for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission, or
(c)an authorised person other than a PRA-authorised person has applied for a Part 4A permission to be varied by adding to the regulated activities to which it relates one or more regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity,
the PRA may impose on that person such requirements, taking effect on or after the giving or variation of the permission, as the PRA considers appropriate.
(2)The PRA may exercise its power under subsection (3) in relation to a PRA-authorised person with a Part 4A permission (“P”) if it appears to the PRA that—
(a)P is failing, or is likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the PRA is responsible,
(b)P has failed, during a period of at least 12 months, to carry on a regulated activity to which the Part 4A permission relates, or
(c)it is desirable to exercise the power in order to advance any of the PRA's objectives.
(3)The PRA's power under this subsection is a power—
(a)to impose a new requirement,
(b)to vary a requirement imposed by the PRA under this section, or
(c)to cancel such a requirement.
(4)The PRA's power under subsection (3) is referred to in this Part as its own-initiative requirement power.
(5)The PRA may, on the application of a PRA-authorised person with a Part 4A permission—
(a)impose a new requirement,
(b)vary a requirement imposed by the PRA under this section, or
(c)cancel such a requirement.
(6)The PRA may refuse an application under subsection (5) if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance any of its objectives.
(7)The PRA must consult the FCA before imposing or varying a requirement.
(1)A requirement may, in particular, be imposed—
(a)so as to require the person concerned to take specified action, or
(b)so as to require the person concerned to refrain from taking specified action.
(2)A requirement may extend to activities which are not regulated activities.
(3)A requirement may be imposed by reference to the person's relationship with—
(a)the person's group, or
(b)other members of the person's group.
(4)A requirement may be expressed to expire at the end of such period as the regulator imposing it may specify, but the imposition of a requirement that expires at the end of a specified period does not affect the regulator's power to impose a new requirement.
(5)A requirement may refer to the past conduct of the person concerned (for example, by requiring the person concerned to review or take remedial action in respect of past conduct).
(6)In this section “requirement” means a requirement imposed under section 55L or 55M.
(1)This section applies if it appears to the appropriate regulator that—
(a)a person has acquired control over a UK authorised person who has a Part 4A permission, but
(b)there are no grounds for exercising its own-initiative requirement power.
(2)If it appears to the appropriate regulator that the likely effect of the acquisition of control on the UK authorised person, or on any of its activities, is uncertain, the appropriate regulator may—
(a)impose on the UK authorised person a requirement that could be imposed by that regulator under section 55L or 55M (as the case may be) on the giving of permission, or
(b)vary a requirement imposed by that regulator under that section on the UK authorised person.
(3)“The appropriate regulator” means—
(a)in a case where the UK authorised person is a PRA-authorised person, the FCA or the PRA;
(b)in any other case, the FCA.
(4)This section does not affect any duty of the appropriate regulator to consult or obtain the consent of the other regulator in connection with the imposition of the requirement.
(5)Any reference to a person having acquired control is to be read in accordance with Part 12.
(1)This section applies if—
(a)on a person being given a Part 4A permission, either regulator imposes an assets requirement on that person,
(b)an assets requirement is imposed on an authorised person, or
(c)an assets requirement previously imposed on such a person is varied.
(2)A person on whom an assets requirement is imposed is referred to in this section as “A”.
(3)The “appropriate regulator” is the regulator which imposed the requirement.
(4)“Assets requirement” means a requirement under section 55L or 55M—
(a)prohibiting the disposal of, or other dealing with, any of A's assets (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) or restricting such disposals or dealings, or
(b)that all or any of A's assets, or all or any assets belonging to consumers but held by A or to A's order, must be transferred to and held by a trustee approved by the appropriate regulator.
(5)If the appropriate regulator—
(a)imposes a requirement of the kind mentioned in subsection (4)(a), and
(b)gives notice of the requirement to any institution with whom A keeps an account,
the notice has the effects mentioned in subsection (6).
(6)Those effects are that—
(a)the institution does not act in breach of any contract with A if, having been instructed by A (or on A's behalf) to transfer any sum or otherwise make any payment out of A's account, it refuses to do so in the reasonably held belief that complying with the instruction would be incompatible with the requirement, and
(b)if the institution complies with such an instruction, it is liable to pay to the appropriate regulator an amount equal to the amount transferred from, or otherwise paid out of, A's account in contravention of the requirement.
(7)If the appropriate regulator imposes a requirement of the kind mentioned in subsection (4)(b), no assets held by a person as trustee in accordance with the requirement may, while the requirement is in force, be released or dealt with except with the consent of the appropriate regulator.
(8)If, while a requirement of the kind mentioned in subsection (4)(b) is in force, A creates a charge over any assets of A held in accordance with the requirement, the charge is (to the extent that it confers security over the assets) void against the liquidator and any of A's creditors.
(9)Assets held by a person as trustee (“T”) are to be taken to be held by T in accordance with any requirement mentioned in subsection (4)(b) only if—
(a)A has given T written notice that those assets are to be held by T in accordance with the requirement, or
(b)they are assets into which assets to which paragraph (a) applies have been transposed by T on the instructions of A.
(10)A person who contravenes subsection (7) is guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.
(11)“Charge” includes a mortgage (or in Scotland a security over property).
(12)Subsections (7) and (9) do not affect any equitable interest or remedy in favour of a person who is a beneficiary of a trust as a result of a requirement of the kind mentioned in subsection (4)(b).
(1)Either UK regulator's own-initiative powers may be exercised in respect of an authorised person at the request of, or for the purpose of assisting, an overseas regulator of a prescribed kind.
(2)Subsection (1) applies whether or not the UK regulator has powers which are exercisable in relation to the authorised person by virtue of any provision of Part 13.
(3)Subsection (1) does not affect any duty of one UK regulator to consult or obtain the consent of the other UK regulator in relation to the exercise of its own-initiative powers.
(4)If a request to a UK regulator for the exercise of its own-initiative powers has been made by an overseas regulator who is—
(a)of a prescribed kind, and
(b)acting in pursuance of provisions of a prescribed kind,
the UK regulator must, in deciding whether or not to exercise those powers in response to the request, consider whether it is necessary to do so in order to comply with an EU obligation.
(5)In deciding whether or not to do so, in any case in which the UK regulator does not consider that the exercise of its own-initiative powers is necessary in order to comply with an EU obligation, it may take into account in particular—
(a)whether in the country or territory of the overseas regulator concerned, corresponding assistance would be given to a United Kingdom regulatory authority;
(b)whether the case concerns the breach of a law, or other requirement, which has no close parallel in the United Kingdom or involves the assertion of a jurisdiction not recognised by the United Kingdom;
(c)the seriousness of the case and its importance to persons in the United Kingdom;
(d)whether it is otherwise appropriate in the public interest to give the assistance sought.
(6)The UK regulator may decide not to exercise its own-initiative powers, in response to a request, unless the overseas regulator concerned undertakes to make such contribution towards the cost of their exercise as the UK regulator considers appropriate.
(7)Subsection (6) does not apply if the UK regulator decides that it is necessary for it to exercise its own-initiative powers in order to comply with an EU obligation.
(8)In subsection (6) “request” means a request of a kind mentioned in subsection (1).
(9)In this section—
(a)“UK regulator” means the FCA or the PRA;
(b)“overseas regulator” means a regulator outside the United Kingdom;
(c)“own-initiative powers”, in relation to the FCA or the PRA, means its own-initiative variation power and its own-initiative requirement power.
(1)In considering—
(a)an application for a Part 4A permission,
(b)whether to vary or cancel a Part 4A permission,
(c)whether to impose or vary a requirement under this Part, or
(d)whether to give any consent required by any provision of this Part,
the regulator concerned may have regard to any person appearing to it to be, or likely to be, in a relationship with the applicant or a person given permission which is relevant.
(2)Before—
(a)giving permission in response to an application under section 55A made by a person who is connected with an EEA firm (other than an EEA firm falling within paragraph 5(e) of Schedule 3 (insurance and reinsurance intermediaries)), or
(b)cancelling or varying a Part 4A permission given to such a person,
the regulator concerned must in prescribed circumstances consult the firm's home state regulator.
(3)A person (“A”) is connected with an EEA firm if—
(a)A is a subsidiary undertaking of the firm, or
(b)A is a subsidiary undertaking of a parent undertaking of the firm.
(1)“Additional Part 4A permission” —
(a)in relation to either regulator, means a Part 4A permission which is in force in relation to an EEA firm or a Treaty firm, and
(b)in relation to the FCA, also includes a Part 4A permission which is in force in relation to a person authorised as a result of paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5.
(2)If either regulator is considering whether, and if so how, to exercise its own-initiative variation power or its own-initiative requirement power in relation to an additional Part 4A permission, it must take into account—
(a)the home state authorisation of the authorised person concerned,
(b)any relevant directive, and
(c)relevant provisions of the Treaty.
For the purpose of any provision of this Part which refers to the FCA's operational objectives, or the PRA's objectives in relation to the exercise of a power in relation to a particular person, it does not matter whether there is a relationship between that person and the persons whose interests will be protected by the exercise of the power.
(1)An application for a Part 4A permission must—
(a)contain a statement of the regulated activity or regulated activities which the applicant proposes to carry on and for which the applicant wishes to have permission, and
(b)give the address of a place in the United Kingdom for service on the applicant of any notice or other document which is required or authorised to be served on the applicant under this Act.
(2)An application for the variation of a Part 4A permission must contain a statement—
(a)of the desired variation, and
(b)of the regulated activity or regulated activities which the applicant proposes to carry on if the permission is varied.
(3)An application for the variation of a requirement imposed under section 55L or 55M or for the imposition of a new requirement must contain a statement of the desired variation or requirement.
(4)An application under this Part must—
(a)be made in such manner as the regulator to which it is to be made may direct, and
(b)contain, or be accompanied by, such other information as that regulator may reasonably require.
(5)At any time after the application is received and before it is determined, the appropriate regulator may require the applicant to provide it with such further information as it reasonably considers necessary to enable it to determine the application or, as the case requires, to decide whether to give consent.
(6)In subsection (5), the “appropriate regulator” means—
(a)in a case where the application is made to the FCA, the FCA;
(b)in a case where the application is made to the PRA, the FCA or the PRA.
(7)Different directions may be given, and different requirements imposed, in relation to different applications or categories of application.
(8)Each regulator may require an applicant to provide information which the applicant is required to provide to it under this section in such form, or to verify it in such a way, as the regulator may direct.
(9)The PRA must consult the FCA before—
(a)giving a direction under this section in relation to a class of applications, or
(b)imposing a requirement under this section in relation to a class of applications.
(1)An application under this Part must be determined by the regulator to which it is required to be made (“the appropriate regulator”) before the end of the period of 6 months beginning with the date on which it received the completed application.
(2)The appropriate regulator may determine an incomplete application if it considers it appropriate to do so; and it must in any event determine such an application within 12 months beginning with the date on which it received the application.
(3)Where the application cannot be determined by the appropriate regulator without the consent of the other regulator, the other regulator's decision must also be made within the period required by subsection (1) or (2).
(4)The applicant may withdraw the application, by giving the appropriate regulator written notice, at any time before the appropriate regulator determines it.
(5)If the appropriate regulator grants an application—
(a)for Part 4A permission,
(b)for the variation or cancellation of a Part 4A permission,
(c)for the variation or cancellation of a requirement imposed under section 55L or 55M, or
(d)for the imposition of a new requirement under either of those sections,
it must give the applicant written notice.
(6)The notice must state the date from which the permission, variation, cancellation or requirement has effect.
(7)A notice under this section which is given by the PRA and relates to the grant of an application for Part 4A permission or for the variation of a Part 4A permission must state that the FCA has given its consent to the grant of the application.
The PRA must as soon as practicable notify the FCA of the receipt or withdrawal of—
(a)an application for permission under section 55A,
(b)an application under section 55I, or
(c)an application under section 55M(5).
(1)If a regulator proposes—
(a)to give a Part 4A permission but to exercise its power under section 55E(5)(a) or (b) or 55F(4)(a) or (b),
(b)to give a Part 4A permission but to exercise its power under section 55L(1) or 55M(1) in connection with the application for permission,
(c)to vary a Part 4A permission on the application of an authorised person but to exercise its power under section 55E(5)(a) or (b) or 55F(4)(a) or (b),
(d)to vary a Part 4A permission but to exercise its power under section 55L(1) or 55M(1) in connection with the application for variation, or
(e)in the case of the FCA, to exercise its power under section 55L(1) in connection with an application to the PRA for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission,
it must give the applicant a warning notice.
(2)If a regulator proposes to refuse an application made under this Part, it must (unless subsection (3) applies) give the applicant a warning notice.
(3)This subsection applies if it appears to the regulator that—
(a)the applicant is an EEA firm, and
(b)the application is made with a view to carrying on a regulated activity in a manner in which the applicant is, or would be, entitled to carry on that activity in the exercise of an EEA right whether through a United Kingdom branch or by providing services in the United Kingdom.
(4)If a regulator decides—
(a)to give a Part 4A permission but to exercise its power under section 55E(5)(a) or (b) or 55F(4)(a) or (b),
(b)to give a Part 4A permission but to exercise its power under section 55L(1) or 55M(1) in connection with the giving of the permission,
(c)to vary a Part 4A permission on the application of an authorised person but to exercise its power under section 55E(5)(a) or (b) or 55F(4)(a) or (b),
(d)to vary a Part 4A permission on the application of an authorised person but to exercise its power under section 55L(1) or 55M(1) in connection with the variation,
(e)in the case of the FCA, to exercise its power under section 55L(1) in connection with an application to the PRA for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission, or
(f)to refuse an application under this Part,
it must give the applicant a decision notice.
(1)This section applies to an exercise of either regulator's own-initiative variation power or own-initiative requirement power in relation to an authorised person (“A”).
(2)A variation of a permission or the imposition or variation of a requirement takes effect—
(a)immediately, if the notice given under subsection (4) states that that is the case,
(b)on such date as may be specified in the notice, or
(c)if no date is specified in the notice, when the matter to which the notice relates is no longer open to review.
(3)A variation of a permission, or the imposition or variation of a requirement, may be expressed to take effect immediately (or on a specified date) only if the regulator concerned, having regard to the ground on which it is exercising its own-initiative variation power or own-initiative requirement power, reasonably considers that it is necessary for the variation, or the imposition or variation of the requirement, to take effect immediately (or on that date).
(4)If either regulator proposes to vary a Part 4A permission or to impose or vary a requirement, or varies a Part 4A permission or imposes or varies a requirement, with immediate effect, it must give A written notice.
(5)The notice must—
(a)give details of the variation of the permission or the requirement or its variation,
(b)state the regulator's reasons for the variation of the permission or the imposition or variation of the requirement,
(c)inform A that A may make representations to the regulator within such period as may be specified in the notice (whether or not A has referred the matter to the Tribunal),
(d)inform A of when the variation of the permission or the imposition or variation of the requirement takes effect, and
(e)inform A of A's right to refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(6)The regulator may extend the period allowed under the notice for making representations.
(7)If, having considered any representations made by A, the regulator decides—
(a)to vary the permission, or impose or vary the requirement, in the way proposed, or
(b)if the permission has been varied or the requirement imposed or varied, not to rescind the variation of the permission or the imposition or variation of the requirement,
it must give A written notice.
(8)If, having considered any representations made by A, the regulator decides—
(a)not to vary the permission, or impose or vary the requirement, in the way proposed,
(b)to vary the permission or requirement in a different way, or impose a different requirement, or
(c)to rescind a variation or requirement which has effect,
it must give A written notice.
(9)A notice under subsection (7) must inform A of A's right to refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(10)A notice under subsection (8)(b) must comply with subsection (5).
(11)If a notice informs A of A's right to refer a matter to the Tribunal, it must give an indication of the procedure on such a reference.
(12)For the purposes of subsection (2)(c), whether a matter is open to review is to be determined in accordance with section 391(8).
(1)If a regulator proposes to cancel an authorised person's Part 4A permission otherwise than at the person's request, it must give the person a warning notice.
(2)If a regulator decides to cancel an authorised person's Part 4A permission otherwise than at the person's request, it must give the person a decision notice.
A regulator must notify ESMA of—
(a)the giving by it of a Part 4A permission to an investment firm, where the regulated activities to which the permission relates are investment services and activities,
(b)the giving by it of a Part 4A permission to a management company (as defined in section 237(2)), where the regulated activities to which the permission relates fall within paragraph 8 of Schedule 2,
(c)the cancellation by it of a Part 4A permission of a description falling within paragraph (b), or
(d)the cancellation by it of a Part 4A permission under section 55J(6), in reliance on any one or more of the conditions in section 55K(1)(b) to (d).
(1)A regulator must notify EBA of—
(a)the giving by it of a Part 4A permission to a credit institution, where the regulated activity to which the permission relates falls within paragraph 4 of Schedule 2, or
(b)the cancellation by it of a Part 4A permission of a description falling within paragraph (a).
(2)“Credit institution” has the meaning given in section 1H(8).
(1)An applicant who is aggrieved by the determination of an application made under this Part may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(2)An authorised person who is aggrieved by the exercise by either regulator of its own-initiative variation power or its own-initiative requirement power may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
In this Part—
“own-initiative requirement power”, in relation to the FCA or the PRA, is to be read in accordance with section 55L(4) or 55M(4);
“own-initiative variation power”, in relation to the FCA or the PRA, is to be read in accordance with section 55J(12).”
(3)In Schedule 6 to FSMA 2000 (the threshold conditions), omit paragraph 9.
Commencement Information
I9S. 11 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I10S. 11 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I11S. 11(1)(3) in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
I12S. 11(2) in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
Schedule 4 contains amendments of the following provisions of FSMA 2000—
(a)Schedule 3 (EEA passport rights),
(b)Schedule 4 (Treaty rights),
(c)sections 34 and 35 (EEA firms and Treaty firms), and
(d)Part 13 (incoming firms: powers of intervention).
Commencement Information
I13S. 12 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I14S. 12 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I15S. 12 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)Section 56 of FSMA 2000 (performance of regulated activities: prohibition orders) is amended as follows.
(2)For subsection (1) substitute—
“(1)The FCA may make a prohibition order if it appears to it that an individual is not a fit and proper person to perform functions in relation to a regulated activity carried on by—
(a)an authorised person,
(b)a person who is an exempt person in relation to that activity, or
(c)a person to whom, as a result of Part 20, the general prohibition does not apply in relation to that activity.
(1A)The PRA may make a prohibition order if it appears to it that an individual is not a fit and proper person to perform functions in relation to a regulated activity carried on by—
(a)a PRA-authorised person, or
(b)a person who is an exempt person in relation to a PRA-regulated activity carried on by the person.”
(3)In subsection (2), for “The Authority may make an order (“a prohibition order”)” substitute “ A “prohibition order” is an order ”.
(4)In subsection (3), for paragraph (b) substitute—
“(b)all persons falling within subsection (3A) or a particular paragraph of that subsection or all persons within a specified class of person falling within a particular paragraph of that subsection.”
(5)After subsection (3) insert—
“(3A)A person falls within this subsection if the person is—
(a)an authorised person,
(b)an exempt person, or
(c)a person to whom, as a result of Part 20, the general prohibition does not apply in relation to a regulated activity.”
(6)In subsection (6), for “An authorised person” substitute “ A person falling within subsection (3A) ”.
(7)In subsection (7)—
(a)for “The Authority” substitute “ The regulator that has made a prohibition order ”, and
(b)for “a prohibition order” substitute “ the order ”.
(8)After subsection (7) insert—
“(7A)If—
(a)the FCA proposes to vary or revoke a prohibition order, and
(b)as a result of the proposed variation or revocation, an individual—
(i)will no longer be prohibited from performing a function of interest to the PRA, or
(ii)will be prohibited from performing such a function,
the FCA must consult the PRA before varying or revoking the order.
(7B)A function is of interest to the PRA if it is performed in relation to a regulated activity carried on by—
(a)a PRA-authorised person, or
(b)a person who is an exempt person in relation to a PRA-regulated activity carried on by the person.
(7C)The PRA must consult the FCA before varying or revoking a prohibition order.”
(9)Omit subsection (8).
(10)Section 57 of FSMA 2000 (prohibition orders: procedure and right to refer to Tribunal) is amended as follows.
(11)In subsections (1) and (3), for “the Authority” substitute “ a regulator ”.
(12)At the end insert—
“(6)If—
(a)the FCA proposes to make a prohibition order, and
(b)as a result of the proposed order, an individual will be prohibited from performing a function of interest to the PRA,
the FCA must consult the PRA before giving a warning notice under this section.
(7)A function is of interest to the PRA if it is performed in relation to a regulated activity carried on by—
(a)a PRA-authorised person, or
(b)a person who is an exempt person in relation to a PRA-regulated activity carried on by the person.
(8)The PRA must consult the FCA before giving a warning notice under this section.”
Commencement Information
I16S. 13 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)In section 59 of FSMA 2000 (approval for particular arrangements)—
(a)in subsections (1) and (2), for “the Authority” substitute “ the appropriate regulator ”, and
(b)for subsections (3) to (7) substitute—
“(3)Controlled function”—
(a)in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by a PRA-authorised person, means a function of a description specified in rules made by the FCA or the PRA, and
(b)in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by any other authorised person, means a function of a description specified in rules made by the FCA.
(4)“The appropriate regulator”—
(a)in relation to a controlled function which is of a description specified in rules made by the FCA, means the FCA, and
(b)in relation to a controlled function which is of a description specified in rules made by the PRA, means the PRA with the consent of the FCA.
(5)The FCA may specify a description of function under subsection (3)(a) or (b) only if, in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by an authorised person, it is satisfied that the function is—
(a)a customer-dealing function, or
(b)a significant-influence function.
(6)The PRA may specify a description of function under subsection (3)(a) only if, in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by a PRA-authorised person, it is satisfied that the function is a significant-influence function.
(7)In determining whether a function is a significant-influence function, the FCA or the PRA may take into account the likely consequences of a failure to discharge the function properly.
(7A)“Customer-dealing function”, in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by an authorised person (“A”), means a function that will involve the person performing it in dealing with—
(a)customers of A, or
(b)property of customers of A,
in a manner substantially connected with the carrying on of the activity.
(7B)“Significant-influence function”, in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by an authorised person, means a function that is likely to enable the person responsible for its performance to exercise a significant influence on the conduct of the authorised person's affairs, so far as relating to the activity.”
(2)After section 59 of FSMA 2000 insert—
(1)The FCA must—
(a)keep under review the exercise of its power under section 59(3)(a) to specify any significant-influence function as a controlled function, and
(b)exercise that power in a way that it considers will minimise the likelihood that approvals fall to be given by both the FCA and the PRA in respect of the performance by a person of significant-influence functions in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by the same PRA-authorised person.
(2)The FCA and the PRA must each consult the other before exercising any power under section 59(3)(a).
(3)Any reference in this section to the exercise of a power includes its exercise by way of amendment or revocation of provision previously made in the exercise of the power.
(4)“Approval” means an approval under section 59.
(5)Any expression which is used both in this section and section 59 has the same meaning in this section as in that section.
(1)The FCA may arrange with the PRA that in such cases as may be described in the arrangements the PRA may give approval under section 59 without obtaining the consent of the FCA.
(2)Arrangements under this section must be in writing, and must specify the date on which they come into force.
(3)The regulators must publish any arrangements under this section in such manner as they think fit.
(4)Section 59(4)(b) has effect subject to any arrangements in force under this section.”
(3)In section 63 of FSMA 2000 (withdrawal of approval), for subsection (1) substitute—
“(1)The FCA may withdraw an approval under section 59 given by the FCA or the PRA in relation to the performance by a person of a function if the FCA considers that the person is not a fit and proper person to perform the function.
(1A)The PRA may withdraw an approval under section 59 in relation to the performance by a person (“A”) of a function if—
(a)the PRA gave the approval, or the FCA gave the approval and the function is a significant-influence function performed in relation to the carrying on by a PRA-authorised person of a regulated activity, and
(b)the PRA considers that A is not a fit and proper person to perform the function.
(1B)“Significant-influence function” has the same meaning as in section 59.
(1C)Before one regulator withdraws an approval given by the other regulator, it must consult the other regulator.”
F1(4). . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Textual Amendments
F1S. 14(4) omitted (7.3.2016) by virtue of Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013 (c. 33), s. 148(5), Sch. 3 para. 18; S.I. 2015/490, art. 2(1)(b) (with savings and transitional provisions in S.I. 2015/492 (as amended by S.I. 2015/1660))
Commencement Information
I17S. 14 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I18S. 14 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
Schedule 5 contains further amendments of Part 5 of FSMA 2000 (performance of regulated activities).
Commencement Information
I19S. 15 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I20S. 15 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I21S. 15 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)FSMA 2000 is amended as follows.
(2)In each of the provisions of Part 6 (official listing etc) mentioned in subsection (3)—
(a)for “competent authority” or “competent authority's”, in each place, substitute “ FCA ” or “FCA's”, and
(b)for “the authority” or “the Authority”, in each place, substitute “ the FCA ”.
(3)Those provisions are—
(a)sections 73A to 84;
(b)section 86;
(c)sections 87B to 87D;
(d)section 87G;
(e)sections 87J to 87O (including the italic heading before section 87J);
(f)sections 87Q to 88;
(g)sections 89A to 97 (including the italic heading before section 89H and the heading to that section);
(h)section 101(2);
(i)section 103(1).
(4)Before section 73A insert an italic heading “Rules”.
(5)In section 77(3) (discontinuance and suspension of listing), for “sections 96 and 99” substitute “ section 96 and paragraph 23(6) of Schedule 1ZA ”.
(6)In section 87A (criteria for approval of prospectus)—
(a)in subsection (1), for “competent authority” substitute “ “FCA”,
(b)in subsection (7)(a), for “competent authority”, in the first place, substitute “ FCA ”, and
(c)in the heading, for “competent authority” substitute “ FCA ”.
(7)In section 87E (transfer by competent authority of application for approval)—
(a)in subsection (1), for “competent authority”, in the first place, substitute “ FCA ”,
(b)in subsections (2) to (4), for “competent authority” substitute “ FCA ”, and
(c)in the heading, for “competent authority” substitute “ FCA ”.
(8)In section 87F (transfer to competent authority of application for approval)—
(a)in subsection (1)—
(i)for “Where the competent authority” substitute “ Where the FCA ”, and
(ii)in paragraph (b), for “competent authority” substitute “ FCA ”,
(b)in subsection (2), for “competent authority” substitute “ FCA ”, and
(c)in the heading, for “competent authority” substitute “ FCA ”.
(9)In section 87H (prospectus approved in another EEA State)—
(a)in subsection (1), for “competent authority”, in the second and third places, substitute “ FCA ”, and
(b)in subsection (3A), for “competent authority” substitute “ FCA ”.
(10)In section 87I (provision of information to host member State)—
(a)in subsection (1)—
(i)for “competent authority”, in the first place, substitute “ FCA ”,
(ii)in paragraph (b), for “competent authority” substitute “ FCA ”, and
(iii)in paragraph (c), omit “other”,
(b)in subsection (1A), for “competent authority”, in the first place, substitute “ FCA ”, and
(c)in subsections (3) to (5), for “competent authority” substitute “ FCA ”.
(11)In section 87P (exercise of powers at request of competent authority of another EEA State)—
(a)in subsection (1)(c), for “competent authority”, in the second place, substitute “ FCA ”, and
(b)in subsection (2), for “competent authority” substitute “ FCA ”.
(12)In section 100A (exercise of powers where UK is host member State)—
(a)in subsections (1) and (2), for “competent authority” substitute “ FCA ”,
(b)in subsection (3), for “the authority”, in both places, substitute “ the FCA ”,
(c)in subsection (4), for “The authority” substitute “ The FCA ”, and
(d)in subsections (5) and (6), for “the authority” substitute “ the FCA ”.
(13)In Schedule 10 (compensation: exemptions), for “competent authority”, in each place, substitute “ FCA ”.
(14)Omit the following provisions—
(a)section 72 (Financial Services Authority to exercise functions of the competent authority under Part 6) and the italic heading before it;
(b)section 73 (general duty of the competent authority);
(c)section 99 (fees);
(d)section 100 (penalties);
(e)in section 101 (general provisions), subsections (1) and (3) to (8);
(f)section 102 (exemption from liability in damages);
(g)in section 103 (interpretation), subsections (2) and (3);
(h)in section 195 (exercise of power in support of overseas regulator), subsection (4)(b);
(i)in section 410 (international obligations), subsection (4)(b);
(j)in section 415 (jurisdiction in civil proceedings), subsection (1)(b);
(k)Schedule 7 (modification of Act in its application to the Financial Services Authority when acting as competent authority for purposes of Part 6);
(l)Schedule 8 (power to transfer functions under Part 6 to other persons).
Commencement Information
I22S. 16 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I23S. 16 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)FSMA 2000 is amended as follows.
(2)In section 78A (discontinuance or suspension at the request of the issuer: procedure)—
(a)in subsection (1), for paragraphs (a) and (b) substitute—
“(a)immediately, if the notification under subsection (2) so provides;
(b)in any other case, on such date as may be provided for in that notification.”,
(b)in subsection (2), for “give him written notice” substitute “ notify the issuer (whether in writing or otherwise) ”, and
(c)for subsection (3) substitute—
“(3)The notification must—
(a)notify the issuer of the date on which the discontinuance or suspension took effect or will take effect, and
(b)notify the issuer of such other matters (if any) as are specified in listing rules.”
(3)In section 395(13) (definition of “supervisory notice”), after “a notice” insert “ or notification ”.
Commencement Information
I24S. 17 in force at 19.3.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/651, art. 2(a)
I25S. 17 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)FSMA 2000 is amended as follows.
(2)In section 88 (provision that may be made by listing rules in relation to sponsors)—
(a)in subsection (3), at the end insert—
“(e)provide for limitations or other restrictions to be imposed on the services to which an approval relates (whether or not the approval has already been granted);
(f)provide for the approval of a sponsor to be suspended on the application of the sponsor.”,
(b)in subsection (4), in paragraph (a), for “for approval as a sponsor” substitute “ under sponsor rules ”,
(c)after that paragraph (but before the “or” at the end) insert—
“(aa)to impose limitations or other restrictions on the services to which a person's approval relates,”,
(d)in subsection (5), in paragraph (a), for “for approval” substitute “ under sponsor rules ”,
(e)after that paragraph (but before the “or” at the end) insert—
“(aa)not to impose limitations or other restrictions on the services to which a person's approval relates,”,
(f)in subsection (6), in paragraph (a), for “for approval” substitute “ under sponsor rules ”,
(g)after that paragraph (a) (but before the “or” at the end) insert—
“(aa)to impose limitations or other restrictions on the services to which a person's approval relates,”, and
(h)after subsection (7) insert—
“(8)In this section any reference to an application under sponsor rules means—
(a)an application for approval as a sponsor,
(b)an application for the suspension of an approval as a sponsor,
(c)an application for the withdrawal of the suspension of an approval as a sponsor, or
(d)an application for the withdrawal or variation of a limitation or other restriction on the services to which a sponsor's approval relates.”
(3)The power to make provision under section 88(3)(e) of FSMA 2000 (as inserted by subsection (2)(a) above) includes power to make provision in relation to persons who were approved as sponsors before the coming into force of subsection (2)(a) above.
(4)For section 89 substitute—
(1)The FCA may take action against a sponsor under this section if it considers that the sponsor has contravened a requirement or restriction imposed on the sponsor by rules made as a result of section 88(3)(c) or (e).
(2)If the FCA is entitled to take action under this section against a sponsor, it may do one or more of the following—
(a)impose a penalty on the sponsor of such amount as it considers appropriate;
(b)suspend, for such period as it considers appropriate, the sponsor's approval;
(c)impose, for such period as it considers appropriate, such limitations or other restrictions in relation to the performance of services to which the sponsor's approval relates as it considers appropriate;
(d)publish a statement to the effect that the sponsor has contravened a requirement or restriction imposed on the sponsor by rules made as a result of section 88(3)(c) or (e).
(3)The period for which a suspension or restriction is to have effect may not exceed 12 months.
(4)A suspension may relate only to the performance in specified circumstances of a service to which the approval relates.
(5)A restriction may, in particular, be imposed so as to require the sponsor to take, or refrain from taking, specified action.
(6)The FCA may—
(a)withdraw a suspension or restriction; or
(b)vary a suspension or restriction so as to reduce the period for which it has effect or otherwise to limit its effect.
(7)The FCA may not take action against a sponsor under this section after the end of the limitation period unless, before the end of that period, it has given a warning notice to the sponsor under section 88B(1).
(8)“The limitation period” means the period of 3 years beginning with the first day on which the FCA knew that the sponsor had contravened the requirement or restriction.
(9)For this purpose the FCA is to be treated as knowing that a sponsor has contravened a requirement or restriction if it has information from which that can reasonably be inferred.
(1)If the FCA proposes to take action against a sponsor under section 88A, it must give the sponsor a warning notice.
(2)A warning notice about a proposal to impose a penalty must state the amount of the penalty.
(3)A warning notice about a proposal—
(a)to suspend an approval, or
(b)to impose a restriction in relation to the performance of a service,
must state the period for which the suspension or restriction is to have effect.
(4)A warning notice about a proposal to publish a statement must set out the terms of the statement.
(5)If the FCA decides to take action against a sponsor under section 88A, it must give the sponsor a decision notice.
(6)A decision notice about the imposition of a penalty must state the amount of the penalty.
(7)A decision notice about—
(a)the suspension of an approval, or
(b)the imposition of a restriction in relation to the performance of a service,
must state the period for which the suspension or restriction is to have effect.
(8)A decision notice about the publication of a statement must set out the terms of the statement.
(9)If the FCA decides to take action against a sponsor under section 88A, the sponsor may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(1)The FCA must prepare and issue a statement of its policy with respect to—
(a)the imposition of penalties, suspensions or restrictions under section 88A,
(b)the amount of penalties under that section, and
(c)the period for which suspensions or restrictions under that section are to have effect.
(2)The FCA's policy in determining what the amount of a penalty should be, or what the period for which a suspension or restriction is to have effect should be, must include having regard to—
(a)the seriousness of the contravention in question in relation to the nature of the requirement concerned,
(b)the extent to which that contravention was deliberate or reckless, and
(c)whether the sponsor concerned is an individual.
(3)The FCA may at any time alter or replace a statement issued under this section.
(4)If a statement issued under this section is altered or replaced, the FCA must issue the altered or replacement statement.
(5)In exercising, or deciding whether to exercise, its power under section 88A in the case of any particular contravention, the FCA must have regard to any statement of policy published under this section and in force at a time when the contravention in question occurred.
(6)A statement issued under this section must be published by the FCA in the way appearing to the FCA to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(7)The FCA may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of the statement.
(8)The FCA must, without delay, give the Treasury a copy of any statement which it publishes under this section.
(1)Before issuing a statement under section 88C, the FCA must publish a draft of the proposed statement in the way appearing to the FCA to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(2)The draft must be accompanied by notice that representations about the proposal may be made to the FCA within a specified time.
(3)Before issuing the proposed statement, the FCA must have regard to any representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2).
(4)If the FCA issues the proposed statement it must publish an account, in general terms, of—
(a)the representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2), and
(b)its response to them.
(5)If the statement differs from the draft published under subsection (1) in a way which is, in the opinion of the FCA, significant, the FCA must (in addition to complying with subsection (4)) publish details of the difference.
(6)The FCA may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of a draft published under subsection (1).
(7)This section also applies to a proposal to alter or replace a statement.
(1)The FCA may take action against a sponsor under this section if it considers that it is desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.
(2)If the FCA is entitled to take action under this section against a sponsor, it may—
(a)suspend, for such period as it considers appropriate, the sponsor's approval, or
(b)impose, for such period as it considers appropriate, such limitations or other restrictions in relation to the performance of services to which the sponsor's approval relates as it considers appropriate.
(3)A suspension may relate only to the performance in specified circumstances of a service to which the approval relates.
(4)A restriction may, in particular, be imposed so as to require the sponsor to take, or refrain from taking, specified action.
(5)The FCA may—
(a)withdraw a suspension or restriction, or
(b)vary a suspension or restriction so as to reduce the period for which it has effect or otherwise to limit its effect.
(6)A person against whom the FCA takes action under this section may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(1)Action against a sponsor under section 88E takes effect—
(a)immediately, if the notice given under subsection (3) so provides, or
(b)on such later date as may be specified in the notice.
(2)If the FCA—
(a)proposes to take action against a sponsor under that section, or
(b)takes action against a sponsor under that section with immediate effect,
it must give the sponsor written notice.
(3)The notice must—
(a)give details of the action,
(b)state the FCA's reasons for taking the action and for its determination as to when the action takes effect,
(c)inform the sponsor that the sponsor may make representations to the FCA within such period as may be specified in the notice (whether or not the matter has been referred to the Tribunal),
(d)inform the sponsor of when the action takes effect,
(e)inform the sponsor of the right to refer the matter to the Tribunal, and
(f)give an indication of the procedure on such a reference.
(4)The FCA may extend the period allowed under the notice for making representations.
(5)If the FCA decides—
(a)to take the action in the way proposed, or
(b)if the action has taken effect, not to rescind it,
the FCA must give the sponsor written notice.
(6)If the FCA decides—
(a)not to take the action in the way proposed,
(b)to take action under section 88E that differs from the action originally proposed, or
(c)to rescind action which has taken effect,
the FCA must give the sponsor written notice.
(7)A notice under subsection (5) must—
(a)inform the sponsor of the right to refer the matter to the Tribunal, and
(b)give an indication of the procedure on such a reference.
(8)A notice under subsection (6)(b) must comply with subsection (3).”
(5)In section 392 (warning and decisions notices: application of provisions relating to third party rights and access to evidence)—
(a)for “section 89(2),” substitute “ section 88B(1), ”, and
(b)for “section 89(3),” substitute “ section 88B(5), ”.
(6)In section 395(13) (meaning of “supervisory notice”), after paragraph (bza) insert—
“(bzb)section 88F(2), (5) or (6)(b);”.
Commencement Information
I26S. 18 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I27S. 18 in force at 19.3.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/651, art. 2(a)
I28S. 18 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)In Part 6 of FSMA 2000 (official listing), after section 89O insert—
(1)Part 6 rules may require issuers of financial instruments to use primary information providers for the purpose of giving information of a specified description to a market of a specified description.
(2)“Primary information provider” means a person approved by the FCA for the purposes of this section.
(3)“Specified” means specified in the Part 6 rules.
(4)Part 6 rules made by virtue of subsection (1) may—
(a)provide for the FCA to maintain a list of providers;
(b)impose requirements on a provider in relation to the giving of information or of information of a specified description;
(c)specify the circumstances in which a person is qualified for being approved as a provider;
(d)provide for limitations or other restrictions to be imposed on the giving of information to which an approval relates (whether or not the approval has already been granted);
(e)provide for the approval of a provider to be suspended on the application of the provider.
(5)If the FCA proposes—
(a)to refuse a person's application under information provider rules,
(b)to impose limitations or other restrictions on the giving of information to which a person's approval relates, or
(c)to cancel a person's approval as a provider otherwise than at the person's request,
it must give the person a warning notice.
(6)If the FCA decides—
(a)to grant the application under information provider rules,
(b)not to impose limitations or other restrictions on the giving of information to which a person's approval relates, or
(c)not to cancel the approval,
it must give the person concerned written notice of its decision.
(7)If the FCA decides—
(a)to refuse to grant the application under information provider rules,
(b)to impose limitations or other restrictions on the giving of information to which a person's approval relates, or
(c)to cancel the approval,
it must give the person concerned a decision notice.
(8)A person to whom a decision notice is given under this section may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(9)In this section any reference to an application under information provider rules means—
(a)an application for approval as a provider,
(b)an application for the suspension of an approval as a provider,
(c)an application for the withdrawal of the suspension of an approval as a provider, or
(d)an application for the withdrawal or variation of a limitation or other restriction on the giving of information to which a provider's approval relates.
(1)The FCA may take action against a provider under this section if it considers that the provider has contravened a requirement or restriction imposed on the provider by rules made as a result of section 89P(4)(b) or (d).
(2)If the FCA is entitled to take action under this section against a provider, it may do one or more of the following—
(a)impose a penalty on the provider of such amount as it considers appropriate;
(b)suspend, for such period as it considers appropriate, the provider's approval;
(c)impose, for such period as it considers appropriate, such limitations or other restrictions in relation to the giving by the provider of information as it considers appropriate;
(d)publish a statement to the effect that the provider has contravened a requirement or restriction imposed on the provider by rules made as a result of section 89P(4)(b) or (d).
(3)The period for which a suspension or restriction is to have effect may not exceed 12 months.
(4)A suspension may relate only to the giving of information in specified circumstances.
(5)A restriction may, in particular, be imposed so as to require the provider to take, or refrain from taking, specified action.
(6)The FCA may—
(a)withdraw a suspension or restriction, or
(b)vary a suspension or restriction so as to reduce the period for which it has effect or otherwise to limit its effect.
(7)The FCA may not take action against a provider under this section after the end of the limitation period unless, before the end of that period, it has given a warning notice to the provider under section 89R(1).
(8)“The limitation period” means the period of 3 years beginning with the first day on which the FCA knew that the provider had contravened the requirement or restriction.
(9)For this purpose the FCA is to be treated as knowing that a provider has contravened a requirement or restriction if it has information from which that can reasonably be inferred.
(1)If the FCA proposes to take action against a provider under section 89Q, it must give the provider a warning notice.
(2)A warning notice about a proposal to impose a penalty must state the amount of the penalty.
(3)A warning notice about a proposal—
(a)to suspend an approval, or
(b)to impose a restriction in relation to the giving of information,
must state the period for which the suspension or restriction is to have effect.
(4)A warning notice about a proposal to publish a statement must set out the terms of the statement.
(5)If the FCA decides to take action against a provider under section 89Q, it must give the provider a decision notice.
(6)A decision notice about the imposition of a penalty must state the amount of the penalty.
(7)A decision notice about—
(a)the suspension of an approval, or
(b)the imposition of a restriction in relation to the giving of information,
must state the period for which the suspension or restriction is to have effect.
(8)A decision notice about the publication of a statement must set out the terms of the statement.
(9)If the FCA decides to take action against a provider under section 89Q, the provider may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(1)The FCA must prepare and issue a statement of its policy with respect to—
(a)the imposition of penalties, suspensions or restrictions under section 89Q,
(b)the amount of penalties under that section,
(c)the period for which suspensions or restrictions under that section are to have effect, and
(d)the matters in relation to which suspensions or restrictions under that section are to have effect.
(2)The FCA's policy in determining what the amount of a penalty should be, or what the period for which a suspension or restriction is to have effect should be, must include having regard to—
(a)the seriousness of the contravention in question in relation to the nature of the requirement concerned,
(b)the extent to which that contravention was deliberate or reckless, and
(c)whether the provider concerned is an individual.
(3)The FCA may at any time alter or replace a statement issued under this section.
(4)If a statement issued under this section is altered or replaced, the FCA must issue the altered or replacement statement.
(5)In exercising, or deciding whether to exercise, its power under section 89Q in the case of any particular contravention, the FCA must have regard to any statement of policy published under this section and in force at a time when the contravention in question occurred.
(6)A statement issued under this section must be published by the FCA in the way appearing to the FCA to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(7)The FCA may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of the statement.
(8)The FCA must, without delay, give the Treasury a copy of any statement which it publishes under this section.
(1)Before issuing a statement under section 89S, the FCA must publish a draft of the proposed statement in the way appearing to the FCA to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(2)The draft must be accompanied by notice that representations about the proposal may be made to the FCA within a specified time.
(3)Before issuing the proposed statement, the FCA must have regard to any representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2).
(4)If the FCA issues the proposed statement it must publish an account, in general terms, of—
(a)the representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2); and
(b)its response to them.
(5)If the statement differs from the draft published under subsection (1) in a way which is, in the opinion of the FCA, significant, the FCA must (in addition to complying with subsection (4)) publish details of the difference.
(6)The FCA may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of a draft published under subsection (1).
(7)This section also applies to a proposal to alter or replace a statement.
(1)The FCA may take action against a provider under this section if it considers that it is desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.
(2)If the FCA is entitled to take action under this section against a provider, it may—
(a)suspend, for such period as it considers appropriate, the provider's approval, or
(b)impose, for such period as it considers appropriate, such limitations or other restrictions in relation to the giving by the provider of information as it considers appropriate.
(3)A suspension may relate only to the giving of information in specified circumstances.
(4)A restriction may, in particular, be imposed so as to require the provider to take, or refrain from taking, specified action.
(5)The FCA may—
(a)withdraw a suspension or restriction, or
(b)vary a suspension or restriction so as to reduce the period for which it has effect or otherwise to limit its effect.
(6)A person against whom the FCA takes action under this section may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(1)Action against a provider under section 89U takes effect—
(a)immediately, if the notice given under subsection (2) so provides, or
(b)on such later date as may be specified in the notice.
(2)If the FCA—
(a)proposes to take action against a provider under that section, or
(b)takes action against a provider under that section with immediate effect,
it must give the provider written notice.
(3)The notice must—
(a)give details of the action,
(b)state the FCA's reasons for taking the action and for its determination as to when the action takes effect,
(c)inform the provider that the provider may make representations to the FCA within such period as may be specified in the notice (whether or not the matter has been referred to the Tribunal),
(d)inform the provider of when the action takes effect,
(e)inform the provider of the right to refer the matter to the Tribunal, and
(f)give an indication of the procedure on such a reference.
(4)The FCA may extend the period allowed under the notice for making representations.
(5)If the FCA decides—
(a)to take the action in the way proposed, or
(b)if the action has taken effect, not to rescind it,
the FCA must give the provider written notice.
(6)If the FCA decides—
(a)not to take the action in the way proposed,
(b)to take action under section 89U that differs from the action originally proposed, or
(c)to rescind action which has taken effect,
the FCA must give the provider written notice.
(7)A notice under subsection (5) must—
(a)inform the provider of the right to refer the matter to the Tribunal, and
(b)give an indication of the procedure on such a reference.
(8)A notice under subsection (6)(b) must comply with subsection (3).”
(2)In section 395(13) (meaning of “supervisory notice”), after paragraph (bzb) (as inserted by section 18(6)) insert—
“(bzc)section 89V(2), (5) or (6)(b);”.
Commencement Information
I29S. 19 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I30S. 19 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
In section 91(6) of FSMA 2000 (penalties for breach of Part 6 rules: limitation period), for “two years” substitute “ 3 years ”.
Commencement Information
I31S. 20 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
Section 95 of FSMA 2000 (competition scrutiny) is repealed.
Commencement Information
I32S. 21 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)In section 104 of FSMA 2000 (control of business transfers) omit “or banking business transfer scheme”.
(2)Schedule 6 contains further amendments of Part 7 of FSMA 2000 (control of business transfers).
Commencement Information
I33S. 22 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)Part 9 of FSMA 2000 (hearings and appeals) is amended as follows.
(2)In section 133 (proceedings before Tribunal: general provision)—
(a)in subsection (1)(a), for “the Authority” substitute “ the FCA or the PRA ”,
(b)for subsections (5) and (6) substitute—
“(5)In the case of a disciplinary reference or a reference under section 393(11), the Tribunal—
(a)must determine what (if any) is the appropriate action for the decision-maker to take in relation to the matter; and
(b)on determining the reference, must remit the matter to the decision-maker with such directions (if any) as the Tribunal considers appropriate for giving effect to its determination.
(6)In any other case, the Tribunal must determine the reference or appeal by either—
(a)dismissing it; or
(b)remitting the matter to the decision-maker with a direction to reconsider and reach a decision in accordance with the findings of the Tribunal.
(6A)The findings mentioned in subsection (6)(b) are limited to findings as to—
(a)issues of fact or law;
(b)the matters to be, or not to be, taken into account in making the decision; and
(c)the procedural or other steps to be taken in connection with the making of the decision.”, and
(c)after subsection (7) insert—
“(7A)A reference is a “disciplinary reference” for the purposes of this section if it is in respect of any of the following decisions—
(a)a decision to impose a penalty under section 63A;
(b)a decision to take action under section 66;
(c)a decision to take action under section 87M;
(d)a decision to take action under section 88A;
(e)a decision to take action under section 89K;
(f)a decision to take action under section 89Q;
(g)a decision to take action under section 91;
(h)a decision to take action under section 123;
(i)a decision to take action under section 131G;
(j)a decision to take action under section 192K;
(k)a decision to publish a statement under section 205, impose a penalty under section 206 or suspend a permission or impose a restriction under section 206A;
(l)a decision to take action under section 249;
(m)a decision to publish a statement under section 312E or impose a penalty under section 312F;
(n)a decision to take action under section 345 or 345A.”
(3)In section 133A (proceedings before Tribunal: decision and supervisory notices, etc)—
(a)in subsection (1)—
(i)after “determining” insert “ in accordance with section 133(5) ”, and
(ii)for the words from “given by the Authority” to “the Authority would” substitute “ given by a body, the Tribunal may not direct the body to take action which it would ”,
(b)omit subsections (2) and (3),
(c)in subsection (4), for the words from the beginning to “a decision notice—” substitute “ The action specified in a decision notice must not be taken— ”, and
(d)in subsection (5)—
(i)for “the Authority” substitute “ the FCA or the PRA ”, and
(ii)for “the Authority's” substitute “ its ”.
(4)In section 133B (offences), in subsection (1)(a), for “the Authority” substitute “ the FCA or the PRA ”.
(5)In section 136 (funding of the legal assistance scheme), in subsections (1), (2), (6)(a), (7) (in both places) and (8), for “Authority” substitute “ FCA ”.
Commencement Information
I34S. 23 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)For sections 138 to 164 of FSMA 2000 substitute—
(1)The FCA may make such rules applying to authorised persons—
(a)with respect to the carrying on by them of regulated activities, or
(b)with respect to the carrying on by them of activities which are not regulated activities,
as appear to the FCA to be necessary or expedient for the purpose of advancing one or more of its operational objectives.
(2)Rules made under this section are referred to in this Act as the FCA's general rules.
(3)The FCA's general rules may make provision applying to authorised persons even though there is no relationship between the authorised persons to whom the rules will apply and the persons whose interests will be protected by the rules.
(4)The FCA's general rules may contain requirements which take into account, in the case of an authorised person who is a member of a group, any activity of another member of the group.
(5)The FCA's general rules may not—
(a)make provision prohibiting an EEA firm from carrying on, or holding itself out as carrying on, any activity which it has permission conferred by Part 2 of Schedule 3 to carry on in the United Kingdom;
(b)make provision, as respects an EEA firm, about any matter for which responsibility is, under any of the single market directives or the emission allowance auctioning regulation, reserved to the firm's home state regulator.
(1)Rules relating to the handling of money held by an authorised person in specified circumstances (“clients' money”) may—
(a)make provision which results in that clients' money being held on trust in accordance with the rules,
(b)treat 2 or more accounts as a single account for specified purposes (which may include the distribution of money held in the accounts),
(c)authorise the retention by the authorised person of interest accruing on the clients' money, and
(d)make provision as to the distribution of such interest which is not to be retained by the authorised person.
(2)An institution with which an account is kept in pursuance of rules relating to the handling of clients' money does not incur any liability as constructive trustee if the money is wrongfully paid from the account, unless the institution permits the payment—
(a)with knowledge that it is wrongful, or
(b)having deliberately failed to make enquiries in circumstances in which a reasonable and honest person would have done so.
(3)Rules may—
(a)confer rights on persons to rescind agreements with, or withdraw offers to, authorised persons within a specified period, and
(b)make provision, in respect of authorised persons and persons exercising those rights, for the restitution of property and the making or recovery of payments where those rights are exercised.
(4)“Rules” means general rules of the FCA.
(5)“Specified” means specified in the rules.
(1)The power of the FCA to make general rules includes power to make rules prohibiting authorised persons from—
(a)entering into a regulated credit agreement that provides for—
(i)the payment by the borrower of charges of a specified description, or
(ii)the payment by the borrower over the duration of the agreement of charges that, taken with the charges paid under one or more other agreements which are treated by the rules as being connected with it, exceed, or are capable of exceeding, a specified amount;
(b)imposing charges of a specified description or exceeding a specified amount on a person who is the borrower under a regulated credit agreement;
(c)entering into a regulated credit agreement that—
(i)is capable of remaining in force after the end of a specified period,
(ii)when taken with one or more other regulated credit agreements which are treated by the rules as being connected with it, would be capable of remaining in force after the end of a specified period, or
(iii)is treated by the rules as being connected with a number of previous regulated credit agreements that exceeds a specified maximum;
(d)exercising the rights of the lender under a regulated credit agreement (as a person for the time being entitled to exercise them) in a way that enables the agreement to remain in force after the end of a specified period or enables the imposition on the borrower of charges within paragraph (a)(i) or (ii).
(2)“Charges” means charges payable, by way of interest or otherwise, in connection with the provision of credit under the regulated credit agreement, whether or not the agreement itself makes provision for them and whether or not the person to whom they are payable is a party to the regulated credit agreement or an authorised person.
(3)“The borrower” includes—
(a)any person providing a guarantee or indemnity under the regulated credit agreement, and
(b)a person to whom the rights and duties of the borrower under the regulated credit agreement or a person falling within paragraph (a) have passed by assignment or operation of law.
(4)In relation to an agreement entered into or obligation imposed in contravention of the rules, the rules may—
(a)provide for the agreement or obligation to be unenforceable against any person or specified person;
(b)provide for the recovery of any money or other property paid or transferred under the agreement or other obligation by any person or specified person;
(c)provide for the payment of compensation for any loss sustained by any person or specified person as a result of paying or transferring any money or other property under the agreement or obligation.
(5)The provision that may be made as a result of subsection (4) includes provision corresponding to that made by section 30 (enforceability of agreements resulting from unlawful communications).
(6)A credit agreement is a contract of the kind mentioned in paragraph 23 of Schedule 2, other than one under which the obligation of the borrower to repay is secured on land: and a credit agreement is a “regulated credit agreement” if any of the following is a regulated activity—
(a)entering into or administering the agreement;
(b)exercising or being able to exercise the rights of the lender under the agreement.
(7)In this section—
(a)“specified amount” means an amount specified in or determined in accordance with the rules;
(b)“specified period” means a period of a duration specified in or determined in accordance with the rules;
(c)“specified person” means a person of a description specified in the rules;
(d)subject to that, “specified” means specified in the rules.
(1)The power of the FCA to make general rules includes power to make such rules (“product intervention rules”) prohibiting authorised persons from doing anything mentioned in subsection (2) as appear to it to be necessary or expedient for the purpose of advancing—
(a)the consumer protection objective or the competition objective, or
(b)if the Treasury by order provide for this paragraph to apply, the integrity objective.
(2)Those prohibited things are—
(a)entering into specified agreements with any person or specified person;
(b)entering into specified agreements with any person or specified person unless requirements specified in the rules have been satisfied;
(c)doing anything that would or might result in the entering into of specified agreements by persons or specified persons, or the holding by them of a beneficial or other kind of economic interest in specified agreements;
(d)doing anything within paragraph (c) unless requirements specified in the rules have been satisfied.
(3)“Specified agreements” means agreements of a description specified in general rules made by the FCA.
(4)“Specified persons” means persons of a description specified in general rules made by the FCA.
(5)It is of no relevance—
(a)whether the entering into of a specified agreement itself constitutes the carrying on of a regulated activity, or
(b)whether, in a case within subsection (2)(c) or (d), the specified agreements are with the authorised persons concerned or anyone else.
(6)The requirements that may be specified under subsection (2)(b) or (d) include in particular—
(a)requirements as to the terms and conditions that are to be, or are not to be, included in specified or other agreements, and
(b)requirements limiting invitations or inducements to enter into specified or other agreements to those made to specified persons.
(7)In relation to contraventions of product intervention rules, the rules may—
(a)provide for a relevant agreement or obligation to be unenforceable against any person or specified person;
(b)provide for the recovery of any money or other property paid or transferred under a relevant agreement or obligation by any person or specified person;
(c)provide for the payment of compensation for any loss sustained by any person or specified person as a result of paying or transferring any money or other property under a relevant agreement or obligation.
(8)“A relevant agreement or obligation” means—
(a)a specified agreement;
(b)an agreement entered into in contravention of any rule made as a result of subsection (2)(c) or (d);
(c)an obligation to which a person is subject as a result of exercising a right conferred by an agreement within paragraph (a) or (b) of this subsection.
(9)The provision that may be made as a result of subsection (7) includes provision corresponding to that made by section 30 (enforceability of agreements resulting from unlawful communications).
(10)In this section—
(a)any reference to entering into an agreement includes inviting or inducing persons to enter into an agreement, and
(b)any reference to an agreement includes an arrangement.
(1)No order may be made under section 137D(1)(b) unless—
(a)a draft of the order has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House, or
(b)subsection (3) applies.
(2)Subsection (3) applies if an order under section 137D(1)(b) contains a statement that the Treasury are of the opinion that, by reason of urgency, it is necessary to make the order without a draft being so laid and approved.
(3)Where this subsection applies the order—
(a)must be laid before Parliament after being made, and
(b)ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period unless before the end of that period the order is approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament (but without that affecting anything done under the order or the power to make a new order).
(4)The “relevant period” is a period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the order is made.
(5)In calculating the relevant period no account is to be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during which both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days.
(1)The power of the FCA to make general rules includes power to make rules requiring authorised persons to take specified steps in connection with the setting by a specified person of a specified benchmark.
(2)The rules may in particular—
(a)require authorised persons to whom the rules apply to provide information of a specified kind, or expressions of opinion as to specified matters, to persons determined in accordance with the rules;
(b)make provision about the form in which and the time by which any information or expression of opinion is to be provided;
(c)make provision by reference to any code or other document published by the person responsible for the setting of the benchmark or by any other person determined in accordance with the rules, as the code or other document has effect from time to time.
(3)Rules making provision of the kind mentioned in subsection (2)(c) may provide that the code or other document is to be capable of affecting obligations imposed by the rules only if specified requirements are met in relation to it.
(4)In this section—
“benchmark” has the meaning given in section 22(6);
“specified” means specified in or determined in accordance with the rules.
(1)The PRA may make such rules applying to PRA-authorised persons—
(a)with respect to the carrying on by them of regulated activities, or
(b)with respect to the carrying on by them of activities which are not regulated activities,
as appear to the PRA to be necessary or expedient for the purpose of advancing any of its objectives.
(2)Rules made under this section are referred to in this Act as the PRA's general rules.
(3)The PRA's general rules may make provision applying to PRA-authorised persons even though there is no relationship between the PRA-authorised persons to whom the rules will apply and the persons whose interests will be protected by the rules.
(4)The PRA's general rules may contain requirements which take into account, in the case of a PRA-authorised person who is a member of a group, any activity of another member of the group.
(5)The PRA's general rules may not—
(a)make provision prohibiting an EEA firm from carrying on, or holding itself out as carrying on, any activity which it has permission conferred by Part 2 of Schedule 3 to carry on in the United Kingdom;
(b)make provision, as respects an EEA firm, about any matter for which responsibility is, under any of the single market directives or the emission allowance auctioning regulation, reserved to the firm's home state regulator.
(1)This section applies where either regulator exercises its power to make general rules so as to make rules prohibiting persons, or persons of a specified description, from being remunerated in a specified way.
(2)The rules may—
(a)provide that any provision of an agreement that contravenes such a prohibition is void, and
(b)provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of a provision that is void by virtue of paragraph (a).
(3)A provision that, at the time the rules are made, is contained in an agreement made before that time may not be rendered void under subsection (2)(a) unless it is subsequently amended so as to contravene a prohibition referred to in that subsection.
(1)This section applies where either regulator exercises its power to make general rules so as to make rules requiring authorised persons, or authorised persons of a description specified in the rules, to act in accordance with a remuneration policy.
(2)A “remuneration policy” is a policy about the remuneration by an authorised person of—
(a)officers,
(b)employees, or
(c)other persons,
of a description specified in the rules.
(3)The Treasury may direct the regulator to consider whether the remuneration policies of authorised persons specified in the direction (or of authorised persons of a description so specified) comply with requirements imposed by rules made by that regulator as to the contents of the policies.
(4)Before giving a direction under subsection (3), the Treasury must consult the regulator concerned.
(5)If the regulator considers that a remuneration policy of an authorised person fails to make provision which complies with the requirements mentioned in subsection (3), the regulator must take such steps as it considers appropriate to deal with the failure.
(6)The steps that the regulator may take include requiring the remuneration policy to be revised.
(7)“Authorised person”, in relation to the PRA, means PRA-authorised person.
(1)Before either regulator prepares a draft of any general rules that require each relevant person (or each relevant person of a specified description) to prepare a recovery plan, the regulator must consult—
(a)the Treasury, and
(b)the Bank of England.
(2)A “relevant person” is an authorised person in relation to whom any power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 (special resolution regime) is exercisable.
(3)A “recovery plan” is a document containing information within subsection (4) or (5).
(4)Information is within this subsection if it relates to action to be taken to secure that, in the event of specified circumstances affecting the carrying on of the business (or any part of the business) of an authorised person—
(a)the business of the authorised person, or
(b)a specified part of that business,
is capable of being carried on (whether or not by the authorised person and whether or not in the same way as previously).
(5)Information is within this subsection if it would facilitate the carrying on of the business (or any part of the business) of an authorised person by any other person.
(6)In this section—
“authorised person”, in relation to the PRA, means PRA-authorised person;
“specified” means specified in the rules.
(1)Before the PRA prepares a draft of any general rules that require each relevant person (or each relevant person of a specified description) to prepare a resolution plan, the PRA must consult—
(a)the Treasury, and
(b)the Bank of England.
(2)A “relevant person” is a PRA-authorised person in relation to whom any power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 (special resolution regime) is exercisable.
(3)A “resolution plan” is a document containing information within subsection (4) or (5).
(4)Information is within this subsection if it relates to action to be taken in the event of—
(a)circumstances arising in which it is likely that the business (or any part of the business) of an authorised person will fail, or
(b)the failure of the business (or any part of the business) of an authorised person.
(5)Information is within this subsection if it would facilitate anything falling to be done by any person in consequence of that failure.
(6)An example of information within subsection (5) is information that, in the event of that failure, would facilitate—
(a)planning by the Treasury in relation to the possible exercise of any of its powers under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009, or
(b)planning by the Bank of England in relation to the possible exercise of any of its powers under Part 1, 2 or 3 of that Act.
(1)This section has effect for the interpretation of sections 137J and 137K.
(2)References to the taking of action include the taking of action by—
(a)the authorised person,
(b)any other person in the same group as the authorised person, or
(c)a partnership of which the authorised person is a member.
(3)In subsection (2)(b) the definition of “group” in section 421 applies with the omission of subsection (1)(e) and (f) of that section.
(4)References to the business of an authorised person include the business of—
(a)any person in the same group as the authorised person, and
(b)a partnership of which the authorised person is a member.
(5)For the purposes of section 137K the cases in which the business (or any part of the business) of the authorised person (“A”) is to be regarded as having failed include those where—
(a)A enters insolvency,
(b)any of the stabilisation options in Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 is achieved in relation to A, or
(c)A falls to be taken for the purposes of the compensation scheme to be unable, or likely to be unable, to satisfy claims against A.
(6)In subsection (5)(a) “insolvency” includes—
(a)bankruptcy,
(b)liquidation,
(c)bank insolvency,
(d)administration,
(e)bank administration,
(f)receivership,
(g)a composition between A and A's creditors, and
(h)a scheme of arrangement of A's affairs.
(1)This section applies where the PRA has exercised its power to make general rules so as to make rules requiring PRA-authorised persons, or PRA-authorised persons of a specified description, to prepare a resolution plan.
(2)The PRA must consult the Treasury and the Bank of England (“the Bank”) about the adequacy of resolution plans required to be prepared by those rules, so far as relating to any matter which may be relevant to the exercise by the Treasury or the Bank of any power under Part 1, 2 or 3 of the Banking Act 2009.
(3)After being consulted under subsection (2)—
(a)the Treasury or the Bank may notify the PRA that, in the opinion of the Treasury or the Bank, a resolution plan fails to make satisfactory provision in relation to any such matter, and
(b)if the Treasury or the Bank give a notification under paragraph (a), the Treasury or the Bank must give reasons for being of that opinion to the PRA.
(4)The PRA must have regard to any notification given under subsection (3)(a) before considering whether any resolution plan makes satisfactory provision in relation to any such matter.
(5)If—
(a)a notification is given under subsection (3)(a), but
(b)the PRA is nonetheless of the opinion that the resolution plan makes satisfactory provision in relation to any such matter,
the PRA must give reasons for being of that opinion to the person who gave the notification.
(6)In this section—
“resolution plan” has the same meaning as in section 137K;
“specified” means specified in the rules.
(1)A contractual or other requirement imposed on a person (“P”) to keep information in confidence does not apply if—
(a)the information is or may be relevant to anything required to be done as a result of a requirement imposed by general rules made by either regulator to prepare a recovery plan or a resolution plan,
(b)an authorised person or a skilled person requests or requires P to provide the information for the purpose of securing that those things are done, and
(c)the regulator in question has approved the making of the request or the imposition of the requirement before it is made or imposed.
(2)An authorised person may provide information (whether received under subsection (1) or otherwise) that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done as a result of a requirement imposed by general rules to prepare a recovery plan or a resolution plan.
(3)In this section, references to preparing a recovery plan or a resolution plan include—
(a)keeping that plan up to date, and
(b)collecting specified information for the purposes of that plan.
(4)In this section, references to a skilled person are to a person appointed in accordance with section 166A.
(5)In this section—
“authorised person”, in relation to rules of the PRA, means a PRA-authorised person;
“specified” means specified in the rules.
(1)Either regulator may make rules supplementing any of the conditions for the time being set out in or specified under Schedule 6 that is expressed to be relevant to the discharge of that regulator's functions.
(2)Rules made under this section by a regulator are referred to as that regulator's “threshold condition code”.
(3)A threshold condition code may in particular—
(a)specify requirements which a person must satisfy in order to be regarded as satisfying a particular condition in relation to any regulated activities;
(b)specify matters which are, or may be, or are not, relevant in determining whether a person satisfies a particular condition in relation to any regulated activities.
(4)Except where a regulator's threshold condition code so provides, it is not to be regarded as limiting the matters that are, or may be, relevant in determining whether a person satisfies a particular condition in relation to any regulated activities.
(5)A threshold condition code cannot impose obligations that are enforceable against authorised persons otherwise than through the threshold conditions.
(1)Either regulator may make rules (“control of information rules”) about the disclosure and use of information held by an authorised person (“A”).
(2)Control of information rules may—
(a)require the withholding of information which A would otherwise be required to disclose to a person (“B”) for or with whom A does business in the course of carrying on any regulated or other activity;
(b)specify circumstances in which A may withhold information which A would otherwise be required to disclose to B;
(c)require A not to use for the benefit of B information—
(i)which is held by A, and
(ii)which A would otherwise be required to use for the benefit of B;
(d)specify circumstances in which A may decide not to use for the benefit of B information within paragraph (c).
(1)The FCA may make rules (“price stabilising rules”) as to—
(a)the circumstances and manner in which,
(b)the conditions subject to which, and
(c)the time when or the period during which,
action may be taken for the purpose of stabilising the price of investments of specified kinds.
(2)Price stabilising rules—
(a)are to be made so as to apply only to authorised persons;
(b)may make different provision in relation to different kinds of investment.
(3)The FCA may make rules which, for the purposes of the relevant exemption provisions, treat a person who acts or engages in conduct—
(a)for the purpose of stabilising the price of investments, and
(b)in conformity with such provisions corresponding to price stabilising rules and made by a body or authority outside the United Kingdom as may be specified in rules made by the FCA,
as acting, or engaging in that conduct, for that purpose and in conformity with price stabilising rules.
(4)“The relevant exemption provisions” are the following provisions of the Financial Services Act 2012—
(a)section 90(9)(b);
(b)section 91(4)(a).
(1)The FCA may make rules applying to authorised persons about the communication by them, or their approval of the communication by others, of invitations or inducements—
(a)to engage in investment activity, or
(b)to participate in a collective investment scheme.
(2)Rules under this section may, in particular, make provision about the form and content of communications.
(3)Subsection (1) applies only to communications which—
(a)if made by a person other than an authorised person, without the approval of an authorised person, would contravene section 21(1), and
(b)may be made by an authorised person without contravening section 238(1).
(4)But subsection (3) does not prevent the FCA from making rules under subsection (1) in relation to a communication that would not contravene section 21(1) if made by a person other than an authorised person, without the approval of an authorised person, if the conditions set out in subsection (5) are satisfied.
(5)Those conditions are—
(a)that the communication would not contravene subsection (1) of section 21 because it is a communication to which that subsection does not apply as a result of an order under subsection (5) of that section,
(b)that the FCA considers that any of the requirements of—
(i)paragraphs 1 to 8 of Article 19 of the markets in financial instruments directive,
(ii)any implementing measure made under paragraph 10 of that Article, or
(iii)Article 77 of the UCITS directive,
apply to the communication, and
(c)that the FCA considers that the rules are necessary to secure that the communication satisfies such of the requirements mentioned in paragraph (b) as the FCA considers apply to the communication.
(6)“Engage in investment activity” has the same meaning as in section 21.
(7)The Treasury may by order impose limitations on the power to make rules under this section.
(1)The FCA may give a direction under this section if—
(a)an authorised person has made, or proposes to make, a communication or has approved, or proposes to approve, another person's communication, and
(b)the FCA considers that there has been, or is likely to be, a contravention of financial promotion rules in respect of the communication or approval.
(2)A direction under this section may require the authorised person—
(a)to withdraw the communication or approval;
(b)to refrain from making the communication or giving the approval (whether or not it has previously been made or given);
(c)to publish details of the direction;
(d)to do anything else specified in the direction in relation to the communication or approval.
(3)A requirement in a direction under this section to refrain from making or approving a communication includes a requirement to refrain from making or approving another communication where—
(a)the other communication is in all material respects the same as, or substantially the same as, the communication to which the direction relates, and
(b)in all the circumstances a reasonable person would think that another direction would be given under this section in relation to the other communication.
(4)The requirements contained in a direction under this section have effect as follows—
(a)a requirement to publish details of the direction has effect at such time (if any) as the FCA gives a notice under subsection (8)(a);
(b)any other requirement takes effect immediately.
(5)If the FCA gives a direction under this section to an authorised person—
(a)it must give written notice to the authorised person, and
(b)if the direction relates to the approval by the authorised person of another person's communication, it must also give written notice to that other person.
(6)The notice must—
(a)give details of the direction,
(b)inform the person to whom the notice is given that the direction takes effect immediately,
(c)state the FCA's reasons for giving the direction, and
(d)inform the person to whom the notice is given that the person may make representations to the FCA within such period as may be specified in the notice (which may be extended by the FCA).
(7)The FCA may amend the direction if, having considered any representations made by a person to whom notice is given under subsection (5), it considers it appropriate to do so.
(8)If, having considered any such representations, the FCA decides not to revoke the direction—
(a)the FCA must give separate written notice to the persons mentioned in subsection (5)(a) or (b), and
(b)any such person may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(9)A notice under subsection (8)(a) must—
(a)give details of the direction and of any amendment of it,
(b)state the FCA's reasons for deciding not to revoke the direction and, if relevant, for amending it,
(c)inform the person to whom the notice is given of the person's right to refer the matter to the Tribunal, and
(d)give an indication of the procedure on such a reference.
(10)If, having considered any representations made by a person to whom notice is given under subsection (5), the FCA decides to revoke the direction, it must give separate written notice to those persons.
(11)After the period for making representations in relation to a direction given under this section has ended, the FCA may publish such information about the direction as it considers appropriate (even if the direction is revoked).
(12)Nothing in this section requires a notice to be given to a person mentioned in subsection (5)(b) if the FCA considers it impracticable to do so.
Rules made by either regulator—
(a)may make different provision for different cases and may, in particular, make different provision in respect of different descriptions of authorised persons, activity or investment,
(b)may make provision by reference to rules made by the other regulator, as those rules have effect from time to time, and
(c)may contain such incidental, supplemental, consequential and transitional provision as the regulator making the rule considers appropriate.
(1)Either regulator may, on the application or with the consent of a person who is subject to rules made by that regulator, direct that all or any of those rules—
(a)are not to apply to that person, or
(b)are to apply to that person with such modifications as may be specified in the direction.
(2)Subsection (1) does not apply to—
(a)rules made by either regulator under section 137O (threshold condition code);
(b)rules made by the FCA under section 247 (trust scheme rules) or section 248 (scheme particulars rules).
(3)An application must be made in such manner as the regulator may direct.
(4)A regulator may not give a direction unless it is satisfied that—
(a)compliance by the person with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made, and
(b)the direction would not adversely affect the advancement of any of the regulator's objectives.
(5)In subsection (4)(b) “objectives”, in relation to the FCA, means operational objectives.
(6)A direction may be given subject to conditions.
(7)The regulator may—
(a)revoke a direction, or
(b)vary it on the application, or with the consent, of the person to whom it relates.
(8)“Direction” means a direction under this section.
(1)Subject to subsection (2), a direction must be published by the regulator concerned in the way appearing to the regulator to be best calculated for bringing it to the attention of—
(a)persons likely to be affected by it, and
(b)persons who are, in the opinion of the regulator, likely to make an application for a similar direction.
(2)Subsection (1) does not apply if the regulator is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to publish the direction.
(3)In deciding whether it is satisfied as mentioned in subsection (2), the regulator must—
(a)consider whether the publication of the direction would be detrimental to the stability of the UK financial system,
(b)take into account whether the direction relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable in accordance with section 138D,
(c)consider whether publication of the direction would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the person concerned or any other member of the person's immediate group, and
(d)consider whether its publication would be contrary to an international obligation of the United Kingdom.
(4)The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a direction which relates to—
(a)a PRA-authorised person, or
(b)an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person.
(5)For the purposes of paragraphs (c) and (d) of subsection (3), the regulator must consider whether it would be possible to publish the direction without either of the consequences mentioned in those paragraphs by publishing it without disclosing the identity of the person concerned.
(6)“Direction” means a direction under section 138A.
(1)If a particular rule made by either regulator so provides, contravention of the rule does not give rise to any of the consequences provided for by other provisions of this Act.
(2)A rule made by a regulator which so provides must also provide—
(a)that contravention may be relied on as tending to establish contravention of such other rule made by that regulator as may be specified, or
(b)that compliance may be relied on as tending to establish compliance with such other rule made by that regulator as may be specified.
(3)A rule may include the provision mentioned in subsection (1) only if the regulator making the rule considers that it is appropriate for it also to include the provision required by subsection (2).
(4)In this section “rule” does not include a rule made under—
(a)section 137O (threshold condition code);
(b)section 192J (provision of information by parent undertakings).
(1)A rule made by the PRA may provide that contravention of the rule is actionable at the suit of a private person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.
(2)A contravention by an authorised person of a rule made by the FCA is actionable at the suit of a private person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.
(3)If rules made by the FCA so provide, subsection (2) does not apply to a contravention of a specified provision of the rules.
(4)In prescribed cases, a contravention of a rule which by virtue of subsection (1) or (2) would be actionable at the suit of a private person is actionable at the suit of a person who is not a private person, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.
(5)In subsections (1), (2) and (3) “rule” does not include—
(a)Part 6 rules;
(b)rules under section 137O (threshold condition code);
(c)rules under section 192J (provision of information by parent undertakings);
(d)a rule requiring an authorised person to have or maintain financial resources.
(6)“Private person” has such meaning as may be prescribed.
(1)A person is not guilty of an offence by reason of a contravention of a rule made by either regulator.
(2)No such contravention makes any transaction void or unenforceable.
(3)Subsection (2) does not apply in relation to—
(a)rules made by the FCA under section 137C, or
(b)product intervention rules made by the FCA under section 137D.
If either regulator makes, alters or revokes any rules, that regulator must without delay give written notice—
(a)to the Treasury, and
(b)to the Bank of England.
(1)Any power conferred on either regulator to make rules is exercisable in writing.
(2)An instrument by which rules are made by either regulator (“a rule-making instrument”) must specify the provision under which the rules are made.
(3)To the extent that a rule-making instrument does not comply with subsection (2), it is void.
(4)A rule-making instrument must be published by the regulator making the rule in the way appearing to that regulator to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(5)The regulator making the rule may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of a rule-making instrument.
(6)A person is not to be taken to have contravened any rule made by a regulator if the person shows that at the time of the alleged contravention the rule-making instrument concerned had not been made available in accordance with this section.
(1)The production of a printed copy of a rule-making instrument purporting to be made by a regulator—
(a)on which is endorsed a certificate signed by a member of staff of that regulator who is authorised by the regulator for that purpose, and
(b)which contains the required statements,
is evidence (or in Scotland sufficient evidence) of the facts stated in the certificate.
(2)The required statements are—
(a)that the instrument was made by the FCA or the PRA (as the case may be),
(b)that the copy is a true copy of the instrument, and
(c)that on a specified date the instrument was made available to the public in accordance with section 138G(4).
(3)A certificate purporting to be signed as mentioned in subsection (1) is to be taken to have been properly signed unless the contrary is shown.
(4)A person who wishes in any legal proceedings to rely on a rule-making instrument may require the regulator that made the rule to endorse a copy of the instrument with a certificate of the kind mentioned in subsection (1).
(1)Before making any rules, the FCA must—
(a)consult the PRA, and
(b)after doing so, publish a draft of the proposed rules in the way appearing to the FCA to be best calculated to bring them to the attention of the public.
(2)The draft must be accompanied by—
(a)a cost benefit analysis,
(b)an explanation of the purpose of the proposed rules,
(c)any statement prepared under section 138K(2),
(d)an explanation of the FCA's reasons for believing that making the proposed rules is compatible with its duties under section 1B(1) and (5)(a), and
(e)notice that representations about the proposals may be made to the FCA within a specified time.
(3)Before making the proposed rules, the FCA must have regard to any representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2)(e).
(4)If the FCA makes the proposed rules, it must publish an account, in general terms, of—
(a)the representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2)(e), and
(b)its response to them.
(5)If the rules differ from the draft published under subsection (1)(b) in a way which is, in the opinion of the FCA, significant the FCA must publish—
(a)details of the difference (in addition to complying with subsection (4)) together with a cost benefit analysis, and
(b)any statement prepared under section 138K(4).
(6)The requirements to carry out a cost benefit analysis under this section do not apply in relation to rules made under—
(a)section 136(2);
(b)subsection (1) of section 213 as a result of subsection (4) of that section;
(c)section 234;
(d)paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA;
(e)paragraph 12 of Schedule 1A.
(7)“Cost benefit analysis” means—
(a)an analysis of the costs together with an analysis of the benefits that will arise—
(i)if the proposed rules are made, or
(ii)if subsection (5) applies, from the rules that have been made, and
(b)subject to subsection (8), an estimate of those costs and of those benefits.
(8)If, in the opinion of the FCA—
(a)the costs or benefits referred to in subsection (7) cannot reasonably be estimated, or
(b)it is not reasonably practicable to produce an estimate,
the cost benefit analysis need not estimate them, but must include a statement of the FCA's opinion and an explanation of it.
(9)The FCA may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of a draft published under subsection (1)(b).
(10)Subsection (1)(a) does not apply to rules made by the FCA in relation to recognised investment exchanges under Part 18.
(11)This section is subject to section 138L.
(1)Before making any rules, the PRA must—
(a)consult the FCA, and
(b)after doing so, publish a draft of the proposed rules in the way appearing to the PRA to be best calculated to bring them to the attention of the public.
(2)The draft must be accompanied by—
(a)a cost benefit analysis,
(b)an explanation of the purpose of the proposed rules,
(c)any statement prepared under section 138K(2),
(d)an explanation of the PRA's reasons for believing that making the proposed rules is compatible with its duties under—
(i)section 2B(1) or, as the case requires, section 2C(1) or 2D(3), and
(ii)section 2H, and
(e)notice that representations about the proposals may be made to the PRA within a specified time.
(3)Before making the proposed rules, the PRA must have regard to any representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2)(e).
(4)If the PRA makes the proposed rules, it must publish an account, in general terms, of—
(a)the representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2)(e), and
(b)its response to them.
(5)If the rules differ from the draft published under subsection (1)(b) in a way which is, in the opinion of the PRA, significant the PRA must publish—
(a)details of the difference (in addition to complying with subsection (4)) together with a cost benefit analysis, and
(b)any statement prepared under section 138K(4).
(6)The requirements to carry out a cost benefit analysis under this section do not apply in relation to rules made under—
(a)section 136(2);
(b)subsection (1) of section 213 as a result of subsection (4) of that section;
(c)section 234;
(d)paragraph 31 of Schedule 1ZB;
(e)paragraph 12 of Schedule 1A.
(7)“Cost benefit analysis” means—
(a)an analysis of the costs together with an analysis of the benefits that will arise—
(i)if the proposed rules are made, or
(ii)if subsection (5) applies, from the rules that have been made, and
(b)subject to subsection (8), an estimate of those costs and of those benefits.
(8)If, in the opinion of the PRA—
(a)the costs or benefits referred to in subsection (7) cannot reasonably be estimated, or
(b)it is not reasonably practicable to produce an estimate,
the cost benefit analysis need not estimate them, but must include a statement of the PRA's opinion and an explanation of it.
(9)The PRA may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of a draft published under subsection (1)(b).
(10)This section is subject to section 138L.
(1)Subsection (2) applies where a regulator proposes to make a rule (“the proposed rule”) which would apply both to—
(a)authorised persons which are mutual societies, and
(b)other authorised persons.
(2)The regulator must prepare a statement setting out—
(a)its opinion whether or not the impact of the proposed rule on persons within subsection (1)(a) will be significantly different from its impact on persons within subsection (1)(b), and
(b)if so, details of the difference.
(3)Subsection (4) applies where a regulator makes a rule which—
(a)applies both to—
(i)authorised persons which are mutual societies, and
(ii)other authorised persons, and
(b)differs from the draft of the proposed rule published under section 138I(1)(b) or section 138J(1)(b) (as the case may be).
(4)The regulator must prepare a statement setting out—
(a)its opinion whether or not the impact of the rule is significantly different from the impact of the proposed rule on—
(i)the persons within subsection (3)(a)(i), and
(ii)those persons as compared with persons within subsection (3)(a)(ii), and
(b)if so, details of the difference.
(5)A “mutual society” is—
(a)a building society within the meaning of the Building Societies Act 1986;
(b)a friendly society within the meaning of the Friendly Societies Act 1992;
(c)a registered society within the meaning of the Industrial and Provident Societies Act 1965;
(d)an EEA mutual society.
(6)An “EEA mutual society” is—
(a)a body which is a European Cooperative Society for the purposes of Council Regulation (EC) No 1435/2003 (statute for a European Cooperative Society);
(b)a body which is established as a cooperative under the law of an EEA state as mentioned in that Regulation;
(c)a body which is a cooperative or mutual undertaking of such description as the Treasury specify by order and which is established or operates in accordance with the laws of an EEA state.
(1)Sections 138I(1)(b) and (2) to (5) and 138K do not apply in relation to rules made by the FCA if the FCA considers that the delay involved in complying with them would be prejudicial to the interests of consumers, as defined in section 425A.
(2)Sections 138J(1)(b) and (2) to (5) and 138K do not apply in relation to rules made by the PRA if the PRA considers that the delay involved in complying with them would—
(a)be prejudicial to the safety and soundness of PRA-authorised persons, or
(b)in a case where section 2C applies, be prejudicial to securing the appropriate degree of protection for policyholders.
(3)The provisions listed in subsection (4) do not apply if the regulator concerned considers that, making the appropriate comparison—
(a)there will be no increase in costs, or
(b)there will be an increase in costs but that increase will be of minimal significance.
(4)Those provisions are—
(a)subsections (2)(a) and (5)(a) of section 138I;
(b)subsections (2)(a) and (5)(a) of section 138J.
(5)The “appropriate comparison” means—
(a)in relation to section 138I(2)(a) or 138J(2)(a), a comparison between the overall position if the rules are made and the overall position if the rules are not made;
(b)in relation to section 138I(5)(a) or 138J(5)(a), a comparison between the overall position after the making of the rules and the overall position before they were made.
(1)Sections 138I(1)(b) and (2) to (5) and 138K do not apply in relation to product intervention rules made by the FCA if it considers that it is necessary or expedient not to comply with them for the purpose of advancing—
(a)the consumer protection objective or the competition objective, or
(b)if an order under section 137D(1)(b) is in force, the integrity objective.
(2)Any rules made as a result of subsection (1) (“temporary product intervention rules”) are to cease to have effect at the end of the period specified in the rules.
(3)The longest period that may be specified is the period of 12 months beginning with the day on which the rules come into force.
(4)Nothing in subsection (2) prevents the FCA from revoking temporary product intervention rules before the end of the period mentioned there.
(5)If the FCA has made temporary product intervention rules (“the initial rules”), it may not make further temporary product intervention rules containing the same, or substantially the same, provision as that contained in the initial rules until the prohibited period has ended.
(6)“The prohibited period” means the period of 12 months beginning with the day on which the period mentioned in subsection (2) ends (whether or not the initial rules have been revoked before the end of the period mentioned there).
(1)The FCA must prepare and issue a statement of its policy with respect to the making of temporary product intervention rules.
(2)The FCA may at any time alter or replace a statement issued under this section.
(3)If a statement issued under this section is altered or replaced, the FCA must issue the altered or replacement statement.
(4)The FCA must, without delay, give the Treasury a copy of any statement which it publishes under this section.
(5)A statement issued under this section must be published by the FCA in the way appearing to the FCA to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(6)The FCA may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of the statement.
(1)Before issuing a statement under section 138N, the FCA must publish a draft of the proposed statement in the way appearing to the FCA to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(2)The draft must be accompanied by notice that representations about the proposal may be made to the FCA within a specified time.
(3)Before issuing the proposed statement, the FCA must have regard to any representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2).
(4)If the FCA issues the proposed statement it must publish an account, in general terms, of—
(a)the representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2), and
(b)its response to them.
(5)If the statement differs from the draft published under subsection (1) in a way which is, in the opinion of the FCA, significant, the FCA must (in addition to complying with subsection (4)) publish details of the difference.
(6)The FCA may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of a draft published under subsection (1).
(7)This section also applies to a proposal to alter or replace a statement.
(1)The FCA may give guidance consisting of such information and advice as it considers appropriate—
(a)with respect to the operation of specified parts of this Act and of any rules made by the FCA;
(b)with respect to any other matter relating to functions of the FCA;
(c)with respect to any other matters about which it appears to the FCA to be desirable to give information or advice.
(2)The FCA may give financial or other assistance to persons giving information or advice of a kind which the FCA could give under this section.
(3)Subsection (5) applies where the FCA proposes to give guidance to FCA-regulated persons generally, or to a class of FCA-regulated persons, in relation to rules to which those persons are subject.
(4)Subsection (5) also applies in relation to guidance which the FCA proposes to give to persons generally, or to a class of person, in relation to its functions under the short selling regulation.
(5)Where this subsection applies, subsections (1), (2)(e) and (3) of section 138I (consultation) apply to the proposed guidance as they apply to proposed rules, unless the FCA considers that the delay in complying with those provisions would be prejudicial to the interests of consumers.
(6)The FCA may—
(a)publish its guidance,
(b)offer copies of its published guidance for sale at a reasonable price, and
(c)if it gives guidance in response to a request made by any person, make a reasonable charge for that guidance.
(7)In this Chapter, references to guidance given by the FCA include references to any recommendations made by the FCA to FCA-regulated persons generally, or to any class of FCA-regulated person.
(8)“Consumers” has the meaning given in section 1G.
(9)“FCA-regulated person” means—
(a)an authorised person, or
(b)any person who is otherwise subject to rules made by the FCA.
(1)On giving any general guidance, the FCA must give written notice to the Treasury without delay.
(2)If the FCA alters any of its guidance, it must give written notice to the Treasury without delay.
(3)The notice under subsection (2) must include details of the alteration.
(4)If the FCA revokes any of its general guidance, it must give written notice to the Treasury without delay.
(5)“General guidance” means guidance given by the FCA under section 139A which is—
(a)given to persons generally, to FCA-regulated persons generally or to a class of FCA-regulated person,
(b)intended to have continuing effect, and
(c)given in writing or other legible form.
(6)“FCA-regulated person” has the same meaning as in section 139A.
(1)In this Chapter—
“market in the United Kingdom” includes—
so far as it operates in the United Kingdom or a part of the United Kingdom, any market which operates there and in another country or territory or in a part of another country or territory, and
any market which operates only in a part of the United Kingdom;
“the OFT” means the Office of Fair Trading;
“practices”, in relation to each regulator, means practices adopted by that regulator in the exercise of functions under this Act;
“regulating provisions” means—
in relation to the FCA, any—
rules of the FCA;
general guidance (as defined by section 139B(5));
statement issued by the FCA under section 64;
code issued by the FCA under section 64 or 119;
in relation to the PRA, any—
rules of the PRA;
statement issued by the PRA under section 64;
code issued by the PRA under section 64.
(2)In this Chapter each of the Competition Commission and the OFT is “a competition authority”.
(3)For the purposes of this Chapter, any reference to a feature of a market in the United Kingdom for goods or services is to be read as a reference to—
(a)the structure of the market concerned or any aspect of that structure,
(b)any conduct (whether or not in the market concerned) of one or more than one person who supplies or acquires goods or services in the market concerned, or
(c)any conduct relating to the market concerned of customers of any person who supplies or acquires goods or services.
(4)In subsection (3) “conduct” includes any failure to act (whether or not intentional) and any other unintentional conduct.
(1)In this Chapter, any reference to the giving of “section 140B advice” to a regulator is to be read in accordance with this section.
(2)The OFT gives “section 140B advice” to a regulator if—
(a)it gives advice to the regulator under section 7 of the Enterprise Act 2002 (provision of competition advice to Ministers etc.), and
(b)the advice states that in the opinion of the OFT one or more of the things mentioned in subsection (4) may cause, or contribute to, the effect mentioned in subsection (5), or might be expected to do so in the future.
(3)The Competition Commission gives “section 140B advice” to a regulator if a report published by it under section 136 of the Enterprise Act 2002 (investigations and reports on market investigation reference) contains—
(a)a decision that one or more of the things mentioned in subsection (4) may cause, or contribute to, the effect mentioned in subsection (5), and
(b)a recommendation that any action should be taken by that regulator.
(4)Those things are—
(a)a regulating provision or practice of the regulator,
(b)two or more regulating provisions or practices (of that regulator or of both regulators) taken together,
(c)a particular combination of regulating provision or practices (of that regulator or of both regulators), or
(d)a feature, or combination of features, of a market in the United Kingdom that could be dealt with by regulating provision or practices (of that regulator or of both regulators).
(5)That effect is the prevention, restriction or distortion of competition in connection with the supply or acquisition of any goods or services in the United Kingdom or a part of the United Kingdom.
Before giving section 140B advice, a competition authority must consult the regulator to which the advice is to be given.
Where the OFT is deciding whether to exercise its power under section 7 of the Enterprise Act 2002 to give advice which, if given, would be section 140B advice, section 174 of that Act has effect as if—
(a)in subsection (1), for the words from “make a reference” to the end there were substituted “ give advice which would for the purposes of Chapter 4 of Part 9A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 be section 140B advice ”, and
(b)in subsection (2), for “make such a reference” there were substituted “ give such advice ”.
The OFT must publish in such manner as it thinks fit any section 140B advice given by it to either regulator.
(1)Where the publication of a report of the Competition Commission under section 142 of the Enterprise Act 2002 constitutes the giving of section 140B advice to either regulator, the Commission must give a copy of the report to that regulator.
(2)The day on which the copy is given is the day on which the regulator is to be taken to receive the section 140B advice.
(1)A regulator must, within 90 days after the day on which it receives section 140B advice, publish a response stating how it proposes to deal with the advice and in particular—
(a)whether it has decided to take any action, or to take no action, in response to the advice,
(b)if it has decided to take action, what action it proposes to take, and
(c)its reasons for its proposals.
(2)Publication is to be in such manner as the regulator thinks fit.
(1)This section applies where—
(a)a competition authority has given section 140B advice and the regulator has published a response under section 140G, and
(b)the competition authority remains of the opinion that one or more of the things mentioned in section 140B(4) may cause or contribute to, the effect mentioned in section 140B(5).
(2)The competition authority may refer the section 140B advice to the Treasury by sending the Treasury—
(a)a copy of the section 140B advice and of the response, and
(b)a request to consider the advice and the response.
(3)In referring the section 140B advice, the competition authority may give advice to the Treasury as to what action, if any, ought to be taken by the regulator.
(4)If section 140B advice is referred to them, the Treasury may give a direction to the regulator to which the advice was given requiring the regulator to take such action as may be specified in the direction.
(5)In considering whether to give a direction and, if so, what action to specify, the Treasury must have regard to—
(a)any advice the competition authority has given under subsection (3),
(b)any action which the section 140B advice suggests that the regulator should take, and
(c)the response of the regulator to the section 140B advice.
(6)The direction may not require the regulator to do anything that it has no power to do, but the existence of the direction is relevant to the exercise of any discretion conferred on the regulator.
(7)Before giving a direction under this section, the Treasury must consult the regulator to which it is to be given.
(8)If the Treasury give a direction under this section they must—
(a)publish in such manner as they think fit a statement giving details of the direction and of their reasons for giving it, and
(b)lay a copy of the statement before Parliament.
(1)This section applies if—
(a)a provision of primary or subordinate legislation (whenever passed or made) contains a reference (however expressed) to rules of either regulator or to guidance of the FCA,
(b)it appears to the Treasury or the Secretary of State that the reference requires amendment in consequence of the exercise by that regulator of its power under this Part to make, alter or revoke its rules or the exercise by the FCA of its power to make, alter or revoke its guidance.
(2)The Treasury or the Secretary of State may by order make such amendment of the legislation referred to in subsection (1)(a) as appears to them to be necessary or expedient in consequence of the exercise by the regulator of the power mentioned in subsection (1)(b).
(3)The power conferred by subsection (2) includes power—
(a)to replace a reference to the rules of one regulator with a reference to the rules of the other regulator or to the rules of both regulators;
(b)to replace a reference to the rules of both regulators with a reference to the rules of one regulator.
(4)In subsection (1)(a) “subordinate legislation” does not include rules of either regulator.”
(2)In section 391 of FSMA 2000 (publication), after subsection (5) insert—
“(5A)Subsection (5) does not apply in relation to a notice given in accordance with section 137S(5) or (8)(a) (but see section 137S(11)).”
(3)In section 395 of FSMA 2000 (procedures in relation to giving of supervisory notices etc), in subsection (13), after paragraph (bb) insert—
“(bba)section 137S(5) or (8)(a);”.
(4)Omit Schedule 14 to FSMA 2000 (role of the Competition Commission).
Commencement Information
I35S. 24 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I36S. 24 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)In every provision of Part 8A of FSMA 2000 (short selling) for “Authority” or “Authority's” in each place substitute “ FCA ” or “FCA's”.
(2)Subsection (1) does not affect references to “the competent authority”.
Commencement Information
I37S. 25 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)FSMA 2000 is amended as follows.
(2)In every provision of Part 12 (control over authorised persons), for “Authority” or “Authority's”, in each place (where not expressly amended by the following provisions), substitute “ appropriate regulator ” or “appropriate regulator's”.
(3)In section 178 (obligation to notify an acquisition of control), after subsection (2) insert—
“(2A)In this Part, “the appropriate regulator” means—
(a)where the UK authorised person is a PRA-authorised person, the PRA;
(b)in any other case, the FCA.”
(4)In section 179 (requirements for section 178 notices) in subsection (2), for “The Authority” substitute “ Each regulator ”.
(5)In section 187 (approval with conditions), for subsection (2) substitute—
“(2)The appropriate regulator may only impose conditions where—
(a)if it did not impose those conditions, it would propose to object to the acquisition, or
(b)it is required to do so by a direction under section 187A(3)(b) or section 187B(3).”
(6)After section 187 insert—
(1)The PRA must consult the FCA before acting under section 185.
(2)The FCA may make representations to the PRA in relation to any of the matters set out in sections 185(2) and 186.
(3)If the FCA considers that on the basis of the matters set out in section 186(f) there are reasonable grounds to object to the acquisition, the FCA may—
(a)direct the PRA to object to the acquisition, or
(b)direct the PRA not to approve the acquisition unless it does so subject to conditions specified in the direction (with or without other conditions).
(4)Before giving a direction under subsection (3), the FCA must notify the PRA of its proposal to do so.
(5)In order to comply with the obligation under subsection (1), the PRA must provide the FCA with—
(a)copies of—
(i)the section 178 notice, and
(ii)any document included with that notice,
(b)any further information provided pursuant to section 190, and
(c)any other information in the possession of the PRA which—
(i)in the opinion of the PRA, is relevant to the application, or
(ii)is reasonably requested by the FCA.
(6)If the PRA acts under section 185(1)(b), it must indicate to the section 178 notice-giver any representations or directions received from the FCA.
(7)Directions given by the FCA under this section are subject to any directions given to the FCA under section 3I or 3J.
(1)The FCA must consult the PRA before acting under section 185 if—
(a)the UK authorised person to which the section 178 notice relates has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person, or
(b)the section 178 notice-giver is a PRA-authorised person.
(2)The PRA may make representations to the FCA in relation to any of the matters set out in sections 185(2) and 186.
(3)If the PRA considers that on the basis of relevant matters there are reasonable grounds to object to the acquisition, the PRA may direct the FCA not to approve the acquisition unless it does so subject to conditions specified in the direction (with or without other conditions).
(4)In subsection (3) “relevant matters”—
(a)means the matters in paragraphs (d) and (e)(i) of section 186, and
(b)in a case falling within subsection (1)(b) of this section, also includes the matter in paragraph (c) of section 186.
(5)In order to comply with the obligation under subsection (1), the FCA must provide the PRA with—
(a)copies of—
(i)the section 178 notice, and
(ii)any document included with that notice,
(b)any further information provided pursuant to section 190, and
(c)any other information in the possession of the FCA which—
(i)in the opinion of the FCA, is relevant to the application, or
(ii)is reasonably requested by the PRA.
(6)If the FCA acts under section 185(1)(b), it must indicate to the section 178 notice-giver any representations or directions received from the PRA.
(1)Where the PRA has imposed conditions required by a direction given by the FCA under section 187A(3)—
(a)the FCA may direct the PRA to exercise its power under section 187(4) to vary or cancel any of those conditions;
(b)the PRA must consult the FCA before it exercises that power in relation to those conditions otherwise than in accordance with a direction under paragraph (a).
(2)Where the FCA has imposed conditions required by a direction given by the PRA under section 187B(3)—
(a)the PRA may direct the FCA to exercise its power under section 187(4) to vary or cancel any of those conditions;
(b)the FCA must consult the PRA before it exercises that power in relation to those conditions otherwise than in accordance with a direction under paragraph (a).”
(7)In section 191A (objection to control), after subsection (4) insert—
“(4A)Where the appropriate regulator is the PRA, it must consult the FCA before giving a warning notice under this section.
(4B)Where the appropriate regulator is the FCA, it must consult the PRA before giving a warning notice under this section if—
(a)the UK authorised person has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person, or
(b)the person to whom the warning notice is to be given is a PRA-authorised person.”
(8)In section 191B (restriction notices), after subsection (2) insert—
“(2A)Where the appropriate regulator is the PRA, it must consult the FCA before giving a restriction notice under this section.
(2B)Where the appropriate regulator is the FCA, it must consult the PRA before giving a restriction notice under this section if—
(a)the UK authorised person has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person, or
(b)the person to whom the restriction notice is to be given is a PRA-authorised person.”
(9)In section 191C (orders for the sale of shares), after subsection (2) insert—
“(2A)Where the appropriate regulator is the PRA, it must consult the FCA before making an application to the court under this section.
(2B)Where the appropriate regulator is the FCA, it must consult the PRA before making an application to the court under this section if—
(a)the UK authorised person has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person, or
(b)the person holding the shares or voting power is a PRA-authorised person.”
(10)In section 191D (obligation to notify of disposition of control), after subsection (1) insert—
“(1A)The PRA must give the FCA a copy of any notice it receives under this section.
(1B)The FCA must give the PRA a copy of any notice it receives under this section which—
(a)relates to a UK authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person, or
(b)is given by a PRA-authorised person.”
(11)In section 191E (requirements for notices under section 191D), in subsection (2), for “The Authority” substitute “ Each regulator ”.
(12)In section 191G (interpretation), in subsection (1), after the definition of “acquisition” insert—
““the appropriate regulator” is to be read in accordance with section 178(2A);”.
Commencement Information
I38S. 26 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
After section 192 of FSMA 2000 insert—
(1)In this Part “qualifying authorised person” means an authorised person satisfying the following conditions.
(2)Condition A is that the authorised person is a body corporate incorporated in the United Kingdom.
(3)Condition B is that the authorised person is—
(a)a PRA-authorised person, or
(b)an investment firm.
(4)The Treasury may by order—
(a)amend subsection (3) so as to add to or restrict the descriptions of authorised person who can be qualifying authorised persons, or
(b)provide that while the order is in force subsection (3) is not to have effect.
(5)Except as provided by subsection (6), an order under subsection (4) is not to be made unless a draft of the order has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House.
(6)An order under subsection (4) may be made without a draft having been laid and approved as mentioned in subsection (5) if the order contains a statement that the Treasury are of the opinion that, by reason of urgency, it is necessary to make the order without a draft being so laid and approved.
(7)An order under subsection (4) made in accordance with subsection (6)—
(a)must be laid before Parliament after being made, and
(b)ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant period unless before the end of that period the order is approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament (but without affecting anything done under the order or the power to make a new order).
(8)The “relevant period” is a period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the order is made.
(9)In calculating the relevant period no account is to be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during which both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days.
(1)The parent undertaking of a qualifying authorised person or recognised UK investment exchange is for the purposes of this Part a “qualifying parent undertaking” if the following conditions are satisfied in relation to it.
(2)Condition A is that the parent undertaking is a body corporate which—
(a)is incorporated in the United Kingdom, or
(b)has a place of business in the United Kingdom.
(3)Condition B is that the parent undertaking is not itself an authorised person, a recognised investment exchange or a recognised clearing house.
(4)Condition C is that the parent undertaking is a financial institution of a kind prescribed by the Treasury by order.
(5)“Recognised UK investment exchange” means a recognised investment exchange that is not an overseas investment exchange as defined in section 313(1).
(6)The Treasury may by order—
(a)amend subsection (4) by omitting the words “a financial institution”, and
(b)make any amendment of subsection (2) that they consider desirable in connection with an amendment made under paragraph (a).
(1)The appropriate regulator may give a direction under this section to a qualifying parent undertaking if either the general condition or the consolidated supervision condition is satisfied.
(2)The general condition is that the appropriate regulator considers that it is desirable to give the direction in order to advance—
(a)in the case of the FCA, one or more of its operational objectives;
(b)in the case of the PRA, any of its objectives.
(3)The consolidated supervision condition is that—
(a)the appropriate regulator is the competent authority for the purpose of consolidated supervision that is required, in relation to some or all of the members of the group of a qualifying authorised person, in pursuance of any of the directives mentioned in section 3M(3), and
(b)the appropriate regulator considers that the giving of the direction is desirable for the purpose of the effective consolidated supervision of the group.
(4)In subsection (3)(a) “consolidated supervision” includes supplemental supervision.
(5)In deciding whether to give a direction under this section, a regulator must have regard—
(a)to the desirability where practicable of exercising its powers in relation to authorised persons or recognised investment exchanges rather than its powers under this section, and
(b)to the principle that a burden or restriction which is imposed on a person should be proportionate to the benefits, considered in general terms, which are expected to result from its imposition.
(6)“The appropriate regulator” means—
(a)where a direction relates to a qualifying authorised person or recognised investment exchange who is a PRA-authorised person, the FCA or the PRA;
(b)in any other case, the FCA.
(1)A direction under section 192C may require the parent undertaking—
(a)to take specified action, or
(b)to refrain from taking specified action.
(2)A requirement may be imposed by reference to the parent undertaking's relationship with—
(a)its group, or
(b)other members of its group.
(3)A requirement may refer to the past conduct of the parent undertaking (for example, by requiring the parent undertaking to review or take remedial action in respect of past conduct).
(4)A requirement imposed by the direction may be expressed to expire at the end of a specified period, but the imposition of a requirement that expires at the end of a specified period does not affect the power to give a further direction imposing a new requirement.
(5)The direction—
(a)may be revoked by the regulator which gave it by written notice to the body to which it is given, and
(b)ceases to be in force if the body to which it is given ceases to be a qualifying parent undertaking.
(1)If a regulator proposes to give a direction under section 192C, or gives such a direction with immediate effect, it must give written notice to—
(a)the parent undertaking to which the direction is given (or to be given) (“P”), and
(b)any authorised person or recognised investment exchange who will, in the opinion of the regulator, be significantly affected by the direction.
(2)In the following provisions of this section “notified person” means a person to whom notice under subsection (1) is given.
(3)A direction under section 192C takes effect—
(a)immediately, if the notice under subsection (1) states that that is the case,
(b)on such other date as may be specified in the notice, or
(c)if no date is specified in the notice, when the matter to which the notice relates is no longer open to review.
(4)A direction may be expressed to take effect immediately (or on a specified date) only if the regulator reasonably considers that it is necessary for the direction to take effect immediately (or on that date).
(5)The notice under subsection (1) must—
(a)give details of the direction,
(b)state the regulator's reasons for the direction and for its determination as to when the direction takes effect,
(c)inform the notified person that the person may make representations to the regulator within such period as may be specified in the notice (whether or not the notified person has referred the matter to the Tribunal), and
(d)inform the notified person of the person's right to refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(6)The regulator may extend the period allowed under the notice for making representations.
(7)If, having considered any representations made by any notified person, the regulator decides—
(a)to give the direction proposed, or
(b)if the direction has been given, not to revoke the direction,
it must give each of the notified persons written notice.
(8)If, having considered any representations made by any notified person, the regulator decides—
(a)not to give the direction proposed,
(b)to give a different direction, or
(c)to revoke a direction which has effect,
it must give each of the notified persons written notice.
(9)A notice given under subsection (7) must inform the notified person of the person's right to refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(10)A notice under subsection (8)(b) must comply with subsection (5).
(11)If a notice informs the notified person of the person's right to refer a matter to the Tribunal, it must give an indication of the procedure on such a reference.
(12)For the purposes of subsection (3)(c), whether a matter is open to review is to be determined in accordance with section 391(8).
(1)Before the PRA gives a notice under section 192E(1) or (8)(b), it must consult the FCA.
(2)Before the FCA gives a notice under section 192E(1) or (8)(b) in relation to the parent undertaking of a PRA-authorised person, the FCA must consult the PRA.
(3)Before either regulator gives a notice under section 192E(1) or (8)(b) in relation to the parent undertaking of a recognised clearing house, the regulator must consult the Bank of England.
(1)A notified person who is aggrieved by the exercise by either regulator of its powers in relation to directions under section 192C may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
(2)“Notified person” is to be read in accordance with subsection (2) of section 192E, except that it includes a person to whom a notice under subsection (1) of that section ought to have been given.
(1)Each regulator must prepare and issue a statement of policy with respect to the giving of directions under section 192C.
(2)A regulator may at any time alter or replace a statement issued under this section.
(3)If a statement issued under this section is altered or replaced, the regulator must issue the altered or replacement statement.
(4)In exercising or deciding whether to exercise its power under section 192C in any particular case, a regulator must have regard to any statement published under this section and for the time being in force.
(5)A statement under this section must be published by the regulator concerned in the way appearing to the regulator to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(6)A regulator may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of a statement published under this section.
(7)A regulator must, without delay, give the Treasury a copy of any statement which the regulator publishes under this section.
(1)Before issuing a statement of policy under section 192H, a regulator (“the issuing regulator”) must—
(a)consult the other regulator and the Bank of England, and
(b)publish a draft of the proposed statement in the way appearing to the issuing regulator to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(2)The draft must be accompanied by notice that representations about the proposal may be made to the issuing regulator within a specified time.
(3)Before issuing the proposed statement, the issuing regulator must have regard to any representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2).
(4)If the issuing regulator issues the proposed statement it must publish an account, in general terms, of—
(a)the representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2), and
(b)its response to them.
(5)If the statement differs from the draft published under subsection (2) in a way which is, in the opinion of the issuing regulator, significant, the issuing regulator—
(a)must before issuing it consult the other regulator again, and
(b)must (in addition to complying with subsection (4)), publish details of the difference.
(6)The issuing regulator may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a draft published under subsection (1)(b).
(7)This section also applies to a proposal to alter or replace a statement.
(1)The appropriate regulator may make rules requiring qualifying parent undertakings—
(a)to provide to the regulator information of a specified description;
(b)to produce to the regulator documents of a specified description.
(2)The rules may only specify a description of information or documents that is relevant to the exercise by the regulator of its functions.
(3)The rules may make provision—
(a)as to the time within which information must be provided or documents produced;
(b)about the form in which any information is to provided;
(c)about the place where any documents are to be produced;
(d)requiring information provided to be verified in a specified manner;
(e)requiring documents produced to be authenticated in a specified manner.
(4)“The appropriate regulator” means—
(a)in relation to the parent undertaking of a qualifying authorised person who is a PRA-authorised person, the FCA or the PRA;
(b)in any other case, the FCA.
(1)This section applies if a regulator is satisfied that a person who is or has been a qualifying parent undertaking (“P”) has contravened—
(a)a requirement of a direction given to P by that regulator under section 192C, or
(b)a provision of rules made by that regulator under section 192J.
(2)The regulator may impose a penalty of such amount as it considers appropriate on—
(a)P, or
(b)any person who was knowingly concerned in the contravention.
(3)The regulator may, instead of imposing a penalty on a person, publish a statement censuring the person.
(4)The regulator may not take action against a person under this section after the end of the limitation period unless, before the end of that period, it has given a warning notice to the person under section 192L.
(5)“The limitation period” means the period of 3 years beginning with the first day on which the regulator knew of the contravention.
(6)For this purpose a regulator is to be treated as knowing of a contravention if it has information from which the contravention can reasonably be inferred.
(1)If a regulator proposes to take action against a person under section 192K, it must give the person a warning notice.
(2)A warning notice about a proposal to impose a penalty must state the amount of the penalty.
(3)A warning notice about a proposal to publish a statement must set out the terms of the statement.
(4)If the regulator decides to take action against a person under section 192K, it must give the person a decision notice.
(5)A decision notice about the imposition of a penalty must state the amount of the penalty.
(6)A decision notice about the publication of a statement must set out the terms of the statement.
(7)If the regulator decides to take action against a person under section 192K, the person may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
After a statement under section 192K(3) is published, the regulator must send a copy of the statement to—
(a)the person in respect of whom it is made, and
(b)any person to whom a copy of the decision notice was given under section 393(4).
(1)Each regulator must prepare and issue a statement of policy with respect to—
(a)the imposition of penalties under section 192K, and
(b)the amount of penalties under that section.
(2)A regulator's policy in determining what the amount of a penalty should be must include having regard to—
(a)the seriousness of the contravention,
(b)the extent to which the contravention was deliberate or reckless, and
(c)whether the person on whom the penalty is to be imposed is an individual.
(3)A regulator may at any time alter or replace a statement issued under this section.
(4)If a statement issued under this section is altered or replaced, the regulator must issue the altered or replacement statement.
(5)In exercising, or deciding whether to exercise, a power under section 192K(2) in the case of any particular contravention, a regulator must have regard to any statement of policy published under this section and in force at a time when the contravention occurred.
(6)A statement under this section must be published by the regulator concerned in the way appearing to the regulator to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(7)A regulator may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of the statement published under this section.
(8)A regulator must, without delay, give the Treasury a copy of any statement which it publishes under this section.
(9)Section 192I applies in relation to a statement under this section as it applies in relation to a statement under section 192H.”
Commencement Information
I39S. 27 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I40S. 27 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I41S. 27 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)Section 285 of FSMA 2000 (exemption from general prohibition for recognised investment exchanges and recognised clearing houses) is amended as follows.
(2)In subsection (2), for paragraph (b) substitute—
“(b)which is carried on for the purposes of, or in connection with, the provision by the exchange of services designed to facilitate the provision of clearing services by another person.”
(3)In subsection (3) for the words from “activity which” to the end substitute “activity—
(a)which is carried on for the purposes of, or in connection with, the provision of clearing services by the clearing house, or
(b)which is carried on for the purposes of, or in connection with, the provision by the clearing house of services designed to facilitate the provision of clearing services by another person.”
(4)After that subsection insert—
“(4)The Treasury may by order amend paragraph (b) of subsection (2) or (3).”
Commencement Information
I42S. 28 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)After section 285 of FSMA 2000 insert—
(1)For the purposes of this Part, the FCA is “the appropriate regulator” in relation to recognised investment exchanges.
(2)For the purposes of this Part, the Bank of England is “the appropriate regulator” in relation to recognised clearing houses.
(3)In Schedule 17A—
(a)Part 1 makes provision for a memorandum of understanding between the appropriate regulators and the PRA with respect to the exercise of their functions in relation to recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses;
(b)Part 2 applies certain provisions of this Act in relation to the Bank of England in consequence of the conferring of functions on the Bank under this Part of this Act;
(c)Part 3 makes provision relating to the winding up, administration or insolvency of UK clearing houses; and
(d)Part 4 makes provision about fees.”
(2)After Schedule 17 of FSMA 2000 insert the Schedule 17A set out in Schedule 7 to this Act.
Commencement Information
I43S. 29 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I44S. 29 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I45S. 29 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
In section 286 of FSMA 2000 (qualification for recognition), after subsection (4E) insert—
“(4F)Regulations under subsection (1) may confer power on the appropriate regulator to make rules for the purposes of the regulations or of any specified provision made by the regulations.”
Commencement Information
I46S. 30 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I47S. 30 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
After section 296 of FSMA 2000 insert—
(1)The Bank of England may direct a UK clearing house to take, or refrain from taking, specified action if the Bank is satisfied that it is necessary to give the direction, having regard to the public interest in—
(a)protecting and enhancing the stability of the UK financial system,
(b)maintaining public confidence in the stability of the UK financial system,
(c)maintaining the continuity of the central counterparty clearing services provided by the clearing house, and
(d)maintaining and enhancing the financial resilience of the clearing house.
(2)The direction may, in particular—
(a)specify the time for compliance with the direction,
(b)require the rules of the clearing house to be amended, and
(c)override such rules (whether generally or in their application to a particular case).
(3)The direction may not require the clearing house—
(a)to take any steps for the purpose of securing its compliance with—
(i)the recognition requirements, or
(ii)any obligation of a kind mentioned in section 296(1)(b) or (1A), or
(b)to accept a transfer of property, rights or liabilities of another clearing house.
(4)If the direction is given in reliance on section 298(7) the Bank must, within a reasonable time of giving the direction, give the clearing house a statement of its reasons—
(a)for giving the direction, and
(b)for relying on section 298(7).
(5)The direction is enforceable, on the application of the Bank, by an injunction or, in Scotland, by an order for specific performance under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988.
(6)The Bank may revoke a direction given under this section.”
Commencement Information
I48S. 31 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)Section 298 of FSMA 2000 (directions under section 296 and revocation orders under section 297(2) or (2A): procedure) is amended as follows.
(2)In subsection (1), omit paragraphs (b) and (c) (requirements to bring notice to attention of members of the body and other persons).
(3)In subsection (3), omit paragraphs (b) and (c) (members of the body and other persons may make representations).
(4)For subsection (4) substitute—
“(4)The period for making representations is such period as is specified in the notice (which may, in any particular case, be extended by the appropriate regulator).”
(5)In subsection (6), omit paragraph (b) (notice of decision to members of the body and others) and the “and” before it.
(6)In subsection (7), for “considers it essential” substitute “ reasonably considers it necessary ”.
Commencement Information
I49S. 32 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
After section 312D of FSMA 2000 insert—
(1)If the appropriate regulator considers that a recognised body has contravened a relevant requirement imposed on the body, it may publish a statement to that effect.
(2)Where the FCA is the appropriate regulator, a requirement is a “relevant requirement” for the purposes of this Chapter if it is—
(a)a requirement that is imposed by or under any provision of this Part that relates to a recognised investment exchange,
(b)a requirement that is imposed under any other provision of this Act by the FCA that relates to a recognised investment exchange,
(c)a requirement that is imposed by a qualifying EU provision specified, or of a description specified, for the purposes of this subsection by the Treasury by order, or
(d)a requirement that is imposed by this Act and whose contravention constitutes an offence that the FCA has power to prosecute under this Act (see section 401).
(3)Where the Bank of England is the appropriate regulator, a requirement is a “relevant requirement” for the purposes of this Chapter if it is—
(a)a requirement that is imposed by or under any provision of this Part that relates to a recognised clearing house,
(b)a requirement that is imposed under any other provision of this Act by the Bank,
(c)a requirement that is imposed by a qualifying EU provision specified, or of a description specified, for the purposes of this subsection by the Treasury by order, or
(d)a requirement that is imposed by this Act and whose contravention constitutes an offence that the Bank has power to prosecute under this Act (see section 401, as applied by paragraph 31 of Schedule 17A).
If the appropriate regulator considers that a recognised body has contravened a relevant requirement imposed on the body, it may impose on the body a penalty, in respect of the contravention, of such amount as it considers appropriate.
(1)If the appropriate regulator proposes—
(a)to publish a statement in respect of a recognised body under section 312E, or
(b)to impose a penalty on a recognised body under section 312F,
it must give the body a warning notice.
(2)A warning notice about a proposal to publish a statement must set out the terms of the statement.
(3)A warning notice about a proposal to impose a penalty must state the amount of the penalty.
(1)If the appropriate regulator decides—
(a)to publish a statement in respect of a recognised body under section 312E (whether or not in the terms proposed), or
(b)to impose a penalty on a recognised body under section 312F (whether or not of the amount proposed),
it must give the body a decision notice.
(2)In the case of a statement, the decision notice must set out the terms of the statement.
(3)In the case of a penalty, the decision notice must state the amount of the penalty.
(4)If the appropriate regulator decides—
(a)to publish a statement in respect of a recognised body under section 312E, or
(b)to impose a penalty on a recognised body under section 312F,
the body may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
After an appropriate regulator publishes a statement under section 312E, it must send a copy of the statement to—
(a)the recognised body concerned, and
(b)any person to whom a copy of the decision notice was given under section 393(4).
(1)Each appropriate regulator must prepare and issue a statement of its policy with respect to—
(a)the imposition of penalties under section 312F, and
(b)the amount of penalties under that section.
(2)An appropriate regulator's policy in determining what the amount of a penalty should be must include having regard to—
(a)the seriousness of the contravention in question in relation to the nature of the requirement concerned, and
(b)the extent to which that contravention was deliberate or reckless.
(3)An appropriate regulator may at any time alter or replace a statement issued by it under this section.
(4)If a statement issued by an appropriate regulator under this section is altered or replaced, the regulator must issue the altered or replacement statement.
(5)In exercising, or deciding whether to exercise, its power under section 312F in the case of any particular contravention, an appropriate regulator must have regard to any statement of policy published by it under this section and in force at a time when the contravention in question occurred.
(6)A statement issued by an appropriate regulator under this section must be published by the regulator in the way appearing to the regulator to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(7)An appropriate regulator may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of the statement.
(8)An appropriate regulator must, without delay, give the Treasury a copy of any statement which it publishes under this section.
(1)Before issuing a statement under section 312J, an appropriate regulator must publish a draft of the proposed statement in the way appearing to the regulator to be best calculated to bring it to the attention of the public.
(2)The draft must be accompanied by notice that representations about the proposal may be made to the regulator within a specified time.
(3)Before issuing the proposed statement, the regulator must have regard to any representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2).
(4)If the regulator issues the proposed statement it must publish an account, in general terms, of—
(a)the representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2), and
(b)its response to them.
(5)If the statement differs from the draft published under subsection (1) in a way which is, in the opinion of the regulator, significant, the regulator must (in addition to complying with subsection (4)) publish details of the difference.
(6)An appropriate regulator may charge a reasonable fee for providing a person with a copy of a draft published under subsection (1).
(7)This section also applies to a proposal to alter or replace a statement.”
Commencement Information
I50S. 33 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I51S. 33 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I52S. 33 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
In Part 18 of FSMA 2000 (recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses)—
(a)omit Chapter 2 (competition scrutiny), and
(b)omit Chapter 3 (exclusion from the Competition Act 1998).
Commencement Information
I53S. 34 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
Schedule 8 contains—
(a)minor amendments of FSMA 2000 in connection with provision made by sections 28 to 34, and
(b)other amendments of that Act in consequence of that provision.
Commencement Information
I54S. 35 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I55S. 35 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I56S. 35 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
In every provision of Part 18A of FSMA 2000 (suspension and removal of financial instruments from trading)—
(a)for “Authority”, in each place, substitute “ FCA ”, and
(b)for “Authority's”, in each place, substitute “FCA's”.
Commencement Information
I57S. 36 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)Schedule 9 contains miscellaneous amendments of FSMA 2000 relating to discipline and enforcement.
(2)If the Treasury consider that it is in the public interest to do so, the Treasury may by order—
(a)amend section 391 of FSMA 2000 by substituting for subsections (1) to (1ZB) the following—
“(1)Neither the regulator giving a warning notice nor a person to whom it is given or copied may publish the notice or any details concerning it.”, and
(b)repeal section 395(1)(d) and (2)(b) and (c) of that Act.
Commencement Information
I58S. 37 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I59S. 37 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I60S. 37(1) in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
I61S. 37(2) in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)Schedule 10 contains amendments of Part 15 of FSMA 2000 (the Financial Services Compensation Scheme).
(2)In section 224F(1) of that Act (power to require FSCS manager to act in relation to other schemes: rules about the schemes), for “Authority” substitute “ regulators ”.
Commencement Information
I62S. 38 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I63S. 38 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I64S. 38 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
Schedule 11 contains amendments of FSMA 2000 relating to the financial ombudsman service.
Commencement Information
I65S. 39 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I66S. 39 in force at 19.3.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/651, art. 2(b)
I67S. 39 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)Part 19 of FSMA 2000 (Lloyd's) is amended as follows.
(2)In section 314 (Authority's general duty)—
(a)for subsection (1) substitute—
“(1)So far as it is appropriate to do so for the purpose of advancing one or more of its operational objectives, the FCA must keep itself informed about—
(a)the way in which the Council supervises and regulates the market at Lloyd's, and
(b)the way in which regulated activities are being carried on in that market.
(1A)So far as it is appropriate to do so for the purpose of advancing its general objective or (if section 2C applies) its insurance objective, the PRA must keep itself informed about—
(a)the way in which the Council supervises and regulates the market at Lloyd's, and
(b)the way in which any PRA-regulated activities are being carried on in that market.”,
(b)in subsection (2)—
(i)for “The Authority” substitute “ Each regulator ”, and
(ii)in paragraph (b), for “section 315” substitute “ provision made by or under this Act ”, and
(c)in the heading, for “Authority's” substitute “Regulators'”.
(3)After that section insert—
(1)This section modifies—
(a)the effect of sections 2B and 2C (the PRA's general objective and insurance objective), and
(b)the effect of section 3I (power of PRA to require FCA to refrain from specified action),
in relation to anything done, or proposed to be done, by the PRA under or for the purposes of this Part.
(2)This section applies only if PRA-authorised persons include—
(a)the Society, or
(b)other persons who carry on regulated activities in relation to anything done at Lloyd's.
(3)Section 2B(2) and (3) have effect as if references to PRA-authorised persons (or a PRA-authorised person) were references to the Society, and the members of the Society, taken together (and sections 2G and 2J(3) are to be read accordingly).
(4)Section 2C(1) has effect as if the reference to the discharge of the PRA's general functions so far as relating to the activity mentioned there were a reference to the discharge of its general functions so far as relating to the carrying on by the Society or other persons of PRA-regulated activities in relation to anything done at Lloyd's.
(5)Section 3I(4)(b) has effect as if the reference to a PRA-authorised person were a reference to the Society, and the members of the Society, taken together.”
(4)For section 315 substitute—
(1)This section applies if an activity carried on by the Society is of a kind specified in an order made under section 22 (regulated activities).
(2)The order may provide that the Society is not to be subject to any requirement of this Act concerning the registered office of a body corporate.”
(5)In section 316 (direction by Authority)—
(a)in subsection (1), for “the Authority” substitute “ a regulator ”,
(b)after that subsection insert—
“(1A)A direction under subsection (1)—
(a)may be given by the FCA only if it considers that giving the direction is necessary or expedient for the purpose of advancing one or more of its operational objectives, and
(b)may be given by the PRA only if it considers that giving the direction is necessary or expedient for the purpose of advancing its general objective or (if section 2C applies) the insurance objective.
(1B)A direction under subsection (1) which applies the general prohibition to a member of the Society, or to the members of the Society taken together, may be given by a regulator only with the consent of the other regulator.”,
(c)in subsection (4)—
(i)for “the Authority”, in both places, substitute “ the regulator concerned ”, and
(ii)in paragraph (c), for “section 315” substitute “ provision made by or under this Act ”,
(d)in subsection (9)—
(i)after “subsection (1)” insert “ given by a regulator ”, and
(ii)for “the Authority” substitute “ the regulator ”,
(e)in subsection (10), for “The Authority” substitute “ A regulator who gives a direction under subsection (1) ”,
(f)in subsection (11)—
(i)for “The Authority” substitute “ A regulator who gives a direction under subsection (1) ”, and
(ii)for “any direction which it gives under this section” substitute “ the direction ”, and
(g)in the heading, for “Authority” substitute “ a regulator ”.
(6)In section 317 (the core provisions), in subsection (1), for “X” substitute “ 9A ”.
(7)In section 318 (exercise of powers through Council)—
(a)in subsection (1), for “The Authority” substitute “ A regulator ”,
(b)after subsection (3) insert—
“(3A)A direction under subsection (1)—
(a)may be given by the FCA only if it considers that giving the direction is necessary or expedient for the purpose of advancing one or more of its operational objectives, and
(b)may be given by the PRA only if it considers that giving the direction is necessary or expedient for the purpose of advancing its general objective or (if section 2C applies) the insurance objective.”,
(c)in subsection (4)(b), for “the Authority” substitute “ the regulator concerned ”,
(d)in subsection (6)(a), for “the Authority” substitute “ a regulator ”,
(e)in subsection (7)—
(i)after “subsection (1)” insert “ given by a regulator ”, and
(ii)for “the Authority” substitute “ the regulator ”,
(f)in subsection (8), for “The Authority” substitute “ A regulator who gives a direction under subsection (1) ”, and
(g)in subsection (9)—
(i)for “The Authority” substitute “ A regulator who gives a direction under subsection (1) ”, and
(ii)for “any direction which it gives under this section” substitute “ the direction ”.
(8)In section 319 (consultation)—
(a)for subsection (1) substitute—
“(1)Before a regulator gives a direction under section 316 or 318, it must—
(a)in a case where section 316(1B) requires the regulator to obtain the consent of the other regulator, obtain that consent,
(b)in any other case, consult the other regulator, and
(c)after complying with paragraph (a) or (b), publish a draft of the proposed direction.”,
(b)in subsection (2)(b), for “the Authority” substitute “ the regulator ”,
(c)for subsection (3) substitute—
“(3)Before a regulator gives the proposed direction—
(a)it must have regard to any representations made to it in accordance with subsection (2)(b), and
(b)if it was required by subsection (1)(b) to consult the other regulator and proposes to give a direction which differs from the draft published under subsection (1) in a way which is, in the opinion of the regulator, significant, it must again consult the other regulator.”,
(d)in subsections (4) and (5) (in both places), for “the Authority” substitute “ the regulator ”,
(e)for subsection (6) substitute—
“(6)Subsections (1)(c) and (2) to (5) do not apply in relation to—
(a)a direction given by the FCA if it considers that the delay involved in complying with them would be prejudicial to the interests of consumers, as defined in section 425A, or
(b)a direction given by the PRA if it considers that the delay involved in complying with them would—
(i)be prejudicial to the safety and soundness of the Society, and the members of the Society, taken together, or
(ii)in a case where section 2C applies, be prejudicial to securing the appropriate degree of protection for policyholders.”,
(f)in subsection (7), for “the Authority” substitute “ the regulator concerned ”,
(g)in subsection (8)—
(i)for “The Authority” substitute “ A regulator who publishes a draft under subsection (1) ”, and
(ii)for “a draft published under subsection (1)” substitute “ the draft ”,
(h)in subsection (9), for “the Authority” substitute “ a regulator ”, and
(i)for subsection (10) substitute—
“(10)Cost benefit analysis” means—
(a)an analysis of the costs together with an analysis of the benefits that will arise—
(i)if the proposed direction is given, or
(ii)if subsection (5)(b) applies, from the direction that has been given, and
(b)subject to subsection (10A), an estimate of those costs and of those benefits.
(10A)If, in the opinion of the regulator concerned—
(a)the costs or benefits referred to in subsection (10) cannot reasonably be estimated, or
(b)it is not reasonably practicable to produce an estimate,
the cost benefit analysis need not estimate them, but must include a statement of the opinion of the regulator concerned and an explanation of it.”
(9)In section 320 (former underwriting members)—
(a)in subsection (2), for “Part IV permission” substitute “ Part 4A permission ”,
(b)in subsection (3), for “The Authority” substitute “ The PRA ”, and
(c)at the end insert—
“(5)In the event that the activity of effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance as principal is not to any extent a PRA-regulated activity, the function conferred on the PRA by subsection (3) is exercisable instead by the FCA.
(6)Accordingly, in that case—
(a)references in section 321 to the PRA are to be read as references to the FCA, and
(b)the reference in section 321(13) to the FCA is to be read as a reference to the PRA.”
(10)In section 321 (requirements imposed under section 320)—
(a)in subsection (2), for “the Authority” substitute “ the PRA ”,
(b)in subsection (3)(b), for “the Authority's” substitute “the PRA's”,
(c)in subsections (3)(c), (4) to (9) and (11), for “Authority” substitute “ PRA ”, and
(d)after subsection (12) insert—
“(13)Before giving a notice under any provision of this section, the PRA must consult the FCA.”
(11)In section 322 (rules applicable to former underwriting members)—
(a)in subsection (1), for “The Authority” substitute “ The PRA ”,
(b)in subsection (4), for “Part X (except sections 152 to 154)” substitute “ Part 9A (except sections 137T, 138F, 138G and 138H) ”, and
(c)at the end insert—
“(5)In the event that the activity of effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance as principal is not to any extent a PRA-regulated activity, the function conferred on the PRA by subsection (1) is exercisable instead by the FCA.”
Commencement Information
I68S. 40 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I69S. 40 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
Schedule 12 contains miscellaneous amendments of FSMA 2000, including amendments relating to information gathering, investigations and disclosure.
Commencement Information
I70S. 41 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I71S. 41 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I72S. 41 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
Schedule 13 contains miscellaneous amendments of Part 22 of FSMA 2000 (auditors and actuaries).
Commencement Information
I73S. 42 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I74S. 42 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
After section 234B of FSMA 2000 insert—
(1)A designated consumer body may make a complaint to the FCA that a feature, or combination of features, of a market in the United Kingdom for financial services is, or appears to be, significantly damaging the interests of consumers.
(2)“Designated consumer body” means a body designated by the Treasury by order.
(3)The Treasury—
(a)may designate a body only if it appears to them to represent the interests of consumers of any description, and
(b)must publish in such manner as they think fit (and may from time to time vary) criteria to be applied by them in determining whether to make or revoke a designation.
(4)Sections 425A and 425B (meaning of “consumers”) apply for the purposes of this section, but the references to consumers in this section do not include consumers who are authorised persons.
(5)In this section—
(a)“market in the United Kingdom” has the meaning given in section 140A;
(b)the reference to a feature of a market in the United Kingdom for financial services has a meaning corresponding to that which a reference to a feature of a market in the United Kingdom for goods and services has (by virtue of section 140A(3)) for the purposes of Chapter 4 of Part 9A.
(1)A relevant person may make a reference to the FCA where it appears to that person that either the first set of conditions or the second set of conditions are satisfied.
(2)Each of the following is a “relevant person”—
(a)the scheme operator;
(b)a regulated person.
(3)The first set of conditions is—
(a)that there may have been—
(i)in the case of a reference by the scheme operator, a regular failure by one or more regulated persons to comply with requirements applicable to the carrying on by them of any activity, or
(ii)in the case of a reference by a regulated person, a regular failure by that person to comply with requirements applicable to the carrying on by that person of any activity, and
(b)that as a result consumers have suffered, or may suffer, loss or damage in respect of which, if they brought legal proceedings, a remedy or relief would be available in the proceedings.
(4)The reference to the failure by a regulated person (“R”) to comply with a requirement applicable to the carrying on by R of any activity includes anything done, or omitted to be done, by R in carrying on the activity—
(a)which is a breach of a duty or other obligation, prohibition or restriction, or
(b)which otherwise gives rise to the availability of remedy or relief in legal proceedings.
(5)It does not matter whether—
(a)the duty or other obligation, prohibition or restriction, or
(b)the remedy or relief,
arises as a result of any provision made by or under this or any other Act, a rule of law or otherwise.
(6)The second set of conditions is—
(a)in the case of a reference by the scheme operator, that one or more regulated persons have, on a regular basis, acted or failed to act, in such a way that, if a complaint were made under the ombudsman scheme in relation to that conduct, the ombudsman would be likely to determine the complaint in favour of the complainant,
(b)in the case of a reference by a regulated person, that the regulated person has, on a regular basis, acted or failed to act in such a way that, if a complaint were made under the ombudsman scheme in relation to that conduct, the ombudsman would be likely to determine the complaint in favour of the complainant, and
(c)in either case, that—
(i)if the complaint would fall within the compulsory jurisdiction or the consumer credit jurisdiction, the ombudsman would be likely to make an award under section 229(2)(a) or give a direction under section 229(2)(b), or
(ii)if voluntary jurisdiction rules made for the purposes of section 227 provide for the making of an award against a respondent or the giving of a direction that a respondent take certain steps in relation to a complainant, and the complaint would fall within the voluntary jurisdiction, the ombudsman would be likely to make such an award or give such a direction.
(7)“Consumers” has the meaning given in section 1G.
(8)“Regulated person” means—
(a)an authorised person;
(b)an electronic money issuer, as defined in section 1H(8);
(c)a payment service provider, as defined in section 1H(8).
(1)The FCA must within 90 days after the day on which it receives a complaint under section 234C or a reference under section 234D publish a response stating how it proposes to deal with the complaint or reference, and in particular—
(a)whether it has decided to take any action, or to take no action, and
(b)if it has decided to take action, what action it proposes to take.
(2)The response must—
(a)include a copy of the complaint or reference, and
(b)state the FCA's reasons for its proposals.
(3)The Treasury may by order amend subsection (1) by substituting any period for the period for the time being specified there.
(1)This section applies where the FCA has received a reference under section 234D from a person who is a relevant person as a result of subsection (2)(b) of that section.
(2)The duty to respond in section 234E does not apply if the FCA considers that the reference is frivolous, vexatious or has been made in bad faith.
(3)The FCA must within 90 days after the day on which it receives the reference inform the person who made it—
(a)that the duty to respond under section 234E does not apply by virtue of this section, and
(b)of its reasons for reaching the conclusion in paragraph (a).
(4)The Treasury may by order amend subsection (3) by substituting any period for the period for the time being specified there.
(1)The guidance given by the FCA under section 139A—
(a)must include guidance about the presentation of a reasoned case for a complaint under section 234C or a reference under section 234D, and
(b)may include guidance about such other matters as appears to the FCA to be appropriate for the purposes of section 234C or 234D.
(2)Guidance given under this section is to be taken to be general guidance as defined in section 139B(5).
(1)The FCA may ask the Office of Fair Trading (“the OFT”) to consider whether a feature, or combination of features, of a market in the United Kingdom for financial services may prevent, restrict or distort competition in connection with the supply or acquisition of any financial services in the United Kingdom or a part of the United Kingdom.
(2)The OFT must, within 90 days after the day on which it receives the request, publish a response stating how it proposes to deal with the request and in particular—
(a)whether it has decided to take any action, or to take no action, in response to the request, and
(b)if it has decided to take action, what action it proposes to take.
(3)The response must state the OFT's reasons for its proposals.
(4)The Treasury may by order amend subsection (2) by substituting any period for the period for the time being specified there.
(5)In this section—
(a)“market in the United Kingdom” has the meaning given in section 140A(1);
(b)the reference to a feature of a market in the United Kingdom for financial services has a meaning corresponding to that which a reference to a feature of a market in the United Kingdom for goods and services has (by virtue of section 140A(3)) for the purposes of Chapter 4 of Part 9A.”
Commencement Information
I75S. 43 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I76S. 43 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(b), Sch. Pt. 2
I77S. 43 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
Schedule 14 contains amendments of Part 24 of FSMA 2000 (insolvency).
Commencement Information
I78S. 44 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
Schedule 15 contains amendments of FSMA 2000 relating to the consumer financial education body.
Commencement Information
I79S. 45 in force at 24.1.2013 for specified purposes by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(c), Sch. Pt. 3
I80S. 45 in force at 1.4.2013 in so far as not already in force by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
Schedule 16 contains miscellaneous amendments of FSMA 2000 relating to financial services provided by members of the professions.
Commencement Information
I81S. 46 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
In section 410 of FSMA 2000 (international obligations), in subsection (4), for paragraph (a) substitute—
“(a)the FCA;
(aa)the PRA;
(ab)the Bank of England when exercising functions conferred on it by Part 18;”.
Commencement Information
I82S. 47 in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
(1)In section 417 of FSMA 2000 (definitions), in subsection (1)—
(a)omit the definition of “the Authority”,
(b)in the definition of “control of information rules” for “section 147(1)” substitute “ section 137P ”,
(c)after that definition insert—
““credit-related regulated activity” has the meaning given in section 23(1B);”,
(d)after the definition of “exempt person” insert—
““the FCA” means the Financial Conduct Authority;”,
(e)in the definition of “financial promotion rules” for “section 145” substitute “ section 137R ”,
(f)for the definition of “general rules” substitute—
““general rules”—
(a)in relation to the FCA, has the meaning given in section 137A(2), and
(b)in relation to the PRA, has the meaning given in section 137G(2);”,
(g)omit the definition of “money laundering rules”,
(h)omit the definition of “notice of control”,
(i)for the definition of “Part IV permission” substitute—
““Part 4A permission” has the meaning given in section 55A(5);”,
(j)after the definition of “partnership” insert—
““the PRA” means the Prudential Regulation Authority;
“PRA-authorised person” has the meaning given in section 2B(5);
“PRA-regulated activity” has the meaning given in section 22A;”,
(k)in the definition of “price stabilising rules” for “section 144” substitute “ section 137Q ”,
(l)after that definition insert—
““principal” in relation to an appointed representative, is to be read in accordance with section 39;”,
(m)in the definition of “regulating provisions” for “section “159(1)” substitute “ section 140A ”,
(n)after that definition insert—
““regulator” has the meaning given in section 3A(2);”,
(o)omit the definitions of “regulatory objectives” and “regulatory provisions”,
(p)for the definition of “rule” substitute—
““rule” means a rule made by the FCA or the PRA under this Act;”,
(q)in the definition of “rule-making instrument” for “section 153” substitute “ section 138G ”,
(r)for the definition of “threshold conditions” substitute—
““threshold conditions”, in relation to a regulated activity, has the meaning given in section 55B(1);”,
(s)in the definition of “UK authorised person” for “section 178(4)” substitute “ section 191G(1) ”, and
(t)in the definition of “the UK financial system” for “section 3” substitute “ section 1I ”.
(2)After section 421 of FSMA 2000 insert—
In this Act “immediate group”, in relation to a person (“A”), means—
(a)A;
(b)a parent undertaking of A;
(c)a subsidiary undertaking of A;
(d)a subsidiary undertaking of a parent undertaking of A;
(e)a parent undertaking of a subsidiary undertaking of A.”
(3)After section 425B of FSMA 2000 insert—
(1)In this Act “qualifying EU provision” means a provision of—
(a)a directly applicable EU regulation, or
(b)an EU decision for whose enforcement the United Kingdom is required by an EU obligation to make provision.
(2)In subsection (1)(b) “EU decision” means a decision under an EU directive or EU regulation.”
Commencement Information
I83S. 48(1)(a)-(c) (e)(i) s. 48(1)(k)-(m) s. 48(1)(o)-(t) in force at 1.4.2013 by S.I. 2013/423, art. 3, Sch.
I84S. 48(1)(d)(j)(n)(2)(3) in force at 24.1.2013 by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(a), Sch. Pt. 1
(1)Section 429 of FSMA 2000 (Parliamentary control of statutory instruments) is amended as follows.
(2)In subsection (1) (orders subject to the affirmative resolution procedure)—
(a)in paragraph (a)—
(i)after “section” insert “ 1J, 3B(4), 3F(6), 55C, ”,
(ii)after “or (e),” insert “ 138K(6)(c), 192B(6), 204A(7), 213(1A), ”, and
(iii)after “236(5),” insert “ 285(4), 380(12), 382(15), 384(13), ”, and
(b)omit paragraph (b).
(3)In subsection (8)—
(a)after “under section” insert “ 3G(1), 137D(1)(b), ”,
(b)after “165A(2)(d)” insert “ , 192A(4) ”, and
(c)after “which” insert “ section 22B or 23A or ”.
Commencement Information
I85S. 49 in force at 24.1.2013 by S.I. 2013/113, art. 2(1)(a), Sch. Pt. 1
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