SCHEDULE 1MEANING OF “LICENSING AUTHORITY”

Regulation 2(1)

1

Subject to paragraphs 2 to 5, “licensing authority” means—

a

in relation to an application for a licence for the storage within one site of no more than 2000 kilograms of explosives to which paragraph (a)(i) or (b) of the definition of “explosive” in regulation 2(1) applies—

i

the chief officer of police for the area in which the storage is to take place where—

aa

any of the explosives are relevant explosives;

bb

any of the explosives are ammunition the acquisition of which is regulated or prohibited by virtue of the Firearms Acts 1968 to 1997 M1;

cc

any of the explosives are smokeless powder or percussion caps; or

dd

the explosives are to be stored by a person who is registered as a firearms dealer under section 33 of the Firearms Act 1968 M2;

ii

the local authority for the area in which the storage is to take place where none of the explosives are of a type to which sub-paragraph (a)(i) applies;

F2b

the Executive where the explosives are to be stored—

i

on the surface at a mine, whether in a building or not;

ii

below ground at a mine; or

iii

within a harbour;

c

where the application for a licence relates to the manufacture or storage of ammonium nitrate blasting intermediate, the Executive;

d

in relation to an application for a licence in any other case, the Executive.

2

In any case falling within paragraph 1(a) and subject to paragraph 5, the applicant may apply instead to the Executive for a licence, in which case the Executive is to be the licensing authority in place of the chief officer of police or local authority.

3

Where a person wishes to manufacture and store explosives at the same site, and requires a licence for that manufacture and for that storage, the Executive is to be the licensing authority in respect of any application for a licence relating to that site and the reference to “an application” in paragraph 1(d) includes any such application.

4

The ONR is the licensing authority in relation to any application for a licence for the manufacture or storage of explosives on an ONR regulated site.

5

The applicant may only apply to the Executive pursuant to paragraph 2, where—

a

the applicant has notified the Executive that the separation distances which would be required by regulation 27 and Schedule 5 could not be complied with; or

b

the application does not relate to the storage of pyrotechnic articles at any site where those articles are to be offered for sale and the applicant has already been granted a licence by the Executive under paragraph 1 which relates to another site.

SCHEDULE 2EXPLOSIVES NOT REQUIRING AN EXPLOSIVES CERTIFICATE

Regulation 5(3)(a)

PART 1LIST OF EXPLOSIVES

Explosives

U.N. no

2-AMINO-4, 6-DINITROPHENOL, WETTED with not less than 20% water by mass

3317

CARTRIDGES, OIL WELL

0277

CARTRIDGES, OIL WELL

0278

CARTRIDGES FOR TOOLS, BLANK

0014

CASES, COMBUSTIBLE, EMPTY, WITHOUT PRIMER

0446

CASES, COMBUSTIBLE, EMPTY, WITHOUT PRIMER

0447

CORD, IGNITER

0066

CUTTERS, CABLE, EXPLOSIVE

0070

FUSE, NON-DETONATING

0101

FUSE, SAFETY

0105

1-HYDROXYBENZOTRIAZOLE, ANHYDROUS

0508

1-HYDROXYBENZOTRIAZOLE, MONOHYDRATE

3474

LIGHTERS, FUSE

0131

5-MERCAPTOTETRAZOL-1-ACETIC ACID

0448

NITROCELLULOSE SOLUTION, FLAMMABLE with not more than 12.6% nitrogen, by dry mass, and not more than 55% nitrocellulose

2059

NITROCELLULOSE WITH WATER (not less than 25% water, by mass)

2555

NITROCELLULOSE WITH ALCOHOL (not less than 25% alcohol, by mass, and not more than 12.6% nitrogen, by dry mass)

2556

NITROCELLULOSE with not more than 12.6% nitrogen, by dry mass, MIXTURE WITH or WITHOUT PLASTICIZER, WITH OR WITHOUT PIGMENT

2557

4-NITROPHENYLHYDRAZINE, with not less than 30% water, by mass

3376

PRIMERS, CAP TYPE

0044

PRIMERS, CAP TYPE

0378

SODIUM PICRAMATE, dry or wetted with less than 20% water by

mass

0235

SODIUM PICRAMATE, WETTED with not less than 20% water, by mass

1349

TETRAZOL-1-ACETIC ACID

0407

PART 2FURTHER LIST OF EXPLOSIVES

1

Ammunition intended for use in small arms.

2

Ammunition consisting of a propelling charge and an inert projectile intended for use in the industrial tools commonly known as kiln-guns

3

Blank ammunition intended for use in small arms.

4

Cartridges, which are empty but with a primer which—

a

are assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the U.N. no 0055 or 0378;

b

are intended for use in small arms; and

c

would, if packaged for transport, be assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the U.N. no 0055 or 0378.

5

Cartridges power device which—

a

is assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the U.N. no 0275, 0276, 0323 or 0381;

b

is designed to produce mechanical actions such as inflation, linear or rotary motion, projection of fastening devices or extinguishing agents; and

c

consists of a casing with a charge of deflagrating explosive and a means of ignition.

6

A desensitised explosive which is—

a

a medicinal product as defined in regulation 2 of the Human Medicines Regulations 2012 M3; or

b

a veterinary medicinal product as defined in regulation 2 of the Veterinary Medicines Regulations 2013 M4.

7

A desensitised explosive which is a substance specified in an order made under section 104 or 105 of the Medicines Act 1968 M5 which is for the time being in force and which directs that specified provisions of the Human Medicines Regulations 2012 or the Medicines for Human Use (Clinical Trials) Regulations 2004 M6 are to have effect in relation to that substance as such provisions have effect in relation to medicinal products as defined in regulation 2 of the Human Medicines Regulations 2012.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M5

1968 c. 67; sections 104 and 105 were amended by S.I. 2004/1031, 2006/2407 and 2012/1916.

M6

S.I. 2004/1031, to which there are amendments not relevant to these Regulations.

8

Any desensitised explosive acquired, in a quantity not exceeding 5 grams, for the purposes of—

a

research, analysis or testing at a University;

b

research, analysis or testing by or on behalf of the Crown; or

c

the application of forensic science by or on behalf of a police force or the Crown.

9

Any desensitised explosive acquired, in a quantity not exceeding 1 gram, for the purposes of calibration or testing of explosives detection equipment at a port, airport or any other publicly accessible place.

10

Explosive articles which—

a

are assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the U.N. no 0186, 0272, 0349, 0351 or 0471;

b

are intended to be used for the propulsion of model rockets or similar articles; and

c

in respect of each individual explosive article, contain no more than 1 kilogram of explosive.

11

The explosive substance Isosorbide Dinitrate which has been desensitised by mixture with not less than 60% lactose, mannose starch or calcium hydrogen phosphate and which is—

a

assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the U.N. no 2907; and

b

intended for use as an active pharmaceutical ingredient.

12

The explosive substance Nitrogen Triiodide with the chemical formulation NI3, in a quantity not exceeding 0.5 grams which has been manufactured for, and is used for, demonstration purposes as part of an educational activity within the meaning of section 1(3) of the Further Education Act 1985 M7 and either it is wholly used up in the demonstration or any amount remaining is destroyed immediately after it.

13

A solution of the explosive substance Nitroglycerine in alcohol which is—

a

assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the U.N. no 1204 or 3064; and

b

intended for use as an active pharmaceutical ingredient.

14

Any pyrotechnic substance, in a quantity not exceeding 0.5 grams, which has been manufactured for, and is used for, demonstration purposes as part of an educational activity within the meaning of section 1(3) of the Further Education Act 1985 and either it is wholly used up in the demonstration or any amount remaining is destroyed immediately after it.

15

The explosive substance smokeless powder which is—

a

assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the U.N. no 0161 or 0509 or which has been recovered from ammunition or blank ammunition intended for use in firearms; and

b

acquired by a person who either is registered as a firearms dealer under section 33 of the Firearms Act 1968 M8 or holds —

i

a permit granted under section 7 of that Act M9;

ii

a firearms certificate granted under section 27 of that Act M10;

iii

a shotgun certificate granted under section 28 of that Act M11; or

iv

a permit granted under section 17 of the Firearms (Amendment) Act 1988 M12.

16

A solution of the explosive substance 2,4, 6- Trinitrophenol in a concentration no greater than 2% weight per volume intended for use as an analytical reagent, stain, dye or fixative.

SCHEDULE 3PYROTECHNIC ARTICLES REQUIRING AN EXPLOSIVES CERTIFICATE

Regulation 5(3)(b)

1

Pyrotechnic articles which are or would, if packaged for transport, be assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the UN no. 0350, 0352, 0353, 0354, 0355, 0356, 0462, 0463, 0464, 0465, 0466, 0467, 0468, 0469, 0470 or 0472.

2

Pyrotechnic articles which—

a

are or would, if packaged for transport, be assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the UN no. 0349, 0351 or 0471; and

b

are not intended to be used for the propulsion of model rockets or similar articles.

3

Pyrotechnic articles which—

a

are or would, if packaged for transport, be assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the UN no. 0033, 0034, 0035, 0037, 0038, 0039, 0171, 0254, 0291, 0297, 0299, 0399 or 0400; and

b

are intended to be dropped as bombs from an aircraft.

4

Pyrotechnic articles which—

a

are or would, if packaged for transport, be assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the UN no. 0451, 0329, 0330, 0450 or 0449; and

b

are intended to be dropped as torpedoes from an aircraft or dispatched from an installation on land or a vessel.

5

Tracers for ammunition which are or would, if packaged for transport, be assigned in accordance with the United Nations Recommendations the UN no. 0212 or 0306.

SCHEDULE 4REGISTERS

Regulation 15

1

The licensing authority must maintain a register (“the register”) containing the information listed in paragraph 2 which relates to licences granted by it.

2

The following information must be included in the register—

a

the name of the licensee;

b

the licensee's permanent address, unless the licensee's home address is the licensee's only permanent address;

c

the address of the site where the explosives are manufactured or stored (where that differs from any address included pursuant to sub-paragraph (b));

d

the hazard type if any, the description and maximum amount of explosive which may be stored or otherwise present at any one time in any place which is specified in the licence;

e

the nature of the business of the licensee and the intended use of the explosives;

f

the kind of explosives manufactured or stored;

g

where separation distances are required by regulation 27 or by a condition of the licence to be maintained around the store or the building where explosives are manufactured, a plan in a suitable scale sufficient to show those separation distances;

h

a map in a suitable scale sufficient to show the location of any stores; and

i

the kind of store concerned, including the material out of which it is constructed.

3

Subject to paragraphs 7 and 8, where the licence only relates to explosives which are not relevant explosives, the licensing authority must—

a

ensure that the information referred to in paragraph 2(a) to (d) in respect of that licence is available for inspection at an office of the licensing authority, at all reasonable times and free of charge, by members of the public; and

b

provide a copy of the entry in the register relating to the information referred to in paragraph 2(a) to (d) in respect of that licence to a member of the public who requests a copy and pays a charge which must not exceed the reasonable cost of providing the copy.

4

Subject to paragraphs 7 and 8, where the licence relates to explosives which are relevant explosives, whether or not it also relates to other explosives, the licensing authority must —

a

ensure that the information referred to in paragraph 2(a) to (d) in respect of that licence is available for inspection at an office of the licensing authority, at all reasonable times and free of charge, by a person who resides or, in the case of an undertaking, is situated within a public consultation zone concerned in relation to the licence; and

b

provide a copy of the entry in the register relating to the information referred to in paragraph 2(a) to (d) in respect of that licence to such a person as is referred to in sub-paragraph (a) who requests a copy and pays a charge which must not exceed the reasonable cost of providing the copy.

5

The register may be kept in any form, including electronically.

6

The licensee in relation to any site in which explosives are manufactured or stored, must, where requested in writing to do so by the owner or, if not the same person, the occupier, of any premises falling within any separation distance applying in relation to that site, provide to the requesting person within 28 days of the request a scale plan of the area of land falling within that separation distance.

7

The requirements of paragraphs 3 and 4 do not apply where the information referred to in paragraph 2 is in respect of any site to which a licence relates which is used only for the storage of—

a

less than 500 kilograms of hazard type 1 explosive or hazard type 2 explosive;

b

less than 2 tonnes of hazard type 3 explosive or hazard type 4 explosive; or

c

any explosives for a period of less than four weeks.

8

The requirements of paragraphs 3 and 4 do not apply where the information referred to in paragraph 2 is in respect of a licensed site in relation to which regulation 13 did not apply to the licence application for that site by virtue of regulation 13(4)(e), (f) or (g).

9

Where the licensing authority is a local authority or the ONR, that licensing authority must notify the Executive in writing, within 28 days of receipt of a written request by the Executive to do so, as to such information as is contained in the register it maintains relating to the information referred to in paragraph 2 as the Executive may require.

10

Nothing in this Schedule prevents a licensing authority from disclosing any of the information included in the register it maintains to—

a

a fire and rescue service;

b

a joint planning board;

c

a local planning authority; or

d

a police force;

for the purposes of the exercise of their respective functions.

11

For the purposes of paragraph 10, “local planning authority” and “joint planning board” have the meanings they are given in, respectively, sections 1 and 2 of the Town and Country Planning Act 1990 M13.

SCHEDULE 5SEPARATION DISTANCES

Regulation 27

1

1

In this Schedule—

  • brick-built” means having an outer structure which is wholly or mainly of brick, concrete, stone or other similar material;

  • bridleway” has the meaning given in the Highways Act 1980 M14;

  • curtain walling” means the glass, masonry or other cladding which is suspended from the structural framework of a building;

  • dangerous goods” means dangerous goods to which the Carriage of Dangerous Goods and Use of Transportable Pressure Equipment Regulations 2009 M15 apply;

  • “distance”, save in the definition of “reference zone”, means the minimum distance;

  • footpath” has the meaning given in the Highways Act 1980;

  • footway” has the meaning given in the Highways Act 1980;

  • lightly-used road” means a road used ordinarily by more than 20 and no more than 500 vehicles every 24 hours;

  • major road” means a road used ordinarily by more than 10,000 vehicles every 24 hours;

  • metal-built” means built wholly or mainly of steel or other metal;

  • minor road” means a road used ordinarily by more than 500 vehicles every 24 hours, other than a major road;

  • mounded” means surrounded by suitable mounds;

  • place of public resort” means a place where more than 100 persons are present, or are likely to be present, at any one time on a weekly or more frequent basis;

  • processing” means the packing, unpacking, re-packing, labelling or testing of explosives or the division of an amount of explosives stored in bulk into smaller amounts and the placing of those smaller amounts into containers;

  • protected place of Class A” means a—

    1. a

      bridleway;

    2. b

      footpath;

    3. c

      footway;

    4. d

      lightly used road; or

    5. e

      waterway;

  • protected place of Class B” means a—

    1. a

      dock;

    2. b

      jetty;

    3. c

      minor road;

    4. d

      pier;

    5. e

      railway line;

    6. f

      reservoir;

    7. g

      river wall;

    8. h

      runway for the use of aircraft; or

    9. i

      sea wall;

  • protected place of Class C” means a —

    1. a

      major road; or

    2. b

      place of public resort;

  • protected place of Class D” means—

    1. a

      a building, whether a dwelling or not, but not including a vulnerable building;

    2. b

      a place, other than a building to which paragraph (a) applies, that is used for the storage in bulk of dangerous goods other than goods which are explosives; or

    3. c

      a place, not within the site where the explosives are stored and other than a building to which paragraph (a) applies, that is used for—

      1. i

        the storage of explosives; or

      2. ii

        the manufacture or processing of explosives;

  • protected place of Class E” means a vulnerable building;

  • protected place of Class F” means a building within the site where the explosives are stored, other than—

    1. a

      a building that is occupied by a person other than the licensee;

    2. b

      a building that is a vulnerable building;

    3. c

      a building that is normally occupied by more than 20 people; or

    4. d

      a building that is used for the storage in bulk of dangerous goods other than goods which are explosives;

  • protected place of Class G” means a building or other place within the site where the explosives are stored that is used for the storage of explosives;

  • protected place of Class H” means a building or other place within the site where the explosives are stored that is used for the manufacture or processing of explosives;

  • reference zone” means the area around a store having the radius from the centre point of the store specified in column 2 of the relevant Supplementary Table;

  • road” means any thoroughfare on which the movement of vehicles is allowed; and

  • vulnerable building” means a building or structure of vulnerable construction, that is to say—

    1. a

      a building of more than three storeys above ground or 12m in height constructed with continuous non-load bearing curtain walling with individual glazed or frangible panels larger than 1.5 m2 and extending over more than 50% or 120 m2 of the surface of any elevation;

    2. b

      a building of more than three storeys above ground or 12 m in height with solid walls and individual glass panes or frangible panels larger than 1.5 m2 and extending over at least 50% of any elevation;

    3. c

      a building of more than 400 m2 plan area with continuous or individual glazing panes larger than 1.5 m2 extending over at least 50% or 120 m2 of the plan area; or

    4. d

      any other structure that, in consequence of an event such as an explosion, may be susceptible to disproportionate damage such as progressive collapse.

2

Any reference in this Schedule to a thoroughfare (however described), jetty, pier, waterway or railway line does not include any part of a thoroughfare, jetty, pier, waterway or railway line within the site—

a

in which the store is situated; and

b

which are occupied by the person storing the explosives.

3

Subject to paragraph 8, any reference in this Schedule to “store” is to the store mentioned in regulation 27(1) in relation to which separation distances are required by that provision to be maintained.

4

Any reference in this Schedule to a quantity of explosives shown in column 1 of a Table is to—

a

a quantity in a store; or

b

in cases where sub-paragraph (b) of paragraph 7 is being relied on, the sum total of the quantity of explosives in a store and the protected place of Class G to which sub-paragraph (b) of paragraph 7 applies,

which is more than the lower figure but not more than the higher figure in column 1 in the same row of the Table.

5

Any reference in this Schedule to a building is to a building in or at which people are, or are likely to be, present either all the time or from time to time.

6

For the purposes of this Schedule, where explosives of different hazard types are in one store, the explosives must be treated as belonging to the hazard type which would require the greatest separation distance for the total quantity of those explosives and the separation distance must be determined in relation to that total quantity.

7

For the purposes of this Schedule, the radius for a reference zone applying in a particular case is the number in the entry in column 2 of the relevant Supplementary Table corresponding to the quantity of explosives shown in column 1 of the Supplementary Table.

8

For the purposes of this Schedule, any reference to “bridleway”, “footpath”, “footway” or “waterway” does not include, respectively, a bridleway, footpath, footway used, or waterway navigated, by no more than, ordinarily, 20 persons in any 24 hour period.

9

For the purposes of this Schedule, an area of low population density is an area where the maximum number of dwellings in a reference zone is equal to or less than the number specified in the entry in column 3 of the relevant Supplementary Table.

10

Save as stated in paragraph (c) of the definition of “protected place of Class D” and subject to sub-paragraph (2), the references to the places referred to in the definitions from “protected place of Class A” to the definition of “protected place of Class E” are references to such places whether within a site or outside it.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M14

1980 c. 66; “bridleway”, “footpath” and “footway” are defined in section 139.

M15

S.I. 2009/1348, to which there are amendments not relevant to these Regulations.

2

Where the storage is—

a

of hazard type 1 explosive in a brick-built mounded store, Table 1;

b

of hazard type 1 explosive in a brick-built unmounded store, Table 2;

c

of hazard type 1 explosive in a metal-built mounded store, Table 3;

d

of hazard type 1 explosive in a metal-built unmounded store with no detonator annex attached, Table 4;

e

of hazard type 1 explosive in a metal-built unmounded store with a detonator annex attached, Table 5;

f

of hazard type 2 explosive, some or all items being of more than 0.7 kg net mass in a mounded store, Table 6;

g

of hazard type 2 explosive, some or all items being of more than 0.7 kg net mass in an unmounded store, Table 7;

h

of hazard type 2 explosive, every item being of 0.7 kg net mass or less in a mounded store, Table 8;

i

of hazard type 2 explosive every item being of 0.7 kg net mass or less in an unmounded store, Table 9

j

of hazard type 3 explosive, Table 10;

k

of hazard type 4 explosive, Table 11,

applies, and any reference in this Schedule to a relevant Table is a reference to the Table which applies by virtue of this paragraph.

3

For each of Table 1, 3, 4 or 5 where that Table applies, a Supplementary Table for determining the separation distance between a store and a dwelling in an area of low population density applies as follows—

a

for Table 1, Supplementary Table 1A;

b

for Table 3, Supplementary Table 3A;

c

for Table 4, Supplementary Table 4A; and

d

for Table 5, Supplementary Table 5A,

and any reference in this Schedule to a relevant Supplementary Table is a reference to the Supplementary Table which applies by virtue of this paragraph.

4

1

Paragraph 5 is subject to paragraph 6.

2

Paragraphs 5 and 6 are subject to sub-paragraph (b) of paragraph 7 for determining the quantity of explosives to be applied —

a

for determining the relevant separation distance for the purposes of paragraphs 5 and 6, and

b

for paragraph 1(7) in relation to the radius for a reference zone,

in cases where sub-paragraph (b) of paragraph 7 is being relied on.

5

The distance between a store and any protected place of Class A, B, C, D, E, F or H is the distance specified in the entry in the column for that Class of the relevant Table corresponding to the quantity of explosives shown in column 1 of the Table.

6

Where—

a

Table 1, 3, 4 or 5 applies; and

b

the number of dwellings in the reference zone is equal to or less than the number specified in the entry in column 3 of the relevant Supplementary Table corresponding to the quantity of explosives shown in column 1 of the Supplementary Table,

the distance between a store and any dwelling is the distance (if any) specified in the corresponding entry in column 4 of the Supplementary Table.

7

The distance between a store and any protected place of Class G is either—

a

the distance specified in the entry in the column for that Class of the relevant Table corresponding to the quantity of explosives shown in column 1 of the Table; or

b

any lesser distance, provided that the quantity of explosives for determining the relevant separation distance for the purposes of paragraphs 5 and 6, and for paragraph 1(7) in relation to the radius for a reference zone, is the sum total of the quantity of explosives in the store and the protected place of Class G for which there is to be any lesser distance.

8

For cases where sub-paragraph (b) of paragraph 7 is being relied on, paragraph 1(6) has effect as if the reference to “one store” were a reference to the store and the protected place of Class G to which sub-paragraph (b) of paragraph 7 applies.

Table 1: Hazard Type 1 explosive in a brick-built mounded store

1Quantity ofexplosives(kg)

2Class Adistance(m)

3Class Bdistance(m)

4Class Cdistance(m)

5Class Ddistance(m)

6Class Edistance(m)

7Class F distance(m)

8Class Gdistance(m)

9Class H distance(m)

0.1-25

33

50

100

100

100

50

9

18

25-30

33

50

100

100

100

50

9

18

30-40

34

51

103

103

103

51

9

18

40-50

35

53

106

106

106

53

9

18

50-60

37

55

110

110

110

55

10

22

60-70

37

56

111

114

114

57

10

22

70-80

38

57

113

118

118

59

11

22

80-90

38

58

115

121

121

61

11

22

90-100

39

59

118

125

125

63

11

22

100-150

43

64

128

142

142

71

13

27

150-200

46

70

139

156

156

78

14

27

200-250

50

75

150

169

169

85

16

30

250-300

54

80

161

170

170

85

16

30

300-350

57

86

172

172

172

86

18

33

350-400

61

91

183

183

183

92

18

33

400-450

64

97

193

193

193

97

19

36

450-500

68

102

204

204

204

102

19

36

500-550

68

102

204

204

204

102

24

56

550-600

68

102

204

204

216

102

24

56

600-650

68

102

204

227

227

113

24

56

650-700

68

102

204

231

238

116

24

56

700-750

68

102

204

235

249

118

24

56

750-800

68

102

204

238

260

119

24

56

800-850

68

102

204

242

270

121

24

56

850-900

68

102

204

245

280

123

24

56

900-950

68

102

204

248

290

124

24

56

950-1000

68

102

204

250

300

125

24

56

1000-1100

68

102

204

255

319

128

30

85

1100-1200

68

102

204

259

337

130

30

85

1200-1300

68

102

204

263

354

132

30

85

1300-1400

68

102

204

266

370

133

30

85

1400-1500

68

102

204

269

386

135

30

85

1500-1600

68

102

204

272

402

136

30

85

1600-1700

69

104

208

274

416

137

30

85

1700-1800

72

108

215

277

431

139

30

85

1800-1900

74

111

222

279

444

140

30

85

1900-2000

76

114

229

281

458

141

30

85

2000-3000

95

143

285

285

570

143

35

106

3000-4000

109

164

328

328

656

164

38

122

4000-5000

121

181

362

362

724

181

41

134

5000- 10000

158

237

475

475

950

237

52

176

10000-15000

183

274

548

548

1097

274

59

204

15000-20000

202

303

606

606

1211

303

65

225

20000-25000

218

327

653

653

1306

327

70

243

25000-30000

232

347

695

695

1389

347

75

258

30000-40000

255

383

765

765

1531

384

82

275

40000-50000

275

412

825

825

1649

412

88

295

50000-60000

292

438

877

877

1753

438

94

315

60000-70000

308

461

923

923

1846

461

99

345

70000-80000

322

482

965

965

1930

482

103

345

80000-90000

335

502

1004

1004

2007

502

108

375

90000-100000

347

520

1040

1040

2079

520

111

375

Supplementary Table 1A: Hazard Type 1 explosive in a brick-built mounded store – distances for areas of low population density

1Quantity of explosives (kg)

2Reference zone radius (m)

3Maximum number of dwellings in the reference zone

4Distances to dwellings if the maximum number of dwellings in the reference zone is not exceeded(m)

0.1-60

-

-

-

60-70

222

61

111

70-80

227

63

113

80-90

231

66

115

90-100

235

68

118

100-150

257

81

128

150-200

279

96

139

200-250

300

128

150

250-600

-

-

-

600-1600

408

206

204

1600-1700

416

214

208

1700-1800

431

229

215

1800-1900

444

244

222

1900-2000

458

259

229

Table 2: Hazard Type 1 explosives in a brick-built unmounded store

1Quantity of explosives(kg)

2Class Adistance(m)

3Class Bdistance(m)

4Class Cdistance(m)

5Class Ddistance(m)

6Class Edistance(m)

7Class Fdistance(m)

8Class Gdistance(m)

9Class Hdistance(m)

0.1-25

47

70

141

141

141

70

141

141

25-30

48

72

144

144

144

72

144

144

30-40

50

76

151

151

151

76

151

151

40-50

53

80

159

159

159

80

159

159

50-60

56

84

168

168

168

84

168

168

60-70

59

88

176

176

176

88

176

176

70-80

61

92

184

184

184

92

184

184

80-90

64

96

191

191

191

96

191

191

90-100

66

99

199

199

199

99

199

199

100-150

77

115

230

230

230

115

230

230

150-200

85

128

256

256

256

128

256

256

200-250

92

138

276

276

276

138

276

276

250-300

98

147

293

293

293

147

293

293

300-350

103

154

308

308

308

154

308

308

350-400

107

160

320

320

320

160

320

320

400-450

110

165

331

331

331

165

331

331

450-500

113

170

340

340

340

170

340

340

500-550

116

174

348

348

348

174

348

348

550-600

118

178

355

355

355

178

355

355

600-650

120

181

361

361

361

181

361

361

650-700

122

184

367

367

367

184

367

367

700-750

124

186

372

372

372

186

372

372

750-800

126

189

377

377

377

189

377

377

800-850

127

191

381

381

381

191

381

381

850-900

128

193

385

385

385

193

385

385

900-950

130

194

389

389

389

194

389

389

950-1000

131

196

392

392

392

196

392

392

1000-1100

133

199

398

398

398

199

398

398

1100-1200

134

202

403

403

403

202

403

403

1200-1300

136

204

408

408

408

204

408

408

1300-1400

137

206

412

412

412

206

412

412

1400-1500

138

208

415

415

415

208

415

415

1500-1600

139

209

418

418

418

209

418

418

1600-1700

140

211

421

421

421

211

421

421

1700-1800

141

212

424

424

431

212

424

424

1800-1900

142

213

426

426

444

213

426

426

1900-2000

143

214

428

428

458

214

428

428

2000-3000

147

221

442

442

570

221

442

442

3000-4000

150

225

449

449

656

225

449

449

4000-5000

151

227

454

454

724

227

454

454

5000-10000

167

251

502

502

950

251

502

502

10000-15000

185

277

554

554

1097

277

554

554

15000-20000

202

303

606

606

1211

303

606

606

20000-25000

218

327

653

653

1306

327

653

653

25000-30000

232

347

695

695

1389

347

695

695

30000-40000

255

383

765

765

1531

383

765

765

40000-50000

275

412

825

825

1649

412

825

825

50000-60000

292

438

877

877

1753

438

877

877

60000-70000

308

461

923

923

1846

461

923

923

70000-80000

322

482

965

965

1930

482

965

965

80000-90000

335

502

1004

1004

2007

502

1004

1004

F190000 – 100000

347

520

1040

1040

2079

520

1040

1040

Table 3: Hazard Type 1 explosive in a metal-built mounded store

1Quantity of explosives(kg)

2Class A distance(m)

3Class B distance(m)

4Class C distance(m)

5Class D distance(m)

6Class E distance(m)

7Class F distance(m)

8Class G distance(m)

9Class H distance(m)

0.1-10

7

10

21

23

40

12

9

18

10-20

9

13

26

29

42

15

9

18

20-30

10

15

30

33

44

17

9

18

30-40

11

16

33

37

46

18

9

18

40-50

12

18

35

40

48

20

9

18

50-60

13

19

38

42

48

21

10

22

60-70

13

20

40

44

52

22

10

22

70-80

14

20

41

46

57

23

11

22

80-90

14

21

42

47

61

24

11

22

90-100

14

21

43

48

66

24

11

22

100-150

16

24

49

55

86

28

13

27

150-200

18

27

54

62

104

31

14

27

200-250

20

30

60

69

121

35

16

30

250-300

23

34

68

76

136

38

16

30

300-350

25

38

76

83

151

44

18

33

350-400

28

41

83

90

165

45

18

33

400-450

30

45

89

97

178

49

19

36

450-500

32

48

96

102

191

51

19

36

500-550

34

51

102

107

204

54

24

56

550-600

36

54

108

111

216

56

24

56

600-650

38

57

114

116

227

58

24

56

650-700

40

60

119

121

238

61

24

56

700-750

42

62

125

126

249

63

24

56

750-800

43

65

130

131

260

66

24

56

800-850

45

68

135

136

270

68

24

56

850-900

47

70

140

140

280

70

24

56

900-950

48

73

145

145

290

73

24

56

950-1000

50

75

150

150

300

75

24

56

1000-1100

53

80

159

159

319

80

30

85

1100-1200

56

84

168

168

337

84

30

85

1200-1300

59

88

177

177

354

89

30

85

1300-1400

62

93

185

185

370

93

30

85

1400-1500

64

97

193

193

386

97

30

85

1500-1600

67

100

201

201

402

101

30

85

1600-1700

69

104

208

208

416

104

30

85

1700-1800

72

108

215

215

431

108

30

85

1800-1900

74

111

222

222

444

111

30

85

1900-2000

76

114

229

229

458

115

30

85

2000-3000

95

143

285

285

570

143

35

106

3000-4000

109

164

328

328

656

164

38

122

4000-5000

121

181

362

362

724

181

41

134

5000-10000

158

237

475

475

950

238

52

176

10000-15000

183

274

548

548

1097

274

59

204

15000-20000

202

303

606

606

1211

303

65

225

20000-25000

218

327

653

653

1306

327

70

243

25000-30000

232

347

695

695

1389

348

75

258

30000-40000

255

383

765

765

1531

383

82

275

40000-50000

275

412

825

825

1649

412

88

295

50000-60000

292

438

877

877

1753

438

94

315

60000-70000

308

461

923

923

1846

461

99

345

70000-80000

322

482

965

965

1930

482

103

345

80000-90000

335

502

1004

1004

2007

502

108

375

90000-100000

347

520

1040

1040

2079

520

111

375

Supplementary Table 3A: Hazard type 1 explosive in a metal-built mounded store – distances for areas of low population density

1Quantity of explosives (kg)

2Reference zone radius (m)

3Maximum number of dwellings in the reference zone

4Distances to dwellings if the maximum number of dwellings in the reference zone is not exceeded (m)

0.1-10

41

2

21

10-20

52

3

26

20-30

60

4

30

30-40

66

5

33

40-50

71

6

35

50-60

75

7

38

60-70

79

8

40

70-80

81

8

41

80-90

83

8

42

90-100

86

9

43

100-150

97

12

49

150-200

109

14

54

200-250

121

18

60

250-300

136

23

68

300-350

151

28

76

350-400

165

34

83

400-450

178

39

89

450-500

191

45

96

500-550

204

51

102

550-600

216

57

108

600-650

227

63

114

650-700

238

70

119

700-750

249

77

125

750-800

260

83

130

800-850

270

90

135

Table 4: Hazard Type 1 explosive in a metal built unmounded store with no detonator annex attached

1Quantity of explosives(kg)

2Class A distance (m)

3Class Bdistance (m)

4Class Cdistance (m)

5Class D distance (m)

6Class E distance (m)

7Class F distance (m)

8Class G distance (m)

9Class H distance (m)

0.1-10

8

11

23

30

40

15

30

30

10-20

10

14

29

35

42

18

35

35

20-30

11

16

33

39

44

20

39

39

30-40

12

18

36

42

46

21

42

42

40-50

13

19

38

44

48

22

44

44

50-60

13

20

40

46

48

23

46

46

60-70

14

21

42

48

52

24

48

48

70-80

14

22

43

50

57

25

50

50

80-90

15

22

44

52

61

26

52

52

90-100

15

23

45

55

66

28

55

55

100-150

17

25

50

66

86

33

66

66

150-200

18

28

55

78

104

39

78

78

200-250

20

30

60

89

121

45

89

89

250-300

23

34

68

101

136

51

101

101

300-350

25

38

76

112

151

56

112

112

350-400

28

41

83

124

165

62

124

124

400-450

30

45

89

135

178

68

135

135

450-500

32

48

96

138

191

69

138

138

500-550

34

51

102

141

204

71

141

141

550-600

36

54

108

144

216

72

144

144

600-650

38

57

114

147

227

74

147

147

650-700

40

60

119

150

238

75

150

150

700-750

42

62

125

153

249

77

153

153

750-800

43

65

130

156

260

78

156

156

800-850

45

68

135

159

270

80

159

159

850-900

47

70

140

162

280

81

162

162

900-950

48

73

145

165

290

83

165

165

950-1000

50

75

150

168

300

84

168

168

1000-1100

53

80

159

175

319

88

175

175

1100-1200

56

84

168

181

337

91

181

181

1200-1300

59

88

177

187

354

94

187

187

1300-1400

62

93

185

193

370

97

193

193

1400-1500

64

97

193

199

386

100

199

199

1500-1600

67

100

201

205

402

103

205

205

1600-1700

69

104

208

211

416

106

211

211

1700-1800

72

108

215

217

431

108

217

217

1800-1900

74

111

222

223

444

111

223

223

1900-2000

76

114

229

229

458

114

229

229

2000-3000

95

143

285

285

570

143

285

285

3000-4000

109

164

328

328

656

164

328

328

4000-5000

121

181

362

362

724

181

362

362

5000-10000

158

237

475

475

950

237

475

475

10000-15000

183

274

548

548

1097

274

548

548

15000-20000

202

303

606

606

1211

303

606

606

20000-25000

218

327

653

653

1306

653

653

653

25000-30000

232

347

695

695

1389

347

695

695

30000-40000

255

383

765

765

1531

383

765

765

40000-50000

275

412

825

825

1649

412

825

825

50000-60000

292

438

877

877

1753

438

877

877

60000-70000

308

461

923

923

1846

461

923

923

70000-80000

322

482

965

965

1930

482

965

965

80000-90000

335

502

1004

1004

2007

502

1004

1004

90000-100000

347

520

1040

1040

2079

520

1040

1040

Supplementary Table 4A: Hazard Type 1 explosive in a metal-built unmounded store with no detonator annex attached – distances for areas of low population density

1Quantity of explosives (kg)

2Reference zone radius (m)

3Maximum number of dwellings in the reference zone

4Distances to dwellings if the maximum number of dwellings in the reference zone is not exceeded(m)

0.1-10

46

3

23

10-20

57

4

29

20-30

65

5

33

30-40

71

6

36

40-50

76

7

38

50-60

80

8

40

60-70

84

9

42

70-80

87

9

43

80-90

89

10

44

90-100

91

10

45

100-150

100

12

50

150-200

110

15

55

200-250

121

18

60

250-300

136

23

68

300-350

151

28

76

350-400

165

34

83

400-450

178

39

89

450-500

191

45

96

500-550

204

51

102

550-600

216

57

108

600-650

227

64

114

650-700

238

70

119

700-750

249

77

125

750-800

260

84

130

800-850

270

90

135

850-900

280

97

140

900-950

290

104

145

950-1000

300

111

150

1000-1100

319

125

159

Table 5: Hazard type 1 explosive in a metal-built un-mounded store with a detonator annex attached

1Quantity of explosives(kg)

2Class Adistance(m)

3Class Bdistance(m)

4Class Cdistance(m)

5Class Ddistance(m)

6Class Edistance(m)

7Class Fdistance(m)

8Class Gdistance(m)

9Class Hdistance(m)

0.1-10

10

16

31

48

48

24

48

48

10-20

12

18

36

50

50

25

50

50

20-30

13

19

38

52

52

26

52

52

30-40

14

21

41

54

54

27

54

54

40-50

14

22

43

56

56

28

56

56

50-60

15

22

45

58

58

29

58

58

60-70

16

24

47

60

60

30

60

60

70-80

16

25

49

63

63

32

63

63

80-90

17

26

51

70

70

35

70

70

90-100

18

27

53

77

77

39

77

77

100-150

21

32

63

110

110

55

110

110

150-200

25

37

74

143

143

72

143

143

200-250

28

42

84

176

176

88

176

176

250-300

31

47

94

209

209

105

209

209

300-350

35

52

104

242

242

121

242

242

350-400

38

57

115

275

275

138

275

275

400-450

42

62

125

308

308

154

308

308

450-500

43

64

128

309

309

155

309

309

500-550

44

66

132

310

310

155

310

310

550-600

45

68

135

311

311

156

311

311

600-650

46

69

138

311

311

156

311

311

650-700

47

71

142

312

312

156

312

312

700-750

48

73

145

313

313

157

313

313

750-800

49

74

148

314

314

157

314

314

800-850

51

76

152

315

315

158

315

315

850-900

52

78

155

316

316

158

316

316

900-950

53

79

159

317

317

159

317

317

950-1000

54

81

162

318

318

159

318

318

1000-1100

56

84

169

319

319

160

319

319

1100-1200

58

88

175

321

337

161

321

321

1200-1300

61

91

182

323

354

162

323

323

1300-1400

63

94

189

325

370

163

325

325

1400-1500

65

98

195

326

386

163

326

326

1500-1600

67

101

202

328

402

164

328

328

1600-1700

70

104

209

330

416

165

330

330

1700-1800

72

108

215

332

431

166

332

332

1800-1900

74

111

222

333

444

167

333

333

1900-2000

76

114

229

335

458

168

335

335

2000-3000

95

143

285

353

570

177

353

353

3000-4000

109

164

328

370

656

185

370

370

4000-5000

121

181

362

388

724

194

388

388

5000-10000

158

237

475

475

950

237

475

475

10000-15000

183

274

548

548

1097

274

548

548

15000-20000

202

303

606

606

1211

303

606

606

20000-25000

218

327

653

653

1306

327

653

653

25000-30000

232

347

695

695

1389

347

695

695

30000-40000

255

383

765

765

1531

383

765

765

40000-50000

275

412

825

825

1649

412

825

825

50000-60000

292

438

877

877

1753

438

877

877

60000-70000

308

461

923

923

1846

461

923

923

70000-80000

322

482

965

965

1930

482

965

965

80000-90000

335

502

1004

1004

2007

502

1004

1004

90000-100000

347

520

1040

1040

2079

520

1040

1040

Supplementary Table 5A:– Hazard Type 1 explosive in a metal-built un-mounded store with a detonator annex attached – distances for areas of low population density

1Quantity ofExplosives(kg)

2Reference zone radius (m)

3Maximum number of dwellings in the reference zone

4Distances to dwellings if the maximum number of dwellings in the reference zone is not exceeded(m)

0.1 -10

62

5

31

10-20

71

6

36

20-30

77

7

38

30-40

82

8

41

40-50

86

9

43

50-60

90

10

45

60-70

94

11

47

70-80

98

12

49

80-90

102

13

51

90-100

106

14

53

100-150

127

20

63

150-200

147

27

74

200-250

168

35

84

250-300

188

44

94

300-350

209

54

104

350-400

229

65

115

400-450

250

77

125

450-500

257

81

128

500-550

263

85

132

550-600

270

90

135

600-650

277

95

138

650-700

284

99

142

700-750

290

104

145

750-800

297

109

148

800-850

304

114

152

850-900

310

119

155

900-950

317

124

159

950-1000

324

129

162

1000-1100

337

140

169

1100-1200

351

152

175

1200-1300

364

163

182

1300-1400

377

176

189

1400-1500

391

188

195

1500-1600

404

202

202

1600-1700

418

215

209

1700-1800

431

229

215

1800-1900

444

244

222

1900-2000

458

259

229

2000-3000

570

401

285

3000-4000

656

530

328

4000-5000

724

647

362

Table 6: Hazard Type 2 explosive, some or all items being of more than 0.7kg net mass in a mounded store

1Quantity of explosives(kg)

2Class Adistance(m)

3Class Bdistance(m)

4Class Cdistance(m)

5Class Ddistance(m)

6Class Edistance(m)

7Class Fdistance(m)

8Class Gdistance(m)

9Class Hdistance(m)

0.1 - 25

20

30

60

60

120

30

9

32

25-30

20

30

60

60

120

30

9

32

30-40

25

37

74

74

148

37

9

32

40-50

29

44

88

88

176

44

9

32

50-60

33

49

99

99

198

49

9

46

60-70

36

54

108

108

216

54

9

46

70-80

39

58

116

116

232

58

9

46

80-90

41

61

123

123

246

61

9

46

90-100

43

64

129

129

258

64

9

46

100-150

51

76

152

152

304

76

9

61

150-200

56

84

168

168

336

84

9

61

200-250

60

91

181

181

362

91

9

69

250-300

64

96

191

191

382

96

9

69

300-350

67

100

200

200

400

100

10

75

350-400

69

104

207

207

414

104

10

75

400-450

71

107

213

213

426

107

10

79

450-500

73

110

219

219

438

110

10

79

500-550

75

112

224

224

448

112

10

92

550-600

76

115

229

229

458

115

10

92

600-650

78

117

233

233

466

117

10

92

650-700

79

119

237

237

474

119

10

92

700-750

80

120

241

241

482

120

10

92

750-800

81

122

244

244

488

122

10

92

800-850

83

124

248

248

496

124

10

92

850-900

84

125

251

251

502

125

10

92

900-950

84

127

253

253

506

127

10

92

950-1000

85

128

256

256

512

128

10

92

1000-1100

87

131

261

261

522

131

11

105

1100-1200

89

133

266

266

532

133

11

105

1200-1300

90

135

270

270

540

135

11

105

1300-1400

91

137

274

274

548

137

11

105

1400-1500

92

139

277

277

554

139

11

105

1500-1600

93

140

280

280

560

140

11

105

1600- 1700

95

142

284

284

568

142

11

105

1700-1800

95

143

286

286

572

143

11

105

1800-1900

96

145

289

289

578

145

11

105

1900-2000

97

146

292

292

584

146

11

105

2000-3000

104

156

312

312

624

156

12

112

3000-4000

109

163

326

326

652

163

13

117

4000-5000

112

168

337

337

674

168

14

121

5000-10000

123

185

370

370

740

185

17

133

10000-15000

129

194

388

388

776

194

20

140

15000-20000

134

201

401

401

802

201

22

144

20000-25000

137

206

411

411

822

206

24

148

25000-30000

140

210

419

419

838

210

26

151

30000-40000

144

216

431

431

862

216

29

156

40000-50000

147

220

441

441

882

220

32

159

50000-60000

150

224

449

449

898

224

35

162

60000-70000

152

227

455

455

910

227

36

166

70000-80000

153

230

460

460

920

230

38

166

80000-90000

155

233

465

465

930

233

39

170

90000-100000

157

235

470

470

940

235

40

170

Table 7: Hazard Type 2 explosive, some or all items being of more than 0.7 kg net mass in an unmounded store

1Quantity of explosives(kg)

2Class Adistance(m)

3Class Bdistance(m)

4Class Cdistance(m)

5Class Ddistance(m)

6Class Edistance(m)

7Class Fdistance(m)

8Class Gdistance(m)

9Class Hdistance(m)

0.1-25

20

30

60

60

120

30

60

60

25-30

20

30

60

60

120

30

60

60

30-40

25

37

74

74

148

37

74

74

40-50

29

44

88

88

176

44

88

88

50-60

33

49

99

99

198

49

99

99

60-70

36

54

108

108

216

54

108

108

70-80

39

58

116

116

232

58

116

116

80-90

41

61

123

123

246

61

123

123

90-100

43

64

129

129

258

64

129

129

100-150

51

76

152

152

304

76

152

152

150-200

56

84

168

168

336

84

168

168

200-250

60

91

181

181

362

91

181

181

250-300

64

96

191

191

382

96

191

191

300-350

67

100

200

200

400

100

200

200

350-400

69

104

207

207

414

104

207

207

400-450

71

107

213

213

426

107

213

213

450-500

73

110

219

219

438

110

219

219

500-550

75

112

224

224

448

112

224

224

550-600

76

115

229

229

458

115

229

229

600-650

78

117

233

233

466

117

233

233

650-700

79

119

237

237

474

119

237

237

700-750

80

120

241

241

482

120

241

241

750-800

81

122

244

244

488

122

244

244

800-850

83

124

248

248

496

124

248

248

850-900

84

125

251

251

502

125

251

251

900-950

84

127

253

253

506

127

253

253

950-1000

85

128

256

256

512

128

256

256

1000-1100

87

131

261

261

522

131

261

261

1100-1200

89

133

266

266

532

133

266

266

1200-1300

90

135

270

270

540

135

270

270

1300-1400

91

137

274

274

548

137

274

274

1400-1500

92

139

277

277

554

139

277

277

1500-1600

93

140

280

280

560

140

280

280

1600-1700

95

142

284

284

568

142

284

284

1700-1800

95

143

286

286

572

143

286

286

1800-1900

96

145

289

289

578

145

289

289

1900-2000

97

146

292

292

584

146

292

292

2000-3000

104

156

312

312

624

156

312

312

3000-4000

109

163

326

326

652

163

326

326

4000-5000

112

168

337

337

674

168

337

337

5000-10000

123

185

370

370

740

185

370

370

10000-15000

129

194

388

388

776

194

388

388

15000-20000

134

201

401

401

802

201

401

401

20000-25000

137

206

411

411

822

206

411

411

25000-30000

140

210

419

419

838

210

419

419

30000-40000

144

216

431

431

862

216

431

431

40000-50000

147

220

441

441

882

220

441

441

50000-60000

150

224

449

449

898

224

449

449

60000-70000

152

227

455

455

910

227

455

455

70000-80000

153

230

460

460

920

230

460

460

80000-90000

155

233

465

465

930

233

465

465

90000-100000

157

235

470

470

940

235

470

470

Table 8: Hazard Type 2 explosive every item being of 0.7kg net mass or less in a mounded store

1Quantity of explosives(kg)

2Class Adistance(m)

3Class Bdistance(m)

4Class Cdistance(m)

5Class Ddistance(m)

6Class Edistance(m)

7Class Fdistance(m)

8Class Gdistance(m)

9Class Hdistance(m)

0.1-25

12

18

37

37

74

18

9

15

25-30

13

19

38

38

76

19

9

15

30-40

14

20

41

41

82

20

9

15

40-50

14

22

43

43

86

22

9

15

50-60

15

22

45

45

90

22

9

18

60-70

16

23

47

47

94

23

9

18

70-80

16

24

48

48

96

24

9

18

80-90

16

25

49

49

98

25

9

18

90-100

17

25

51

51

102

25

9

18

100-150

19

28

56

56

112

28

9

22

150-200

20

30

60

60

120

30

9

22

200-250

21

32

63

63

126

32

9

24

250-300

22

33

66

66

132

33

9

24

300-350

23

34

68

68

136

34

10

25

350-400

24

35

71

71

142

35

10

25

400-450

24

36

73

73

146

36

10

27

450-500

25

37

74

74

148

37

10

27

500-550

25

38

76

76

152

38

10

31

550-600

26

39

78

78

156

39

10

31

600-650

26

39

79

79

158

39

10

31

650-700

27

40

80

80

160

40

10

31

700-750

27

41

82

82

164

41

10

31

750-800

28

41

83

83

166

41

10

31

800-850

28

42

84

84

168

42

10

31

850-900

28

43

85

85

170

43

10

31

900-950

29

43

86

86

172

43

10

31

950-1000

29

44

87

87

174

44

10

31

1000-1100

30

44

89

89

178

44

11

36

1100-1200

30

45

91

91

182

45

11

36

1200-1300

31

46

92

92

184

46

11

36

1300-1400

31

47

94

94

188

47

11

36

1400-1500

32

48

95

95

190

48

11

36

1500-1600

32

48

97

97

194

48

11

36

1600-1700

33

49

98

98

196

49

11

36

1700-1800

33

50

99

99

198

50

11

36

1800-1900

33

50

100

100

200

50

11

36

1900-2000

34

51

101

101

202

51

11

36

2000-3000

37

55

110

110

220

55

12

40

3000-4000

39

59

117

117

234

59

13

42

4000-5000

41

61

122

122

244

61

14

44

5000-10000

47

70

140

140

280

70

17

50

10000-15000

50

76

151

151

302

76

20

54

15000-20000

53

80

159

159

318

80

22

57

20000-25000

55

83

166

166

332

83

24

60

25000-30000

57

86

171

171

342

86

26

62

30000-40000

60

90

180

180

360

90

29

66

40000-50000

62

94

187

187

377

94

32

68

50000-60000

64

97

193

193

386

97

35

70

60000-70000

66

99

198

198

396

99

36

74

70000-80000

67

101

202

202

404

101

38

74

80000-90000

69

103

206

206

412

103

39

76

90000-100000

70

105

210

210

420

105

40

76

Table 9: Hazard Type 2 explosive every item being of 0.7kg net mass or less in an unmounded store

1Quantity of explosives(kg)

2Class Adistance(m)

3Class Bdistance(m)

4Class Cdistance(m)

5Class Ddistance(m)

6Class Edistance(m)

7Class Fdistance(m)

8Class Gdistance(m)

9Class Hdistance(m)

0.1-25

12

18

37

37

74

18

37

37

25-30

13

19

38

38

76

19

38

38

30-40

14

20

41

41

82

20

41

41

40-50

14

22

43

43

86

22

43

43

50-60

15

22

45

45

90

22

45

45

60-70

16

23

47

47

94

23

47

47

70-80

16

24

48

48

96

24

48

48

80-90

16

25

49

49

98

25

49

49

90-100

17

25

51

51

102

25

51

51

100-150

19

28

56

56

112

28

56

56

150-200

20

30

60

60

120

30

60

60

200-250

21

32

63

63

126

32

63

63

250-300

22

33

66

66

132

33

66

66

300-350

23

34

68

68

136

34

68

68

350-400

24

35

71

71

142

35

71

71

400-450

24

36

73

73

146

36

73

73

450-500

25

37

74

74

148

37

74

74

500-550

25

38

76

76

152

38

76

76

550-600

26

39

78

78

156

39

78

78

600-650

26

39

79

79

158

39

79

79

650-700

27

40

80

80

160

40

80

80

700-750

27

41

82

82

164

41

82

82

750-800

28

41

83

83

166

41

83

83

800-850

28

42

84

84

168

42

84

84

850-900

28

43

85

85

170

43

85

85

900-950

29

43

86

86

172

43

86

86

950-1000

29

44

87

87

174

44

87

87

1000-1100

30

44

89

89

178

44

89

89

1100-1200

30

45

91

91

182

45

91

91

1200-1300

31

46

92

92

184

46

92

92

1300-1400

31

47

94

94

188

47

94

94

1400-1500

32

48

95

95

190

48

95

95

1500-1600

32

48

97

97

194

48

97

97

1600-1700

33

49

98

98

196

49

98

98

1700-1800

33

50

99

99

198

50

99

99

1800-1900

33

50

100

100

200

50

100

100

1900-2000

34

51

101

101

202

51

101

101

2000-3000

37

55

110

110

220

55

110

110

3000-4000

39

59

117

117

234

59

117

117

4000-5000

41

61

122

122

244

61

122

122

5000-10000

47

70

140

140

280

70

140

140

10000-15000

50

76

151

151

302

76

151

151

15000-20000

53

80

159

159

318

80

159

159

20000-25000

55

83

166

166

332

83

166

166

25000-30000

57

86

171

171

342

86

171

171

30000-40000

60

90

180

180

360

90

180

180

40000-50000

62

94

187

187

377

94

187

187

50000-60000

64

97

193

193

386

97

193

193

60000-70000

66

99

198

198

396

99

198

198

70000-80000

67

101

202

202

404

101

202

202

80000-90000

69

103

206

206

412

103

206

206

90000-100000

70

105

210

210

420

105

210

210

Table 10: Hazard Type 3 explosive

1Quantity of explosives(kg)

2Class Adistance(m)

3Class Bdistance(m)

4Class Cdistance(m)

5Class Ddistance(m)

6Class Edistance(m)

7Class Fdistance(m)

8Class Gdistance(m)

9Class Hdistance(m)

0.1-25

0

0

0

0

0

0

9

12

25-30

7

10

20

20

20

10

9

12

30-40

7

11

22

22

22

11

9

12

40-50

8

12

23

23

23

12

9

12

50-60

8

12

25

25

25

12

9

15

60-70

9

13

26

26

26

13

9

15

70-80

9

14

27

27

27

14

9

15

80-90

9

14

28

28

28

14

9

15

90-100

10

15

29

29

29

15

9

15

100-150

11

17

34

34

34

17

9

18

150-200

12

19

37

37

37

19

9

18

200-250

13

20

40

40

40

20

10

21

250-300

14

21

43

43

43

21

10

21

300-350

15

22

45

45

45

22

11

23

350-400

16

23

47

47

47

23

11

23

400-450

16

24

49

49

49

24

12

25

450-500

17

25

50

50

50

25

12

25

500-550

17

26

52

52

52

26

14

32

550-600

18

27

54

54

54

27

14

32

600-650

18

28

55

55

55

28

14

32

650-700

19

28

56

56

56

28

14

32

700-750

19

29

58

58

58

29

14

32

750-800

20

29

59

59

59

29

14

32

800-850

20

30

60

60

60

30

14

32

850-900

20

31

61

61

61

31

14

32

900-950

21

31

62

62

62

31

14

32

950-1000

21

32

64

64

64

32

14

32

1000-1100

22

33

66

66

66

33

17

40

1100-1200

22

34

67

67

67

34

17

40

1200-1300

23

35

69

69

69

35

17

40

1300-1400

24

36

71

71

71

36

17

40

1400-1500

24

36

73

73

73

36

17

40

1500-1600

25

37

74

74

74

37

17

40

1600-1700

25

38

76

76

76

38

17

40

1700-1800

26

39

77

77

77

39

17

40

1800-1900

26

39

79

79

79

39

17

40

1900-2000

27

40

80

80

80

40

17

40

2000-3000

31

46

92

92

92

46

19

46

3000-4000

34

50

101

101

101

50

20

50

4000-5000

36

54

109

109

109

54

22

54

5000-10000

46

68

137

137

137

68

28

68

10000-15000

52

78

157

157

157

78

33

78

15000-20000

57

86

172

172

172

86

37

86

20000-25000

62

93

186

186

186

93

41

93

25000-30000

66

99

197

197

197

99

44

98

30000-40000

72

109

217

217

217

109

47

110

40000-50000

78

117

234

234

234

117

50

120

50000-60000

83

124

249

249

249

124

54

130

60000-70000

87

131

262

262

262

131

58

140

70000-80000

91

137

274

274

274

137

63

140

80000-90000

95

142

285

285

285

142

67

150

90000-100000

98

147

295

295

295

147

70

150

Table 11: Hazard Type 4 explosive

1Quantity of explosives(kg)

2Class Adistance(m)

3Class Bdistance(m)

4Class Cdistance(m)

5Class Ddistance(m)

6Class Edistance(m)

7Class Fdistance(m)

8Class Gdistance(m)

9Class Hdistance(m)

0.1-250

0

0

0

0

0

0

9

11

250-300

1

1

1

1

1

1

9

11

300-340

1

1

2

2

2

1

9

11

340-370

1

2

3

3

3

2

9

11

370-400

1

2

4

4

4

2

9

11

400-450

2

3

5

5

5

3

9

11

450-500

2

3

6

6

6

3

9

11

500-550

2

4

7

7

7

4

9

12

550-650

3

5

9

9

9

5

9

12

650-700

3

5

10

10

10

5

9

12

700-750

4

6

11

11

11

6

9

12

750-800

4

6

12

12

12

6

9

12

800-900

4

7

13

13

13

7

9

12

900-950

5

7

14

14

14

7

9

12

950-1000

5

8

15

15

15

8

9

12

1000-1100

5

8

16

16

16

8

12

19

1100-1150

6

9

17

17

17

9

12

19

1150-1200

6

9

18

18

18

9

12

19

1200-1300

6

10

19

19

19

10

12

19

1300-1350

7

10

20

20

20

10

12

19

1350-1400

7

11

21

21

21

11

12

19

1400-1450

7

11

22

22

22

11

12

19

1450-1550

8

12

23

23

23

12

12

19

1550-1600

8

12

24

24

24

12

12

19

1600-1650

8

13

25

25

25

13

12

19

1650-1700

9

13

26

26

26

13

12

19

1700-1800

9

14

27

27

27

14

12

19

1800-1850

9

14

28

28

28

14

12

19

1850-1900

10

15

29

29

29

15

12

19

1900-2000

10

15

30

30

30

15

12

19

2000-3000

13

20

40

40

40

20

14

23

3000-4000

13

20

40

40

40

20

16

24

4000-5000

15

23

45

45

45

23

17

25

5000-10000

17

26

51

51

51

26

22

27

10000-15000

18

27

54

54

54

27

24

27

15000-20000

18

28

56

56

56

28

25

27

20000-25000

19

29

57

57

57

29

26

27

25000-30000

20

30

59

59

59

30

27

27

30000-40000

20

30

60

60

60

30

27

27

40000-50000

20

31

61

61

61

31

27

27

50000-60000

20

31

61

61

61

31

27

27

60000-70000

21

31

62

62

62

31

27

27

70000-80000

21

32

63

63

63

32

27

27

80000-90000

21

32

63

63

63

32

27

27

90000-100000

21

32

64

64

64

32

27

27

SCHEDULE 6UNIQUE IDENTIFICATION FOR CIVIL EXPLOSIVES

Regulation 33(2)(a)

1

Subject to paragraph 2, the unique identification must comprise—

a

a part which can be read by a human being containing the following—

i

the name of the manufacturer;

ii

an alphanumeric code containing—

aa

two letters identifying F45Great Britain, Northern Ireland or the EEA state (place of production or import);

bb

three digits identifying the site of manufacture; and

cc

the unique product code and logistical information designed by the manufacturer; and

b

a part which can be read electronically in barcode or matrix code format, or both, which relates directly to the alphanumeric identification code.

2

For articles too small to affix the unique product code and logistical information designed by the manufacturer, the information under sub-paragraphs (a)(ii)(aa) and (ii)(bb) and (b) of paragraph 1 is sufficient for the purposes of the unique identification.

SCHEDULE 7MARKING OR AFFIXING THE UNIQUE IDENTIFICATION TO CIVIL EXPLOSIVES

Regulation 33(1), (5) and (7)

Cartridged explosives and explosives in sacks1

For a cartridged explosive and any explosive in sacks—

a

subject to paragraph 10(1), the unique identification must be on an adhesive label attached to, or be directly printed on, each cartridge or sack;

b

an associated label must be placed on each case of cartridges; and

c

a passive inert electronic tag may be attached to each cartridge or sack and an associated electronic tag attached to each case of cartridges.

Packaged two-component explosives2

Subject to paragraph 10(1), for a packaged two-component explosive, the unique identification must be on an adhesive label attached to, or be directly printed on, each smallest packaging unit containing the two components.

Plain detonators3

For plain detonators—

a

subject to paragraph 10(1) and (2), the unique identification must be on an adhesive label attached to, or be directly printed or stamped on, the detonator shell;

b

an associated label must be placed on each case of detonators; and

c

a passive inert electronic tag may be attached to each detonator and an associated tag attached to each case of detonators.

Electric, non-electric and electronic detonators4

For electric, non-electric and electronic detonators—

a

subject to paragraph 10(1), the unique identification must—

i

be on an adhesive label attached to the wires or tube; or

ii

be on an adhesive label attached to, or be directly printed or stamped on, the detonator shell;

b

an associated label must be placed on each case of detonators; and

c

a passive inert electronic tag may be attached to each detonator and an associated tag attached to each case of detonators.

Primers and boosters5

For primers and boosters—

a

subject, in the case of boosters, to paragraph 10(1) and (2), the unique identification must be on an adhesive label attached to, or be directly printed on, the primer or booster;

b

an associated label must be placed on each case of primers or boosters; and

c

a passive inert electronic tag may be attached to each primer or booster and an associated tag attached to each case of primers or boosters.

Detonating cords6

For detonating cords—

a

the unique identification must be on an adhesive label attached to, or be directly printed on, the bobbin;

b

subject to paragraph 10(1) and (3), the unique identification must be marked every five meters on either the external envelope of the cord or the plastic extruded inner layer immediately under the exterior fibre of the cord;

c

an associated label must be placed on each case of detonating cord; and

d

a passive inert electronic tag may be inserted within the cord and an associated tag attached to each case of cord.

Cans, boxes and drums containing explosives7

For cans, boxes and drums containing any explosive—

a

subject to paragraph 10(1), the unique identification must be on an adhesive label attached to, or be directly printed on, the can, box or drum containing the explosive; and

b

a passive inert electronic tag may be attached to each can, box and drum.

Civil explosives not referred to in paragraphs 1 to 78

Each civil explosive item in respect of a civil explosive not referred to in paragraphs 1 to 7 must, subject to paragraph 10(1), be marked with the unique identification.

General9

Where adhesive detachable copies of labels showing the unique identification are attached to civil explosive articles, containers or each smallest packaging unit concerned for use by other persons, those copies must be clearly marked as copies of the original.

Small explosive articles10

1

For articles smaller than those to which paragraph 2 of Schedule 6 applies, which are too small to affix the information under sub-paragraphs (a)(ii)(aa) and (ii)(bb) and (b) of paragraph 1 of Schedule 6 or where it is technically impossible due to their shape or design to affix a unique identification—

a

the unique identification specified in paragraph 1 of that Schedule must be affixed on each smallest packaging unit; and

b

that packaging unit must be closed with a seal.

2

In the case of each plain detonator or booster to which sub-paragraph (1) applies—

a

the requirements of, respectively, paragraphs 3(a) and 5(a) do not apply;

b

the information under sub-paragraph (a)(ii)(aa) and (bb) of paragraph 1 of Schedule 6 must be marked, in a durable and clearly legible way, on, as the case may be, the plain detonator or booster; and

c

the number of plain detonators or boosters contained in each smallest packaging unit must be printed on that unit.

3

In the case of each detonating cord to which sub-paragraph (1) applies—

a

the requirements of paragraph 6(b) do not apply; and

b

the unique identification referred to in paragraph 1 of Schedule 6 must be marked on the reel or spool and on any smallest packaging unit.

4

For the purposes of this paragraph, the smallest packaging unit means the smallest packaging unit on which it is possible to affix the unique identification specified in paragraph 1 of Schedule 6.

SCHEDULE 8MEANING OF “PLASTIC EXPLOSIVE” AND “DETECTION AGENT”

Regulation 38

PART 1PLASTIC EXPLOSIVE

1

For the purposes of regulation 38, “plastic explosive” means an explosive substance, commonly known as “plastic explosive”, including such substance in flexible or elastic sheet form and whether or not contained in an explosive article, which is—

a

formulated with one or more high explosives which in their pure form have a vapour pressure less than 10−4 Pa at a temperature of 25°C;

b

formulated with a binder material; and

c

malleable or flexible at normal room temperature.

2

The following explosives, even if meeting the description of plastic explosives in paragraph 1, are not to be regarded as plastic explosives for the purposes of regulation 38 as long as their manufacture or possession continues to be to a quantity and for a purpose specified in any of sub-paragraphs (a) to (c) of this paragraph, namely any explosive—

a

the manufacture or possession of which is to a quantity no greater than is necessary for the purpose of, and is solely for use in, lawful research, development or testing of new or modified explosives;

b

the manufacture or possession of which is to a quantity no greater than is necessary for the purpose of, and is solely for use in, lawful training in explosives detection or development or testing of explosives detection equipment; or

c

the manufacture or possession of which is to a quantity no greater than is necessary for, and is solely for, the purpose of lawful forensic science.

3

In this Part “high explosives” include, but are not restricted to, cyclotetramethylenetetranitramine (HMX), pentaerythritol tetranitrate (PETN) and cyclotrimethylenetrinitramine (RDX).

PART 2DETECTION AGENTS

Table

(1)Name of detection agent

(2)Minimum concentration

Ethylene glycol dinitrate (EGDN)

2,3-Dimethyl-2,3-dinitrobutane (DMNB)

para-Mononitrotoluene (p-MNT)

0.2% by mass

1.0% by mass

0.5% by mass

SCHEDULE 9ESSENTIAL SAFETY REQUIREMENTS

Regulation 39

F22...

PART 1GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

1

Each civil explosive must be designed, manufactured and supplied in such a way as to present a minimal risk to the safety of human life and health, and to prevent damage to property and the environment under normal, foreseeable conditions, in particular as regards the safety rules and standard practices until such time as it is used.

2

Each civil explosive must attain the performance characteristics specified by the manufacturer in order to ensure maximum safety and reliability.

3

Each civil explosive must be designed and manufactured in such a way that when appropriate techniques are employed it can be disposed of in a manner which minimises effects on the environment.

PART 2SPECIAL REQUIREMENTS

4

As a minimum, the following information and properties—where appropriate—must be considered or tested. Each civil explosive should be tested under realistic conditions. If this is not possible in a laboratory, the tests should be carried out in the conditions in which the civil explosive is to be used.

a

Design and characteristic properties, including chemical composition, degree of homogeneity and, where appropriate, dimensions and grain size distribution.

b

The physical and chemical stability of the civil explosive in all environmental conditions to which it may be exposed.

c

Sensitiveness to impact and friction.

d

Compatibility of all components as regards their physical and chemical stability.

e

The chemical purity of the civil explosive.

f

Resistance of the civil explosive against influence of water where it is intended to be used in humid or wet conditions and where its safety or reliability may be adversely affected by water.

g

Resistance to low and high temperatures, where the civil explosive is intended to be kept or used at such temperatures and its safety or reliability may be adversely affected by cooling or heating of a component or of the civil explosive as a whole.

h

The suitability of the civil explosive for use in hazardous environments (e.g. firedamp atmospheres, hot masses, etc.) if it is intended to be used under such conditions.

i

Safety features intended to prevent untimely or inadvertent initiation or ignition.

j

The correct loading and functioning of the civil explosive when used for its intended purpose.

k

Suitable instructions and, where necessary, markings in respect of safe handling, storage, use and disposalF8....

l

The ability of the civil explosive, its wrapping or other components to withstand deterioration during storage until the “use by” date specified by the manufacturer.

m

Specification of all devices and accessories needed for reliable and safe functioning of the civil explosive.

5

The various groups of civil explosives must at least also comply with the following requirements:

a

Blasting Explosives

i

The proposed method of initiation must ensure safe, reliable and complete detonation or deflagration as appropriate, of the blasting explosive. In the particular case of black powder, it is the capacity as regards deflagration which is to be checked.

ii

Blasting explosives in cartridge form must transmit the detonation safely and reliably from one end of the train of cartridges to the other.

iii

The fumes produced by blasting explosives intended for underground use may contain carbon monoxide, nitrous gases, other gases, vapours or airborne solid residues only in quantities which do not impair health under normal operating conditions.

b

Detonating cords, safety fuses, other fuses and shock tubes

i

The covering of detonating cords, safety fusesF9, other fuses and shock tubes must be of adequate mechanical strength and adequately protect the explosive filling when exposed to normal mechanical stress.

ii

The parameters for the burning times of safety fuses must be indicated and must be reliably set.

iii

Detonating cords must be capable of being reliably initiated, be of sufficient initiation capability and comply with requirements as regards storage even in particular climatic conditions.

c

Detonators (including delay detonators) and relays

i

Detonators must reliably initiate the detonation of the blasting explosives which are intended to be used with them under all foreseeable conditions of use.

ii

Delay connectors for detonating cords must be reliably initiated.

iii

The initiation capability must not be adversely affected by humidity.

iv

The delay times of delay detonators must be sufficiently uniform to ensure that the probability of overlapping of the delay times of adjacent time steps is insignificant.

v

The electrical characteristics of electric detonators must be indicated on the packaging (e.g. no-fire current, resistance, etc.).

vi

The wires of electric detonators must be of sufficient insulation and mechanical strength including the solidity of the link to the detonator, taking account of their intended use.

d

Propellants and rocket propellants

i

These materials must not detonate when used for their intended purpose.

ii

Propellants where necessary (e.g. those based on nitrocellulose) must be stabilised against decomposition.

iii

Solid rocket propellants, when in compressed or cast form, must not contain any unintentional fissures or gas bubbles which dangerously affect their functioning.

F7SCHEDULE 10CONFORMITY MARKING

Regulation 42(3)

Annotations:
Amendments (Textual)

F7

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

F7

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

SCHEDULE 11ENFORCEMENT WITHIN GREAT BRITAIN

Regulation 43

PART 1INTRODUCTORY

1

1

This Schedule makes provision for the enforcement of these Regulations within Great Britain.

2

Despite sub-paragraph (1), nothing in paragraphs 2 to 12 or 14 applies for the purpose of making any person responsible for the enforcement of these Regulations as they apply—

a

on sites which are GB nuclear sites; or

b

on any part of a site which is, or forms part of, a GB nuclear site M16.

3

The provisions of this Schedule apply despite the provisions of the Health and Safety (Enforcing Authority) Regulations 1998 M17.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M16

Section 18 of the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 has been amended, by the Energy Act 2013 (c.32), Schedule 12, paragraph 6, with the effect that the Office for Nuclear Regulation is the enforcing authority (within the meaning of the 1974 Act) for the relevant statutory provisions as they apply in relation to GB nuclear sites. Exceptions may be made for the Office of Rail Regulation to enforce any of the relevant statutory provisions as they apply on such nuclear sites.

M17

S.I. 1998/494; relevant amending instruments are S.I. 2005/1082, 2007/2598, 2009/693 and 2014/469.

PART 2ENFORCEMENT OF PROVISIONS

Enforcement in respect of the manufacture and storage of explosives2

1

A licensing authority is the enforcing authority for the manufacture and storage provisions—

a

for a site in relation to which it has granted a person a licence;

b

where, in relation to a deemed licence, it would have been the licensing authority by virtue of paragraph 1 or 4 of Schedule 1 if an application for a licence had been made under these Regulations;

c

where, in any case other than those mentioned in paragraphs (a) and (b)—

i

it would be the licensing authority by virtue of paragraph 1 or 4 of Schedule 1 if an application for a licence is, or should have been, made under these Regulations; or

ii

it would have been the licensing authority had the requirements of paragraph (1) of regulation 6 not been disapplied by paragraph (2) of that regulation or the requirements of paragraph (1) of regulation 7 not been disapplied by paragraph (2) of that regulation.

2

In this paragraph—

a

deemed licence” means—

i

any licence deemed by regulation 47(1) to be a licence granted under regulation 13;

ii

any licence deemed to be held by a person pursuant to regulation 47(12); and

iii

any registration deemed by regulation 47(2) to be a licence granted under regulation 13;

b

manufacture and storage provisions” means—

i

regulations 6, 7, 23, 26, 27 and 30 as they apply otherwise than in respect of the manufacture and storage of ammonium nitrate blasting intermediate;

ii

regulation 29 as it applies to the manufacture and storage of chlorate mixtures.

3

A licensing authority is the enforcing authority for regulation 3 of the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999 M18 in relation to the manufacture or storage of explosives for which it is the enforcing authority by virtue of paragraph 2.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M18

S.I. 1999/3242, to which there are amendments not relevant to these Regulations.

4

The enforcing authority for regulation 13(8) as it applies in respect of the manufacture and storage of any explosive and for regulations 6, 7, 23, 26, 27 and 30 as they apply in respect of the manufacture and storage of ammonium nitrate blasting intermediate is—

a

in relation to manufacture or storage on an authorised defence site or a new nuclear build site, the ONR;

b

otherwise, the Executive.

Enforcement in respect of discarding, disposal and decontamination5

The licensing authority is the enforcing authority for regulation 28 where a person discards or disposes of explosives or explosive-contaminated items, or decontaminates explosive-contaminated items, at a site in relation to which it has granted that or any other person a licence.

6

1

The enforcing authority for regulation 28 where a person discards or disposes of explosives or explosive-contaminated items, or decontaminates explosive-contaminated items, at a place other than a site in relation to which a person holds a licence is—

a

where the discarding, disposal or decontamination is carried out by, or on behalf of, a person who holds a licence granted by the Executive in a case in which the assent of the local authority was required under regulation 13(3) before the licence was granted, the Executive;

b

where the discarding, disposal or decontamination is carried out by, or on behalf of, a person who holds a licence granted by the ONR in a case in which the assent of the local authority was required under regulation 13(3) before the licence was granted, the ONR;

c

where neither paragraph (a) or (b) applies—

i

in any case where the local authority is by virtue of the 1998 Regulations the enforcing authority for the premises, or part of premises, at which the disposal or decontamination is carried out, the local authority;

ii

otherwise, the Executive.

2

In this paragraph, “local authority” in sub-paragraph 1(c) has the meaning given in regulation 2(1) of the Health and Safety (Enforcing Authority) Regulations 1998 M19.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M19

S.I. 1998/494; relevant amending instruments are S.I. 2005/1082, 2007/2598, 2009/693 and 2014/469. For the purposes of regulation 2(1) of the Health and Safety (Enforcing Authority) Regulations, “local authority” means: (a) in relation to England, a county council so far as they are the council for an area in which there are no district councils, a district council, a London borough council, the Common Council of the City of London, the Sub-Treasurer of the Inner Temple, the Under-Treasurer of the Middle Temple or the Council of the Isles of Scilly; (b) in relation to Scotland, the council for a local government area; (c) in relation to Wales, a county council or county borough council.

Enforcement in respect of import of chlorate mixtures7

The Executive is the enforcing authority for regulation 29 as it applies to the import of pyrotechnic substances or pyrotechnic articles which consist of sulphur or phosphorous mixed with chlorate of potassium or other chlorates.

Enforcement in respect of acquisition and supply of fireworks8

The enforcing authority for regulation 9 is—

a

for a site in relation to which it has granted a person a licence, the Executive;

b

subject to sub-paragraph (a), a local authority which is a licensing authority in the area of that local authority.

Enforcement in respect of explosives certificates and access to relevant explosives9

1

The enforcing authority for regulations 5, 11(5), 21(4), 31, 32 and 37 in any area of Great Britain is the chief officer of police for that area.

2

Despite sub-paragraph (1), the enforcing authority for regulations 31, 32 and 37 against a police force, any member of a police force or any relevant person is—

a

so far as the relevant regulation applies in relation to activities carried out on, or in relation to, any authorised defence site or a new nuclear build site, the ONR;

b

otherwise, the Executive.

3

For the purposes of this paragraph “relevant person” means a person—

a

appointed to assist a police force as mentioned in paragraph 4(2) of Schedule 2 to the Police Reform and Social Responsibility Act 2011 (civilian staff); or

b

appointed to assist a police force as mentioned in section 26 of the Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (police staff).

Enforcement in respect of identification and traceability10

The enforcing authority for regulation 33—

a

at a site in relation to which a person holds a licence granted by the chief officer of police for the area in which the site is situated, is that chief officer of police;

b

at an authorised defence site or a new nuclear build site, is the ONR;

c

otherwise, is the Executive.

11

1

The enforcing authority for regulation 34 is the Executive.

2

Despite sub-paragraph (1), the ONR is the enforcing authority for regulation 34 to the extent that it imposes requirements on manufacturers who—

a

are established in Great Britain; and

b

manufacture explosives on an authorised defence site or a new nuclear build site.

Enforcement in respect of record keeping12

1

The enforcing authority for regulation 35 is—

a

the Executive—

i

in respect of any place within a site in relation to which it is the licensing authority;

ii

subject to paragraph (b)(ii), in respect of any place occupied on behalf of the Crown for naval, military or air force purposes or for the purposes of the department of the Secretary of State having responsibility for defence;

iii

in respect of any place below ground in any mine;

iv

subject to paragraph (b)(iii), against a police force, any member of a police force or relevant person;

b

the ONR—

i

in respect of any place within a site in relation to which it is the licensing authority;

ii

in respect of any place within an authorised defence site or a new nuclear build site;

iii

against a police force, any member of a police force or any relevant person, so far as regulation 35 applies in relation to activities carried out on, or in relation to, any authorised defence site or new nuclear build site;

c

in any other case, the chief officer of police for the area.

2

In this paragraph “relevant person” has the meaning given in paragraph 9.

13

The enforcing authority for regulation 36—

a

at a site in relation to which a person holds a licence granted by the chief officer of police for the area in which the site is situated, is, subject to sub-paragraph (b), that chief officer of police;

b

at a site which is, or forms part of, an authorised defence site or a new nuclear build site, is the ONR;

c

in any other case, is the Executive.

Enforcement in respect of unmarked plastic explosives14

1

The enforcing authority for regulation 38 is the Executive.

2

Despite sub-paragraph (1), the ONR is the enforcing authority for paragraphs (1) and (2) of regulation 38 as they apply on, or in relation to, an authorised defence site or a new nuclear build site.

Enforcement in respect of transfers, and the placing on the market, of civil explosives15

F101

The Executive is the enforcing authority for regulation 8, Part 13 and paragraph 18 of Schedule 12.

2

Despite sub-paragraph (1), the ONR is the enforcing authority for regulation 8 as it applies on, or in relation to, any activity carried out wholly or mainly on an authorised defence site or a new nuclear build site.

F5SCHEDULE 12ENFORCEMENT POWERS IN RESPECT OF TRANSFERS, AND THE PLACING ON THE MARKET, OF CIVIL EXPLOSIVES, MARKET SURVEILLANCE, COMPLIANCE, WITHDRAWAL AND RECALL NOTICES, DEFENCE OF DUE DILIGENCE, APPEALS AGAINST NOTICES AND FURTHER PROVISIONS IN RELATION TO ENFORCEMENT

Regulation 80

Annotations:

PART 1ENFORCEMENT POWERS IN RESPECT OF TRANSFERS, AND THE PLACING ON THE MARKET, OF CIVIL EXPLOSIVES AND MARKET SURVEILLANCE

Enforcement powers, market surveillance and designation of market surveillance authority

1

This Part applies in relation to—

a

the enforcement of regulation 8 by the Executive or the ONR; and

b

the enforcement of Part 13, and market surveillance in relation to that Part by the Executive.

2

In Great Britain, the Executive is designated as the market surveillance authority for the purposes of F52these Regulations and RAMS in respect of civil explosives.

3

In its enforcement of Part 13, the Executive must enforce RAMS in respect of its application to civil explosives.

4

When enforcing Part 13, the enforcing authority must exercise its powers in a manner which is consistent with—

a

paragraph 8 (evaluation of civil explosives presenting a risk);

b

paragraph 9 (enforcement action in respect of civil explosives which are not in conformity and which present a risk);

F53c

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

d

paragraph 11 (enforcement action in respect of civil explosives which are in conformity, but present a risk);

e

paragraph 12 (enforcement action in respect of formal non-compliance); and

f

paragraph 13 (restrictive measures).

5

Subject to paragraph 7, and to the extent that they would not otherwise do so in the case of regulation 8, the provisions of the 1974 Act referred to in paragraph 6 apply to regulation 8 and Part 13 for the purposes of their enforcement as if that regulation and that Part were health and safety regulations for the purposes of that Act.

6

In relation to the enforcement of the provisions referred to in paragraph 1—

a

sections 19 to 28, 33 to 35, 38, 39, 41 42 and 46 of, and Schedule 3A to, the 1974 Act apply as provided in paragraph 7; and

b

sections 36(1) and (2) and 37 of the 1974 Act apply in relation to offences under section 33 of the 1974 Act as applied by paragraph (a) and the modifications specified in paragraph 7.

7

1

For the purposes of the enforcement of the provisions referred to in paragraph 1, and in respect of any related proceedings for a contravention of any of those provisions, the provisions of the 1974 Act mentioned in paragraph 6 apply as if—

a

any reference to the relevant statutory provisions in those provisions were a reference to—

i

those provisions as modified by this paragraph; and

ii

regulation 8 and Part 13 of these Regulations;

b

references to “risk” were references to “risk” within the meaning of regulation 2(12);

c

in section 19—

i

in subsection (1)—

aa

“Every enforcing authority” were a reference to the Executive or the ONR, as the case may be; and

ab

“within its field of responsibility” were omitted;

ii

in subsection (2), paragraph (b) were omitted; and

iii

in subsection (3)—

aa

“the enforcing authority” were a reference to the Executive or the ONR, as the case may be; and

ab

“which appointed him” were omitted;

d

in section 20—

i

in subsection (1), “within the field of responsibility of the enforcing authority which appointed him” were omitted;

ii

in subsection 2(c)(i), “his (the inspector’s) enforcing authority” were a reference to the Executive or the ONR, as the case may be;

iii

in subsection 2(h), the reference to any article or substance which appears to an inspector to have caused or to be likely to cause danger to health or safety included a reference to any civil explosive item which an inspector has reasonable cause to believe will contravene the relevant statutory provisions, present a risk or be unlawfully acquired, used or dealt in;

iv

in subsection (2)(i), the reference to “the preceding paragraph” included a reference to subsection (2)(h) as modified by this paragraph;

v

subsection (3) were omitted;

vi

in subsections (4) and (5), the reference to subsection (2)(h) included a reference to subsection (2)(h) as modified by this paragraph; and

vii

in subsection (6), the reference to subsection (2)(i) included a reference to subsection (2)(i) as modified by this paragraph;

e

in section 21—

i

before paragraph (a), there were inserted—

za

is making available on the market a civil explosive which presents a risk;

ii

after “specifying the”, there was inserted “risk, or”; and

iii

after “requiring that person to”, there were inserted “address the risk or”;

f

in section 22, as well as permitting an inspector to serve a prohibition notice in the circumstances specified in subsection (2), it permitted an inspector to serve a prohibition notice on a person if, as regards any activities to which the section applies, the inspector is of the opinion that, as carried on or likely to be carried on by or under the control of that person, the activities involve or, as the case may be, will involve a risk or a contravention of any of the relevant statutory provisions (as referred to in this paragraph);

g

in section 23, subsections (3), (4) and (6) were omitted;

h

in section 25A, in subsection (1)—

aa

“an enforcing authority” were a reference to the Executive or the ONR, as the case may be; and

ab

before “inspector” where it first appears, there were inserted “an”;

i

in section 26—

aa

“the enforcing authority” were a reference to the Executive or the ONR, as the case may be; and

ab

“which appointed him” were omitted;

j

in section 27, in subsection (1)—

i

paragraph (b) were omitted; and

ii

“or, as the case may be, to the enforcing authority in question” were omitted;

k

in section 27A, in subsection (2)—

i

for “an enforcing authority” there were substituted “the Executive”; and

ii

the words from “, other than the Office for Nuclear Regulation” to the end were omitted;

l

in section 28—

i

in subsection (1)(a)—

aa

“, other than the Office for Nuclear Regulation (or an inspector appointed by it),” were omitted; and

bb

“, by virtue of section 43A(6) below” were omitted;

ii

in subsection (3)(a), “or any enforcing authority” were omitted;

iii

in subsection (4)—

aa

“or an enforcing authority” were omitted; and

bb

“, (including in the case of an enforcing authority, any inspector appointed by it)” were omitted;

iv

in subsection (5)(a), “or the purposes of the enforcing authority in question in connection with the relevant statutory provisions” were omitted;

v

in subsection (7)—

aa

“14(4)(a) or” were omitted; and

bb

for paragraph (b), there were substituted—

b

for the purposes of any legal proceedings or for the purposes of a report of any such proceedings;

vi

subsection (9B) were omitted;

m

in section 33—

i

in subsection (1), paragraphs (a), (b) and (d) were omitted; and

ii

subsection (2) has effect subject to a subsection (2A) as follows—

2

The maximum penalty for an offence under this section involving a contravention of Part 13 of the Explosives Regulations 2014 (S.I. 2014/1638) is—

a

on summary conviction—

i

in England and Wales, imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or a fine, or both;

ii

in Scotland, imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, or both; and

b

on conviction on indictment, imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years, or a fine, or both.

iii

subsection (3) were omitted;

n

in section 34—

i

in subsection (1)—

aa

paragraphs (a) and (b) were omitted;

bb

for the words from “and it appears” to the end, there were substituted—

and it appears from the investigation or, in a case falling within paragraph (d), from the proceedings at the inquiry, that any of the relevant statutory provisions was contravened at a time which is material in relation to the subject-matter of the investigation or inquiry, summary proceedings against any person liable to be proceeded against in respect of the contravention may be commenced at any time within three months of the conclusion of the investigation or inquiry.

ii

in subsection (3)—

aa

the reference to six months were a reference to twelve months; and

ab

“a responsible enforcing authority”, “an enforcing authority” and “the enforcing authority” were each, respectively, a reference to the Executive or the ONR, as the case may be;

iii

in subsection (4)—

aa

the reference to “the designer, manufacturer, importer or supplier of any thing” were a reference to an economic operator within the meaning of regulation 2(1); and

bb

“and in that subsection” to the end were omitted; and

iv

subsection (6) were omitted;

o

in section 35, “any enforcing authority” were a reference to the Executive or the ONR, as the case may be;

p

in section 39—

aa

“the enforcing authority” were a reference to the Executive or the ONR, as the case may be; and

ab

“which appointed him” were omitted; and

q

in section 42, the reference in subsection (3A) to “an explosive article or substance” were a reference to a civil explosive article or substance within the meaning of regulation 33(8).”.

2

The provisions of the 1974 Act referred to in paragraph 6, except sections 19 and 20, do not apply in relation to the performance of the functions of the Secretary of State under Sub-Part C of Part 13 or the functions under that Part of a notified body which is a public body performing its functions on behalf of the Crown.

Evaluation of civil explosives presenting a risk8

Where the Executive has sufficient reason to believe that a civil explosive presents a risk, the Executive must carry out an evaluation in relation to the civil explosive covering the relevant requirements of Part 13 applying in respect of that civil explosive.

Enforcement action in respect of civil explosives which are not in conformity and which present a risk9

1

Where, in the course of the evaluation referred to in paragraph 8, the Executive finds that the civil explosive is not in conformity with Part 13, it must, without delay, require a relevant economic operator to—

a

take appropriate corrective actions to bring the civil explosive into conformity with those requirements within a prescribed period;

b

withdraw the civil explosive within a prescribed period; or

c

recall the civil explosive within a prescribed period.

2

The Executive must inform the F26approved body which carried out the conformity assessment procedure in respect of the civil explosive of—

a

the respect in which the civil explosive is not in conformity with Part 13; and

b

the actions which the Executive is requiring the relevant economic operator to take.

3

Where the Executive considers that the lack of conformity referred to in sub-paragraph (1) is not restricted to the United Kingdom, it must notify the Secretary of State of—

a

the results of the evaluation; and

b

the actions which it has required the economic operator to take.

F274

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

5

Where the relevant economic operator does not take adequate corrective action within the prescribed period, the Executive must take appropriate measures to—

a

prohibit or restrict the civil explosive being made available on the market in the United Kingdom;

b

withdraw the civil explosive from the United Kingdom market; or

c

recall the civil explosive.

6

Where the Executive takes measures under sub-paragraph (5), it must notify the Secretary of State of those measures without delay.

F287

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

8

F29The notice in sub-paragraph (6) must include details about the civil explosive and, in particular—

a

the data necessary for the identification of the civil explosive which is not in conformity with Part 13;

b

the origin of the civil explosive;

c

the nature of the lack of conformity alleged and the risk involved;

d

the nature and duration of the measures taken;

e

the arguments put forward by the relevant economic operator; and

f

whether the lack of conformity is due to either of the following—

i

failure of the civil explosive to meet requirements relating to a risk;

ii

shortcomings in the F30designated standards referred to in regulation 65 (presumption of conformity) conferring a presumption of conformity.

9

In this paragraph, “prescribed period” means a period which is—

a

prescribed by the Executive; and

b

reasonable and commensurate with the nature of the risk presented by the civil explosive.

10

For the purposes of sub-paragraph (5), “take appropriate measures” includes the Executive making arrangements with the F31relevant authority for Northern Ireland as to measures referred to in that sub-paragraph being taken there by that authority.

EU safeguarding procedureF4610

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Enforcement action in respect of civil explosives which are in conformity, but present a risk11

1

Where, having carried out an evaluation under paragraph 8, the Executive finds that, although a civil explosive is in conformity with Part 13 it presents a risk, the Executive must require a relevant economic operator to take appropriate measures to—

a

ensure that the civil explosive concerned, when placed on the market, no longer presents a risk;

b

withdraw the civil explosive within a prescribed period; or

c

recall the civil explosive within a prescribed period.

2

Where the Executive takes measures under sub-paragraph (1), it must notify the Secretary of State immediately.

F433

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

4

F44The notice referred to in sub-paragraph (2) must include details about the civil explosive and, in particular—

a

the data necessary for the identification of the civil explosive concerned;

b

the origin and the supply chain of the civil explosive;

c

the nature of the risk involved; and

d

the nature and duration of the measures taken by the Executive.

5

In this paragraph, “prescribed period” means a period which is—

a

prescribed by the Executive; and

b

reasonable and commensurate with the nature of the risk presented by the civil explosive.

Enforcement action in respect of formal non-compliance12

1

Where the Executive makes one of the following findings relating to a civil explosive, it must require a relevant economic operator to put an end to the non-compliance concerned within a specified period—

a

the F17UK marking

i

has not been affixed; or

ii

has been affixed otherwise than in accordance with regulations 64 (prohibition on improper use of F17UK marking) and 68 (F17UK marking);

b

where F20an approved body is involved in the production control phase for the civil explosive, the identification number of F21the approved body

i

has not been affixed; or

ii

has been affixed otherwise than in accordance with regulation 68;

c

the F19declaration of conformity

i

has not been drawn up; or

ii

has been drawn up otherwise than in accordance with regulations 41 (F19declaration of conformity and F18UK marking) and 67 (F19declaration of conformity);

d

the technical documentation is either not available or not complete;

e

the following information that is required in respect of the civil explosive is absent, false or incomplete—

i

the information specified in regulation 44 (traceability of civil explosives to which regulations 33, 34 and 36 do not apply);

ii

the information specified in regulation 50 (information identifying importer); or

f

any other administrative requirement imposed on the manufacturer or importer under Part 13 has not been fulfilled.

2

Until the specified period has elapsed, the Executive must not commence proceedings in relation to Part 13 of these Regulations, or take any other enforcement action in relation to that Part, against the relevant economic operator in respect of the non-compliance concerned.

3

Where the non-compliance referred to in sub-paragraph (1) persists, the Executive must take appropriate measures to—

a

restrict or prohibit the civil explosive being made available on the market;

b

ensure that the civil explosive is withdrawn; or

c

ensure that the civil explosive is recalled.

4

This paragraph does not apply where a civil explosive presents a risk.

Restrictive measures13

When enforcing Part 13, the Executive must comply with the requirements of Article 21 of RAMS, as amended from time to time, in relation to any measure to—

a

prohibit or restrict a civil explosive being made available on the market;

b

withdraw a civil explosive; or

c

recall a civil explosive.

PART 2COMPLIANCE, WITHDRAWAL AND RECALL NOTICES

Compliance, withdrawal and recall notices14

In addition to the powers available to the Executive under Part 1 of this Schedule for enforcing Part 13, the Executive may use the powers set out in this Part.

Compliance notice15

1

The Executive may serve a compliance notice on a relevant economic operator in respect of a civil explosive if the Executive has reasonable grounds for believing that there is non-compliance.

2

A compliance notice must—

a

require the relevant economic operator on which it is served to—

i

end the non-compliance within such period as may be specified in the notice; or

ii

provide evidence, within such period as may be specified in the notice, demonstrating to the satisfaction of the Executive that the non-compliance has not in fact occurred; and

b

warn the economic operator that, if the non-compliance persists or if satisfactory evidence has not been produced under paragraph (a) within the period specified in the notice, further action may be taken in respect of the civil explosive or any civil explosive of the same type made available on the market by that relevant economic operator.

3

A compliance notice may include directions as to the measures to be taken by the economic operator to secure compliance, including different ways of securing compliance.

4

Subject to sub-paragraph (5), the Executive may revoke or vary a compliance notice by serving a notification on the economic operator.

5

The Executive may not vary a compliance notice so as to make it more restrictive for the economic operator or more onerous for the economic operator to comply.

Withdrawal notice16

1

The Executive may serve a withdrawal notice on a relevant economic operator in respect of a civil explosive if the Executive has reasonable grounds for believing that—

a

the civil explosive has been made available on the market; and

b

there is non-compliance.

2

A withdrawal notice must prohibit the relevant economic operator from making the civil explosive available on the market without the consent of the Executive.

3

A withdrawal notice may require the relevant economic operator to take action to alert end-users to any risk presented by the civil explosive.

4

A withdrawal notice may require the relevant economic operator to keep the Executive informed of the whereabouts of any civil explosive referred to in the notice.

5

A consent given by the Executive pursuant to a withdrawal notice may impose such conditions on the making available on the market as the Executive considers appropriate.

6

Subject to sub-paragraph (7), the Executive may revoke or vary a withdrawal notice by serving a notification on the economic operator.

7

The Executive may not vary a withdrawal notice so as to make it more restrictive for the economic operator or more onerous for the economic operator to comply.

Recall notice17

1

The Executive may serve a recall notice on a relevant economic operator in respect of a civil explosive if the Executive has reasonable grounds for believing that—

a

the civil explosive has been made available to end-users; and

b

there is non-compliance.

2

A recall notice must require the relevant economic operator to use reasonable endeavours to organise the return of the civil explosive from end-users to the relevant economic operator or another person specified in the notice.

3

A recall notice may—

a

require the recall to be effected in accordance with a code of practice;

b

require the relevant economic operator to—

i

contact end-users in order to inform them of the recall, to the extent that it is practicable to do so;

ii

publish a notice in such form and such manner as is likely to bring to the attention of end-users any risk the civil explosive poses and the fact of the recall; or

iii

make arrangements for the collection or return of the civil explosive from end-users or its disposal; or

c

impose such additional requirements on the relevant economic operator as are reasonable and practicable with a view to achieving the return of the civil explosive.

4

In determining what requirements to include in a recall notice, the Executive must take into consideration the need to encourage distributors and end-users to contribute to its implementation.

5

A recall notice may only be issued by the Executive where—

a

other action which it may require under or by virtue of this Schedule would not suffice to address the non-compliance;

b

the action being undertaken by the relevant economic operator is unsatisfactory or insufficient to address the non-compliance;

c

the Executive has given not less than 10 days’ notice to the relevant economic operator of its intention to serve such a notice; and

d

the Executive has taken account of any advice obtained under sub-paragraph (6).

6

A relevant economic operator which has received notice from the Executive of an intention to serve a recall notice may at any time prior to the service of the recall notice require the Executive to seek the advice of such person as the Institute determines on the questions of—

a

whether there is non-compliance; and

b

whether the issue of a recall notice would be proportionate.

7

Sub-paragraphs (5)(b), (c) and (d) do not apply in the case of a civil explosive presenting a serious risk requiring, in the view of the Executive, urgent action.

8

Where a relevant economic operator requires the Executive to seek advice under sub-paragraph (6), that relevant economic operator is to be responsible for the fees, costs and expenses of the Institute and of the person appointed by the Institute to advise the Executive.

9

In this regulation, “Institute” means the charitable organisation with the registered number 803725 and known as the Chartered Institute of Arbitrators.

10

A recall notice served by the Executive may require the relevant economic operator to keep the Executive informed of the whereabouts of a civil explosive to which the recall notice relates, so far as the relevant economic operator is able to do so.

11

Subject to sub-paragraph (12), the Executive may revoke or vary a recall notice by serving a notification on the economic operator.

12

The Executive may not vary a recall notice so as to make it more restrictive for the economic operator or more onerous for the economic operator to comply.

Compliance with a withdrawal or recall notice18

1

A person must not contravene any requirement or prohibition imposed by a withdrawal or recall notice served pursuant to this Part (including any such notice as varied by the Executive or on appeal).

2

The provisions of section 33(1)(c) of the 1974 Act apply to sub-paragraph (1) for the purposes of its enforcement as if it were health and safety regulations for the purposes of that Act.

3

The maximum penalty for an offence under section 33(1)(c) of the 1974 Act, as applied by sub-paragraph (2), is determined in accordance with sub-paragraph (4).

4

The penalty referred to in sub-paragraph (3) is—

a

on summary conviction—

i

in England and Wales, imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or a fine, or both;

ii

in Scotland, imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, or both; and

b

on conviction on indictment, imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years, or a fine, or both.

Interpretation19

In this Part, “non-compliance” means that a civil explosive—

a

presents a risk; or

b

is not in conformity with Part 13 or RAMS in its application to civil explosives.

PART 3DEFENCE OF DUE DILIGENCE, APPEALS AGAINST NOTICES AND FURTHER PROVISIONS IN RELATION TO ENFORCEMENT

Defence of due diligence20

1

Subject to paragraphs (2) and (4), in proceedings for an offence under section 33(1)(c) of the 1974 Act involving a contravention of Part 13 or paragraph 18, it is a defence for a person (“P”) to show that P took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to avoid committing the offence.

2

P may not rely on a defence under paragraph (1) which involves a third party allegation unless P has—

a

served a notice in accordance with paragraph (3); or

b

obtained the leave of the court.

3

The notice must—

a

give any information in P’s possession which identifies or assists in identifying the person who—

i

committed the act or default; or

ii

supplied the information on which P relied; and

b

be served on the person bringing the proceedings not less than 7 clear days before—

i

in England and Wales, the hearing of the proceedings;

ii

in Scotland, the trial diet.

4

P may not rely on a defence under paragraph (1) which involves an allegation that the commission of the offence was due to reliance on information supplied by another person unless it was reasonable for P to have relied upon the information, having regard in particular—

a

to the steps that P took, and those which might reasonably have been taken, for the purpose of verifying the information; and

b

to whether P had any reason to disbelieve the information.

5

In this regulation, “third party allegation” means an allegation that the commission of the offence was due—

a

to the act or default of another person; or

b

to reliance on information supplied by another person.

Service of a compliance, withdrawal or recall notice or a defence of due diligence notice21

1

Section 46 of the 1974 Act applies to the service of—

a

a compliance, withdrawal or recall notice served by the Executive as it applies to notices served under that Act on a person other than an inspector appointed under section 19 of that Act; and

b

a notice served by a person under paragraph 20 as it applies to notices served under that Act on an inspector appointed under section 19 of that Act.

Action by enforcing authority22

1

The Executive may itself take action which an economic operator could have been required to take by a notice served under or by virtue of Parts 1 or 2 of this Schedule where the conditions for serving such a notice are met and either—

a

the Executive has been unable to identify any economic operator on whom to serve such a notice; or

b

the economic operator on whom such a notice has been served has failed to comply with it.

2

If the Executive has taken action as a result of the condition in paragraph (1)(b) being met, the Executive may recover from the economic operator, as a civil debt, any costs or expenses reasonably incurred by the Executive in taking the action.

3

A civil debt recoverable under paragraph (2) may be recovered summarily in England and Wales by way of a complaint pursuant to section 58 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980.

Appeals against notices23

1

An application for an order to vary or set aside the terms of a notice served under Part 2 of this Schedule may be made to the appropriate court—

a

by the economic operator on whom the notice has been served; and

b

in the case of a notice other than a recall notice, by a person having an interest in the civil explosive in respect of which the notice has been served.

2

An application must be made before the end of the period of 21 days beginning with the day on which the notice was served.

3

The appropriate court may only make an order setting aside a notice served under Part 2 of this Schedule if satisfied—

a

that the civil explosive to which that notice relates is in conformity with Part 13 and does not present a risk; or

b

that the enforcing authority failed to comply with paragraph 4 when serving the notice.

4

On an application to vary the terms of a notice served by virtue of Part 2 of this Schedule, the appropriate court may vary the terms of the notice as it considers appropriate.

5

In this paragraph, the “appropriate court” is to be determined in accordance with paragraph 24 (appropriate court for appeals against notices).

Appropriate court for appeals against notices24

1

In England and Wales, the appropriate court for the purposes of paragraph 23 is—

a

the court in which proceedings have been brought for an offence in relation to the civil explosive under section 33 of the 1974 Act;

b

an employment tribunal seized of appeal proceedings against a notice which relates to the civil explosive and which has been served under or by virtue of Part 1 of this Schedule; or

c

in any other case, a magistrates’ court.

2

In Scotland, the appropriate court for the purposes of paragraph 23 is—

a

the sheriff of a sheriffdom in which the person making the appeal resides or has a registered or principal office; or

b

an employment tribunal seized of appeal proceedings against a notice which relates to the civil explosive and which has been served under or by virtue of Part 1 of this Schedule.

3

A person aggrieved by an order made by a magistrates’ court in England and Wales pursuant to an application under paragraph 23, or by a decision of such a court not to make such an order, may appeal against that order or decision to the Crown Court.

SCHEDULE 13AMENDMENTS

Regulation 48(1)

PART 1AMENDMENTS TO PRIMARY LEGISLATION

Explosives Act 18751

1

The Explosives Act 1875 M20 is amended as follows.

2

Omit sections 23 and 61.

3

In section 74 (seizure and detention of explosives liable to forfeiture) —

a

in the opening words, omit “any inspector appointed by the Health and Safety Executive under section 19 of the 1974 Act, or”;

b

in subsection (1)—

i

for the words from “he is an inspector” to “a justice”, substitute “ he is authorised by an order from a justice ”; and

ii

omit “or of an inspector appointed by the Health and Safety Executive under section 19 of the 1974 Act,”; and

c

after subsection (6), omit the words from “In this section” to the end of the section.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M20

1875 c. 17 (38 & 39 Vict.); section 23 was substituted by S.I. 2005/1082 in relation to England, Wales and Scotland. Sections 61 and 74 were amended by the Energy Act 2013 (C. 32), Schedule 12, Part 5, paragraphs 50 and 52 and section 61 was additionally amended by S.I. 1974/1885.

London Building Act 19302

In section 143 of the London Building Act 1930 M21 (regulations for building near dangerous business), in subsection (4)(a), for “the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005” substitute “ the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M21

1930 c. clviii; section 143(4)(a) was amended by S.I. 2005/1082.

Fireworks Act 19513

The Fireworks Act 1951 M22 is repealed.

Customs and Excise Management Act 19794

In section 75(1) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 M23 (explosives), for “the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005” substitute “ the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”.

Isle of Man Act 19795

In section 8(2) of the Isle of Man Act 1979 M24 (removal of goods from Isle of Man to United Kingdom)—

a

at the end of paragraph (b) insert “ or ”; and

b

for paragraphs (c) and (d) substitute —

c

any explosives the importation of which into the United Kingdom is prohibited by regulation 29 of the Explosives Regulations 2014.

Environmental Protection Act 19906

In section 142(7) of the Environmental Protection Act 1990 M25 (powers to obtain information about potentially hazardous substances), for “the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005” substitute “ the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M25

1990 c.43; the entry relating to the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005 in section 142(7) was inserted by S.I. 2005/1082.

Fireworks Act 20037

In section 14(2) of the Fireworks Act 2003 M26 (prohibition of supply etc. of other explosives), for “the Explosives Act 1875 (c. 17)” substitute “ the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”.

Energy Act 20138

1

The Energy Act 2013 M27 is amended as follows.

2

In Schedule 12 (minor and consequential amendments relating to Part 3), omit paragraphs 50 to 52.

PART 2AMENDMENTS TO SECONDARY LEGISLATION

The Clean Air (Emission of Dark Smoke) (Exemption) Regulations 19699

In Schedule 1 to the Clean Air (Emission of Dark Smoke) (Exemption) Regulations 1969 M28 (exempted matter), for “the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005” substitute “ the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”.

The Explosives Acts 1875 and 1923 etc. (Repeals and Modifications) Regulations 197410

In Schedule 2 to the Explosives Acts 1875 and 1923 etc. (Repeals and Modifications) Regulations 1974 M29 (the Explosives Act 1875: modifications), omit paragraph 5.

The Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (Exceptions) Order 197511

The Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (Exceptions) Order 1975 M30 is amended as follows—

a

in paragraph 8 of Part III of Schedule 1 (excepted professions, offices, employments, work and occupations), for “regulations 4 and 7 of the Control of Explosives Regulations 1991”, substitute “ regulations 4, 5 and 11 of the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”;

b

in paragraph 3 of Schedule 2 (excepted licences, certificates and permits), for “regulations 4 and 7 of the Control of Explosives Regulations 1991”, substitute “ regulations 4, 5 and 11 of the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”; and

c

for paragraph 13 of Schedule 3 (excepted proceedings) substitute—

13

Proceedings in respect of—

a

an application to the chief officer of police for an explosives certificate pursuant to regulations 4, 5 and 11 of the Explosives Regulations 2014 (“the 2014 Regulations”) as to the fitness of the applicant to acquire or acquire and keep explosives, including consideration as to whether to refuse the application on any of the grounds specified in regulation 19 of the 2014 Regulations;

b

the revocation of such certificates pursuant to regulation 21 of the 2014 Regulations;

c

an appeal or application pursuant to regulation 22 of the 2014 Regulations against a decision taken under regulation 19 or 21.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M30

S.I. 1975/1023, amended by S.I. 2005/1082 and revoked, in relation to Scotland, by S.S.I 2003/321. There are other amending instruments but none is relevant.

The Isles of Scilly (Functions) Order 197912

In article 3(e) of the Isles of Scilly (Functions) Order 1979 M31

a

omit “the Explosives Act 1875;”; and

b

for “the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005” substitute “ the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M31

S.I. 1979/72, amended by S.I. 2005/1082; there are other amending instruments but none is relevant.

The Dangerous Substances in Harbour Areas Regulations 198713

Regulation 33 of the Dangerous Substances in Harbour Areas Regulations 1987 M32 (Application of Part IX) is amended as follows—

a

in sub-paragraph (b) of paragraph 1, for the words from “article 8” to “Order 2001” substitute “ article 11 of the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 (Application Outside Great Britain) Order 2013 M33; and

b

in sub-paragraph (e) of paragraph 2—

i

in paragraph (i), for “ licensed under the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005” substitute “ in relation to which a person holds a licence under the Explosives Regulations 2014 (“the 2014 Regulations”) ”; and

ii

for paragraph (ii), substitute—

ii

in relation to which a person is deemed to be licensed under the 2014 Regulations by virtue of regulation 47(1) of those Regulations in cases where, in relation to that deemed licence, the assent of the local authority would have been required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of the 2014 Regulations had a licence been applied for under those Regulations;

The Planning (Hazardous Substances) Regulations 199214

1

Schedule 1 to the Planning (Hazardous Substances) Regulations 1992 M34 (hazardous substances and controlled quantities) is amended as follows.

F32

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

3

In column 1 of entry number 54 in Part A as it applies in Wales, for paragraph (1) substitute—

1

cellulose nitrate—

a

for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Health and Safety Executive where it is the licensing authority by virtue of—

i

paragraph 1(b) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

ii

paragraph 1(d) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations; or

b

for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Office for Nuclear Regulation in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

F44

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

5

In Part B as it applies in Wales—

a

in column 1 of entry 4, for the words from “EXPLOSIVE” to “Regulations 1987” substitute—

EXPLOSIVE (see Note 2 to this Part) where the substance, preparation or article falls under UN/ADR Division 1.4, excluding those—

  1. a

    for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Health and Safety Executive where it is the licensing authority by virtue of —

    1. i

      paragraph 1(b) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

    2. ii

      paragraph 1(d) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations; or

  2. b

    for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Office for Nuclear Regulation in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

  3. c

    licensed under the Dangerous Substances in Harbour Areas Regulations 1987

b

in column 1 of entry 5, for the words from “EXPLOSIVE” to “Regulations 1987 substitute—

EXPLOSIVE (see Note 2 to this Part) where the substance, preparation or article falls under any of: UN/ADR Divisions 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 1.5 or 1.6 or risk phrase R2 or R3, excluding those —

  1. a

    for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Health and Safety Executive where it is the licensing authority by virtue of—

    1. i

      paragraph 1(b) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

    2. ii

      paragraph 1(d) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations; or

  2. b

    for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Office for Nuclear Regulation in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

  3. c

    licensed under the Dangerous Substances in Harbour Areas Regulations 1987

Coal and Other Safety-Lamp Mines (Explosives) Regulations 199315

In regulation 2(1) of the Coal and Other Safety-Lamp Mines (Explosives) Regulations 1993 M35 (interpretation), in the definition of “explosives store” for “or registration made under the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005” substitute “ under the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”.

The Town and Country Planning (Hazardous Substances) (Scotland) Regulations 199316

Schedule 1 to the Town and Country Planning (Hazardous Substances) (Scotland) Regulations 1993 M36 (hazardous substances and controlled quantities) is amended as follows—

a

in Part A, in column 1 of entry number 54, for paragraph (1), substitute—

1

cellulose nitrate—

a

for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Health and Safety Executive where it is the licensing authority by virtue of —

i

paragraph 1(b) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

ii

paragraph 1(d) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations; or

b

for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Office for Nuclear Regulation in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

b

in Part B—

i

in column 1 of entry number 4, for the words from “EXPLOSIVE” to “Regulations 1987” substitute—

EXPLOSIVE (see Note 2 to Part B) where the substance, preparation or article falls under UN/ADR Division 1.4, excluding those —

  1. a

    for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Health and Safety Executive where it is the licensing authority by virtue of —

    1. i

      paragraph 1(b) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

    2. ii

      paragraph 1(d) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations; or

  2. b

    for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Office for Nuclear Regulation in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

  3. c

    licensed under the Dangerous Substances in Harbour Areas Regulations 1987

ii

in column 1 of entry number 5, for the words from “EXPLOSIVE” to “Regulations 1987”, substitute—

EXPLOSIVE (see Note 2 to Part B) where the substance, preparation or article falls under any of: UN/ADR Divisions 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 1.5 or 1.6 or risk phrase R2 or R3, excluding those—

  1. a

    for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Health and Safety Executive where it is the licensing authority by virtue of—

    1. i

      paragraph 1(b) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

    2. ii

      paragraph 1(d) of Schedule 1 to those Regulations; or

  2. b

    for which a licence is required and has been granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 by the Office for Nuclear Regulation in cases where the assent of the local authority was required pursuant to regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations; or

  3. c

    licensed under the Dangerous Substances in Harbour Areas Regulations 1987

The Health and Safety (Enforcing Authority) Regulations 199817

In regulation 4 of the Health and Safety (Enforcing Authority) Regulations 1998 M37 (exceptions), omit paragraphs (7) to (12).

The Visiting Forces and International Headquarters (Application of Law) Order 199918

In Schedule 6 to the Visiting Forces and International Headquarters (Application of Law) Order 1999 M38 (enactments conferring specific exemptions, privileges etc.), omit the entry relating to the Fireworks Act 1951.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M38

S.I. 1999/1736, to which there are amendments not relevant to these Regulations.

The Quarries Regulations 199919

In regulation 2(1) of the Quarries Regulations 1999 M39 (interpretation), in the definition of “explosives store”, for “or registration made under the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005” substitute “ under the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”.

Building (Scotland) Regulations 200420

For paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Building (Scotland) Regulations 2004 M40 (exempted buildings and services, fittings and equipment), substitute—

1

1

Any building in which explosives are manufactured or stored under a licence granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 where the whole building is used for that manufacture or storage.

2

Where only a part of a building is used for the manufacture or storage of explosives under a licence granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014, that part of the building where the licence specifies that that manufacture or storage may take place.

3

Except— sub-paragraphs (1) and (2) do not include any building or, as the case may be, any part of a building as is referred to in, respectively, sub-paragraph (1) or (2) in relation to which—

a

no minimum separation distance is required to be maintained by virtue of regulation 27(2)(a) or (3) of the Explosives Regulations 2014; or

b

a minimum separation distance of 0 metres is prescribed by virtue of regulation 27(1) of, and Schedule 5 to, the Explosives Regulations 2014 and the requirement for the assent of the local authority under regulation 13(3) of those Regulations did not apply by virtue of regulation 13(4)(a) of those Regulations.

The REACH Enforcement Regulations 200821

In paragraph 1 of Part 3 of Schedule 3 to the REACH Enforcement Regulations 2008 M41 (health and safety enforcement) for sub-paragraph (t), substitute—

t

in relation to Great Britain, the manufacture or storage of ammonium nitrate blasting intermediate under the Explosives Regulations 2014.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M41

S.I. 2008/2852, to which there are amendments not relevant to these Regulations.

The Health and Safety (Miscellaneous Amendments and Revocations) Regulations 200922

In regulation 2 of the Health and Safety (Miscellaneous Amendments and Revocations) Regulations 2009 M42 (extension outside Great Britain)—

a

omit paragraphs (a) and (b); and

b

omit “, respectively, regulation 14 of the Control of Explosives Regulations 1991, regulation 3(1)(b) of the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005 and”.

The Carriage of Dangerous Goods and Use of Transportable Pressure Equipment Regulations 200923

In regulation 7 of the Carriage of Dangerous Goods and Use of Transportable Pressure Equipment Regulations 2009 M43 (additional security requirements for carriage by road), for paragraph (5)(c) substitute—

c

a safe and secure place” means a safe and secure place—

i

within a site in relation to which a person is licensed to manufacture or store explosives under regulation 13 of the Explosives Regulations 2014; or

ii

at which the manufacture or storage of explosives may lawfully take place by virtue of a certificate of exemption granted under those Regulations.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M43

S.I. 2009/1348, to which there are amendments not relevant to these Regulations.

The Building Regulations 201024

For paragraph 1 of Class 1 of Schedule 2 to the Building Regulations 2010 M44 (exempt buildings and work), substitute—

1

1

Any building in which explosives are manufactured or stored under a licence granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 where—

a

the whole building is used for that manufacture or storage, and either

b

a minimum separation distance of greater than 0 metres is prescribed by virtue of regulation 27(1) of, and Schedule 5 to, those Regulations; or

c

a minimum separation distance of 0 metres is prescribed by virtue of the provisions referred to in paragraph (b) and the assent of the local authority was required by regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations.

2

Where only a part of a building is used for the manufacture or storage of explosives under a licence granted under the Explosives Regulations 2014 and —

a

a minimum separation distance of greater than 0 metres is prescribed by virtue of regulation 27(1) of, and Schedule 5 to, those Regulations; or

b

a minimum separation distance of 0 metres is prescribed by virtue of the provisions referred to in paragraph (a) and the assent of the local authority was required by regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or would have been so required but for regulation 13(4)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f) or (g) of those Regulations,

that part of the building where the licence specifies that that manufacture or storage may take place.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M44

S.I. 2010/2214, to which there are amendments not relevant to these Regulations.

The Carriage of Dangerous Goods and Use of Transportable Pressure Equipment (Amendment) Regulations 201125

The Carriage of Dangerous Goods and Use of Transportable Pressure Equipment (Amendment) Regulations 2011 M45 are amended as follows—

a

in regulation 17(2) (consequential amendments), omit sub-paragraphs (c), (d) and (e); and

b

in the Schedule omit paragraphs 3, 4 and 5.

The Health and Safety (Fees) Regulations 201226

The Health and Safety (Fees) Regulations 2012 M46 are amended as follows.

27

In regulation 1(4) (citation, commencement and interpretation), for “explosives certificate, licence or registration” substitute “ explosive certificate or licence ”.

28

1

In regulation 9 (fees payable under the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005 and certain other provisions concerning explosives, including acetylene, and under the Petroleum (Consolidation) Act 1928 and the Petroleum (Transfer of Licences) Act 1936)—

a

for paragraph (1), substitute—

1

Where an application in relation to a provision specified in column 1 of Part 1 of Schedule 8, for a purpose specified in column 2 of that Part, is made to a licensing authority which is the licensing authority by virtue of—

a

paragraph 1(c) or (d) of Schedule 1 to the 2014 Regulations, or

b

paragraphs 1(b), 2 or 4 of that Schedule in cases where the assent of the local authority is required under regulation 13(3) of those Regulations or is not required by virtue of regulation 13(4)(b) to (g) of those Regulations,

the fee specified in the corresponding entry in column 3 of that Part is payable by the applicant to that licensing authority.

b

in paragraph (2), after “manufacture” insert “ or store ”;

c

for paragraph (3), substitute—

3

Where an application in relation to a provision specified in column 1 of Part 2 of Schedule 8, for a purpose specified in column 2 of that Part, is made to a licensing authority, which is the licensing authority by virtue of—

a

paragraph 1(a) of Schedule 1 to the 2014 Regulations, or

b

paragraphs 1(b), 2 or 4 of Schedule 1 to those Regulations in cases where the requirement for assent of the local authority under regulation 13(3) of those Regulations is disapplied by regulation 13(4)(a) of those Regulations,

the fee specified in the corresponding entry in column 3 of that Part is payable by the applicant to that licensing authority.

d

in paragraph (11)—

i

for “1991” substitute “ 2014 ”; and

ii

for “4(6)(d)” substitute “ 19(2)(d) ”; and

e

in paragraph (13)—

i

omit the definition of “the 1991 Regulations”;

ii

for the definition of “the 2005 Regulations” substitute—

the 2014 Regulations” means the Explosives Regulations 2014;

iii

for the definition beginning “ “ammonium nitrate blasting intermediate”” substitute “ “ammonium nitrate blasting intermediate”, “chief officer of police”, “explosives certificate”, “licence”, “licensing authority”, “manufacture”, “on-site mixing”, “prohibited person”, “shooters' powder” and “site” have the same meanings as in the 2014 Regulations;”; and

iv

omit the definition beginning “ “chief officer of police””.

29

In Schedule 8 (fees payable under the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005 and certain other provisions concerning explosives, including acetylene, and under the Petroleum (Consolidation) Act 1928 and the Petroleum (Transfer of Licences) Act 1936)—

a

for the heading and Part 1, substitute—

FEES PAYABLE IN RELATION TO THE EXPLOSIVES REGULATIONS 2014, THE ACETYLENE SAFETY (ENGLAND, WALES AND SCOTLAND) REGULATIONS 2014 AND THE PETROLEUM (CONSOLIDATION) REGULATIONS 2014

PART 1FEES FOR APPLICATIONS FOR LICENCES, OR VARIATIONS TO, OR TRANSFER OF, LICENCES, TO MANUFACTURE OR TO STORE EXPLOSIVES MADE TO LICENSING AUTHORITIES WHICH ARE LICENSING AUTHORITIES BY VIRTUE OF PARAGRAPHS 1(c) OR (d) OF SCHEDULE 1 TO THE EXPLOSIVES REGULATIONS 2014 OR PARAGRAPHS 1(b), 2 OR 4 OF THAT SCHEDULE IN LOCAL AUTHORITY ASSENT CASES OR WHERE NO ASSENT REQUIRED BY VIRTUE OF REGULATION 13(4)(b) TO (g)

Table 1

1

2

3

4

Provision under which a licence is granted

Purpose of application

Fee

Fee for work by Specialist Inspector

The 2014 Regulations

Regulation 13, as extended by regulation 2(2) of those Regulations to the manufacture and storage of ammonium nitrate blasting intermediate

Licence to manufacture explosives not being ammonium nitrate blasting intermediate nor relating to on-site mixing

£631

£127 per hour worked

Licence to manufacture or store only ammonium nitrate blasting intermediate

£156 per hour worked

Licence to manufacture explosives by means of on-site mixing

£234

£127 per hour worked

Licence to store explosives:

£631

£127 per hour worked

Renewal of any of the above licences

£83

£127 per hour worked

Regulation 16

Varying a licence to manufacture or store explosives, not being ammonium nitrate blasting intermediate:

£432

£127 per hour worked

Varying a licence to manufacture or store ammonium nitrate blasting intermediate

£156 per hour worked

Regulation 17

Transfer of any of the above licences

£52

Replacement of any licences referred to in this Part if lost

£52

b

for Part 2 substitute—

PART 2FEES FOR APPLICATIONS FOR LICENCES, OR VARIATIONS TO, OR TRANSFER OF, LICENSES TO STORE EXPLOSIVES MADE TO LICENSING AUTHORITIES WHICH ARE LICENSING AUTHORITIES BY VIRTUE OF PARAGRAPH 1(a) OF SCHEDULE 1 TO THE 2014 REGULATIONS OR PARAGRAPH 1(b), 2 OR 4 OF THAT SCHEDULE IN CASES WHERE LOCAL AUTHORITY ASSENT IS NOT REQUIRED BY VIRTUE OF REGULATION 13(4)(a)

Table 2

1

2

3

Provision under which a licence is granted

Purpose of application

Fee

The 2014 Regulations

Regulation 13

Licence to store explosives where, by virtue of regulation 27 of, and Schedule 5 to, the 2014 Regulations, a minimum separation distance of greater than 0 metres is prescribed:

(a) one year's duration

£178

(b) two years' duration

£234

(c) three years' duration

£292

(d) four years' duration

£360

(e) five years' duration

£407

Licence to store explosives where, by virtue of regulation 27 of, and Schedule 5 to, the 2014 Regulations, no minimum separation distance or a 0 metres minimum separation distance is prescribed:

(a) one year's duration

£105

(b) two years' duration

£136

(c) three years' duration

£166

(d) four years' duration

£198

(e) five years' duration

£229

Renewal of licence to store explosives where, by virtue of regulation 27 of, and Schedule 5 to, the 2014 Regulations, a minimum separation distance of greater than 0 metres is prescribed:

(a) one year's duration

£83

(b) two years' duration

£141

(c) three years' duration

£198

(d) four years' duration

£256

(e) five years' duration

£313

Renewal of licence to store explosives where, by virtue of regulation 27 of, and Schedule 5 to, the 2014 Regulations, no minimum separation distance or a 0 metres minimum separation distance is prescribed:

(a) one year's duration

£52

(b) two years' duration

£83

(c) three years' duration

£115

(d) four years' duration

£146

(e) five years' duration

£178

Regulation 16

Varying a licence:

(a) varying name of licensee or address of site

£35

(b) any other kind of variation

The reasonable cost to the licensing authority of having the work carried out

Regulation 17

Transfer of licence

£35

Replacement of licence

£35

Note: The fee payable for a licence or renewal of a licence—

a

of less than one year's duration is, respectively, the fee set out above for a licence, or renewal of a licence of one year's duration decreased proportionately according to the duration of the period for which the licence renewal is granted;

b

of more than one but less than two years' duration is, respectively, the fee set out above for a licence, or a renewal of a licence of one year's duration increased proportionately according to the duration of the period for which the licence or renewal is granted;

c

of more than two but less than three years' duration is, respectively, the fee set out above for a licence or renewal of a licence of two years' duration increased proportionately according to the duration of the period for which the licence or renewal is granted;

d

of more than three but less than four years' duration is, respectively, the fee set above for a licence or renewal of a licence of three years' duration increased proportionately according to the duration of the period for which the licence or renewal is granted;

e

of more than four but less than five years' duration is, respectively, the fee set out above for a licence or renewal of a licence of four years' duration increased proportionately according to the duration of the period for which the licence or renewal is granted.

c

for Part 8 substitute—

PART 8FEES FOR EXPLOSIVES CERTIFICATES UNDER THE EXPLOSIVES REGULATIONS 2014

Table 1

1

2

3

Provisions under which a fee is payable

Purpose of application

Fee

The 2014 Regulations

Regulation 11

(see Note)

(a) Explosives certificate for acquiring and keeping explosives, not including an application for an explosives certificate referred to in entries (c), (g) or (i), at a site in relation to which a person holds a licence to store explosives and, by virtue of regulation 27 of, and Schedule 5 to, the 2014 Regulations no minimum separation distance is prescribed or a 0 metres minimum separation distance is prescribed:

(i) one year's duration

£125

(ii) two years' duration

£156

(iii) three years' duration

£188

(iv) four years' duration

£219

(v) five years' duration

£251

(b) Renewal of the explosives certificate referred to in (a):

(i) one year's duration

£110

(ii) two years' duration

£130

(iii) three years' duration

£151

(iv) four years' duration

£173

(v) five years' duration

£193

(c) Explosives certificate for acquiring and keeping explosives, not including an application for an explosives certificate referred to in entries (a), (g) or (i), at a site in relation to which a person holds a licence for the storage of no more than 2000 kilograms of explosives:

(i) one year's duration

£136

(ii) two years' duration

£166

(iii) three years' duration

£198

(iv) four years' duration

£229

(v) five years' duration

£261

(d) Renewal of the explosives certificate referred to in (c):

(i) one year's duration

£130

(ii) two years' duration

£156

(iii) three years' duration

£183

(iv) four years' duration

£209

(v) five years' duration

£234

(e) Explosives certificate for acquiring and keeping explosives, not including an application for an explosives certificate referred to in entries (g) or (i), at a site in relation to which a person holds a licence for the storage of more than 2000 kilograms of explosives:

(i) one year's duration

£183

(ii) two years' duration

£219

(iii) three years' duration

£256

(iv) four years' duration

£292

(v) five years' duration

£329

(f) Renewal of the explosives certificate referred to in (e):

(i) one year's duration

£161

(ii) two years' duration

£193

(iii) three years' duration

£224

(iv) four years' duration

£256

(v) five years' duration

£287

(g) Explosives certificate for acquiring and keeping only shooters' powder at a site in relation to which the applicant holds a licence, where the applicant also makes a relevant application under the 1968 Act to the chief officer of police determining the explosives certificate application which is to be determined at the same time

£24

(h) Renewal of the explosives certificate referred to in (g) where the applicant also makes a relevant application under the 1968 Act to the chief officer of police determining the renewal application which is to be determined at the same time

£15

(i) Explosives certificate for the acquiring and keeping only shooters' powder at a site in relation to which the applicant holds a licence and a relevant certificate, where no relevant application under the 1968 Act by the applicant is to be determined at the same time

£44

(j) Renewal of the explosives certificate referred to in (i) where no relevant application under the 1968 Act by the applicant is to be determined at the same time

£18

(k) Explosives certificate for acquiring more than 15 kilograms of explosives, not including an application for an explosives certificate referred to in entries (m) or (o):

(i) one year's duration

£125

(ii) two years duration

£156

(iii) three years duration

£188

(iv) four years duration

£219

(v) five years duration

£251

(l) Renewal of the explosive certificate referred to in (k):

(i) one year's duration

£110

(ii) two years duration

£130

(iii) three years duration

£151

(iv) four years duration

£173

(v) five years duration

£193

(m) Explosives certificate for acquiring more than 15 kilograms of shooters' powder only, where the applicant also makes a relevant application under the 1968 Act to the chief officer of police determining the explosives certificate application which is to be determined at the same time

£24

(n) Renewal of the explosives certificate referred to in (m) where the applicant also makes a relevant application under the 1968 Act to the chief officer of police determining the renewal application which is to be determined at the same time

£15

(o) Explosives certificate for acquiring more than 15 kilograms of shooters' powder only, where the applicant holds a relevant certificate and no relevant application under the 1968 Act is to be determined at the same time

£44

(p) Renewal of the explosives certificate referred to in (o) where no relevant application under the 1968 Act by the applicant is to be determined at the same time

£18

(q) Replacement of any explosives certificate referred to in (a) to (f) and (k) and (l) if lost

£35

(r) Replacement of any explosives certificate referred to in (g) to (j) and (m) to (p) if lost

£10

Table 2

The fee for a check carried out for the purposes of regulation 19(2)(d) of the 2014 Regulations is £5

Note: The fee payable for an explosives certificate or renewal of an explosives certificate (“renewal”)—

a

of less than one year's duration is, respectively, the fee set out above for a certificate, or renewal of an explosives certificate of one year's duration decreased proportionately according to the duration of the period for which the explosives certificate or renewal is granted;

b

of more than one but less than two years' duration is, respectively, the fee set out above for an explosives certificate, or a renewal of an explosives certificate of one year's duration increased proportionately according to the duration of the period for which the explosives certificate or renewal is granted;

c

of more than two but less than three years' duration is, respectively, the fee set out above for an explosives certificate or renewal of an explosives certificate of two years' duration increased proportionately according to the duration of the period for which the explosives certificate or renewal is granted;

d

of more than three but less than four years' duration is, respectively, the fee set above for an explosives certificate or renewal of an explosives certificate of three years' duration increased proportionately according to the duration of the period for which the explosives certificate or renewal is granted;

e

of more than four but less than five years' duration is, respectively, the fee set out above for an explosives certificate or renewal of an explosives certificate of four years' duration increased proportionately according to the duration of the period for which the explosives certificate or renewal is granted.

The Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (Exclusions and Exceptions) (Scotland) Order 201330

The Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (Exclusions and Exemptions) (Scotland) Order 2013 M47 is amended as follows—

a

for paragraph 10 of Schedule 1 (proceedings) substitute—

10

Proceedings under the Explosives Regulations 2014 (“the 2014 Regulations”) in respect of—

a

the application to the chief officer of police for an explosives certificate pursuant to regulations 4, 5 and 11 of the 2014 Regulations certifying a person to be a fit and proper person to acquire or acquire and keep explosives;

b

the revocation of such certificates pursuant to regulation 21 of the 2014 Regulations;

c

an appeal or application to the Sheriff under regulation 22 of the 2014 Regulations against a decision taken under regulation 19 or 21.

b

in paragraph 3(3)(c) of Schedule 3 (exclusions of section 4(2)(a) and (b) of the Act), for “regulation 4 of the Control of Explosives Regulations 1991” substitute “ regulation 11 of the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”; and

c

in paragraph 4 of Part 3 of Schedule 4 (excepted professions, offices, employments and occupations) for “regulation 4 of the Control of Explosives Regulations 1991” substitute “ regulations 4, 5 and 11 of the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”.

Annotations:
Marginal Citations
M47

S.S.I. 2013/50, to which there are amendments not relevant to these Regulations.

The Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 201331

The Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 2013 M48 are amended as follows—

a

in regulation 2(1) (interpretation), in the definition of “explosives” for “the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005” substitute “ the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”; and

b

in paragraph 5(a) of Part 1 of Schedule 2 (dangerous occurrences) for “or registration, as the case may be, under regulation 9, 10 or 11 of the Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005” substitute “ under regulations 6 or 7 of the Explosives Regulations 2014 ”.

SCHEDULE 14REPEALS AND REVOCATIONS

Regulation 48(2) and (3)

PART 1REPEALS

1.Title

2.Reference

3.Extent of repeal

Explosives Act 1875.

c. 17 (38 & 39 Vict).

Sections 23 and 61; in section 74, in the opening words, “any inspector appointed by the Health and Safety Executive under section 19 of the 1974 Act, or”; in subsection (1), “or of an inspector appointed by the Health and Safety Executive under section 19 of the 1974 Act,”; after subsection (6), the words from “In this section” to the end of the section.

Fireworks Act 1951*.

c. 58.

The whole Act.

Energy Act 2013*

c.32

In Schedule 12, paragraphs 50 to 52.

PART 2REVOCATIONS

1.Title

2.Reference

3.Extent of revocation

Order of Secretary of State (No 11), dated September 20, 1924, making Byelaws as to the Conveyance of Explosives on Roads, and in certain special cases.

S.R. & O. 1924/1129.

The whole instrument.

Order in Council (No 26) Relating to Picric Acid, Picrates and Mixtures of Picric Acid with other Substances.

S. R. & O. 1926/823.

The whole instrument.

The Explosives Acts 1875 and 1923 etc. (Repeals and Modifications) Regulations 1974.

S.I. 1974/1885.

Regulation 2(a) and Schedule 1, except to the extent that they relate to sections 73, 75 and 89 of the Explosives Act 1875 as amended by S.I. 1974/2166; regulations 3 to 7, paragraphs 1 to 4 and 6 to 21 of Schedule 2, and Schedule 3.

The Explosives Acts 1875 and 1923 etc. (Repeals and Modifications) (Amendment) Regulations 1974.

S.I. 1974/2166.

The whole instrument.

The Control of Explosives Regulations 1991.

S.I. 1991/1531.

The whole instrument.

The Placing on the Market and Supervision of Transfers of Explosives Regulations 1993.

S.I. 1993/2714.

The whole instrument.

The Marking of Plastic Explosives for Detection Regulations 1996

S.I. 1996/890

The whole instrument

The Health and Safety (Enforcing Authority) Regulations 1998

S.I. 1998/494.

In regulation 4, paragraphs (7) to (12).

The Manufacture and Storage of Explosives Regulations 2005.

S.I. 2005/1082.

The whole instrument.

The Manufacture and Storage of Explosives and the Health and Safety (Enforcing Authority) (Amendment and Supplementary Provisions) Regulations 2007.

S.I. 2007/2598.

The whole instrument.

The Health and Safety (Miscellaneous Amendments and Revocations) Regulations 2009.

S.I. 2009/693.

In regulation 2, paragraphs (a) and (b); paragraphs 1, 2 and 4 of Schedule 1.

The Carriage of Dangerous Goods and Use of Transportable Pressure Equipment (Amendment) Regulations 2011.

S.I. 2011/1885.

In regulation 17(2), sub-paragraphs (c), (d) and (e); paragraphs 3, 4 and 5 of the Schedule.

The Identification and Traceability of Explosives Regulations 2013.

S.I. 2013/449.

The whole instrument.

The Energy Act 2013 (Office for Nuclear Regulation) (Consequential Amendments, Transitional Provisions and Savings) Order 2014.

S.I. 2014/469

In Schedule 2, paragraph 1.

In Schedule 3, paragraphs 46 to 51, 53 to 55, 110 to 122 and 146.

F6SCHEDULE 15F23APPROVED BODY REQUIREMENTS

Regulation 2(1)

Annotations:

F591

1

A conformity assessment body must have legal personality and must be established in—

a

the United Kingdom; or

b

the territory of a party to the CPTPP.

2

In sub-paragraph (1) “the CPTPP” has the meaning set out in section 1 of the Trade (Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership) Act 2024.

2

A conformity assessment body must be a third party body independent of the organisation or the civil explosive it assesses.

3

1

A conformity assessment body, its top level management and the personnel responsible for carrying out the conformity assessment activities must not be the designer, manufacturer, supplier, installer, purchaser, owner, user or maintainer of civil explosives, nor the representative of any of those parties.

2

Sub-paragraph (1) does not preclude the use of civil explosives that are necessary for the operations of the conformity assessment body or the use of civil explosives for personal purposes.

4

A conformity assessment body, its top level management and the personnel responsible for carrying out the conformity assessment activities must not be directly involved in the design, manufacture or construction, the marketing, installation, use or maintenance of civil explosives, or represent the parties engaged in those activities.

5

A conformity assessment body, its top level management and the personnel responsible for carrying out the conformity assessment activities must not engage in activity that may conflict with their independence of judgement or integrity in relation to conformity assessment activities for which they are notified (including consultancy services).

6

A conformity assessment body must ensure that the activities of its subsidiaries or subcontractors do not affect the confidentiality, objectivity or impartiality of their conformity assessment activities.

7

A conformity assessment body and its personnel must carry out the conformity assessment activities with the highest degree of professional integrity and the requisite technical competence in the specific field and must be free from all pressures and inducements, particularly financial, which might influence their judgement or the results of their conformity assessment activities, especially as regards persons or groups of persons with an interest in those activities.

8

A conformity assessment body must be capable of carrying out all of the conformity assessment activities in relation to which it has been, or is to be, F47approved, whether those activities are carried out by the conformity assessment body itself or on its behalf and under its responsibility.

9

A conformity assessment body must have at its disposal—

a

personnel with technical knowledge and sufficient and appropriate experience to perform the conformity assessment activities;

b

descriptions of procedures in accordance with which conformity assessment is carried out, ensuring the transparency and the ability of reproduction of those procedures, and have appropriate policies and procedures in place that distinguish between tasks it carries out as a F54approved body and other activities;

c

procedures for the performance of activities which take due account of the size of an undertaking, the sector in which it operates, its structure, the degree of complexity of the product technology in question and the mass or serial nature of the process.

10

A conformity assessment body must have the means necessary to perform the technical and administrative tasks connected with the conformity assessment activities in an appropriate manner and must have access to the necessary equipment or facilities.

11

The personnel responsible for carrying out conformity assessment activities must have—

a

sound technical and vocational training covering all the conformity assessment activities in relation to which the conformity assessment body has been notified;

b

satisfactory knowledge of the requirements of the assessments which the personnel carry out and adequate authority to carry out those assessments;

c

appropriate knowledge and understanding of the essential safety requirements, of the applicable F41designated standards and F42... of these Regulations;

d

the ability to draw up certificates, records and reports demonstrating that assessments have been carried out.

12

A conformity assessment body must be able to demonstrate the impartiality of its top level management and the personnel responsible for carrying out the conformity assessment activities.

13

The remuneration of the top level management and the personnel responsible for carrying out the conformity assessment activities must not depend on the number of assessments carried out or on the results of those assessments.

14

A conformity assessment body must have, and must satisfy the Secretary of State that it has, adequate civil liability insurance in respect of its activities.

15

A conformity assessment body must ensure that its personnel observe professional secrecy with regard to all information obtained in carrying out their tasks in accordance with these Regulations and that proprietary rights are protected.

16

Paragraph 15 does not prevent the personnel from providing information to the Secretary of State or the enforcing authority in respect of Part 13 of these Regulations.

17

A conformity assessment body must participate in, or ensure that its personnel who are responsible for carrying out the conformity assessment activities are informed of, the relevant standardisation activities and the activities of any F15approved body coordination group established F16by the Secretary of State and must apply as general guidance the administrative decisions and documents produced as a result of the work of that group.

F11SCHEDULE 16OPERATIONAL OBLIGATIONS OF F24APPROVED BODIES

Regulation 76

Annotations:

1

F48An approved body must carry out conformity assessments in accordance with the relevant conformity assessment procedures.

2

F55An approved body must carry out conformity assessments in a proportionate manner, avoiding unnecessary burdens on economic operators.

3

F12An approved body must perform its activities taking due account of the size of an undertaking, the sector in which it operates, its structure, the degree of complexity of the product technology in question and the mass or serial nature of the production process.

4

F56An approved body must respect the degree of rigour and the level of protection required to ensure that the civil explosive is in conformity with the requirements of Part 13 of these Regulations.

5

Where F13an approved body finds that essential safety requirements or corresponding F14designated standards or other technical specifications have not been met by a manufacturer, it must require the manufacturer to take appropriate corrective measures and must not issue a certificate of conformity or grant an approval.

6

Where, in the course of the monitoring of conformity following the issue of a certificate or grant of an approval, F49an approved body finds that a civil explosive is no longer in conformity with the essential safety requirements, it must require the manufacturer to take appropriate corrective measures and must suspend or withdraw the certificate of conformity or approval (if necessary).

7

Where the F50approved body has required a manufacturer to take corrective measures and the manufacturer has failed to take such measures, or those measures have not had the required effect, the F50approved body must restrict, suspend or withdraw any certificate of conformity or approval.

8

Paragraph 9 applies where F57an approved body is minded to—

a

refuse to issue a certificate of conformity or grant an approval;

b

restrict, suspend or withdraw a certificate of conformity or approval.

9

Where this paragraph applies, the F51approved body must—

a

give the person applying for the certificate or approval, or the person to whom the certificate or approval was given, a notice in writing giving reasons and specifying the date on which the refusal, restriction, suspension or withdrawal is intended to take effect;

b

give the person applying for the certificate or approval, or the person to whom the certificate or approval was given, an opportunity to make representations within a reasonable period from the date of the notice; and

c

take account of any such representations before taking its decision.

10

F32An approved must inform the Secretary of State of—

a

any refusal, restriction, suspension or withdrawal of a certificate of conformity or approval;

b

any circumstances affecting the scope of, or conditions for, F33approval under regulation 70 F34...;

c

any request for information which it has received from the enforcing authority in respect of Part 13 regarding conformity assessment activities; and

d

on request, conformity assessment activities performed within the scope of its F35approval under regulation 70 and any other activity performed, including cross-border activities and subcontracting.

11

F58An approved body must make provision in its contracts with its clients enabling such clients to appeal against a decision—

a

to refuse to issue a certificate of conformity or grant an approval; or

b

to restrict, suspend or withdraw a certificate of conformity or approval.

12

F39An approved body must provide other bodies F40approved under these Regulations carrying out similar conformity assessment activities covering the same civil explosives with relevant information on issues relating to negative and, on request, positive conformity assessment results.

13

F36An approved must participate in the work of F37any approved body coordination group established F38by the Secretary of State, directly or by means of its designated representatives.

F25SCHEDULE 17CONFORMITY ASSESSMENT PROCEDURES

Regulation 66

Annotations:

PART 1TYPE EXAMINATION (MODULE B)

1

1

Type examination (Module B) is a conformity assessment procedure in which an approved body examines the technical design of an explosive and verifies and attests that the technical design of the explosive meets the requirements of these Regulations that apply to it.

2

Type examination must be carried out as an assessment of the adequacy of the technical design of the explosive through—

a

examination of the technical documentation and supporting evidence referred to in paragraph 2; and

b

examination of a specimen of the production envisaged which is representative of the complete product (combination of production type and design type).

2

1

A manufacturer must lodge an application for Type examination (Module B) with an approved body of the manufacturer's choice.

2

The application must include—

a

the name and address of the manufacturer and, if the application is lodged by the authorised representative, the name and address of the authorised representative;

b

a written declaration that the same application has not been lodged with any other approved body;

c

the technical documentation;

d

the specimens representative of the production envisaged, and any further specimens requested by the approved body if needed for carrying out the test programme;

e

the supporting evidence for the adequacy of the technical design solution; this supporting evidence must—

i

mention any documents that have been used, in particular where the relevant designated standards have not been applied in full;

ii

include, where necessary, the results of tests carried out in accordance with other relevant technical specifications by the appropriate laboratory of the manufacturer, or by another testing laboratory on the manufacturer's behalf and under the manufacturer's responsibility.

3

The technical documentation referred to in paragraph 2(2)(c) must—

a

make it possible to assess the explosive's conformity with the applicable requirements of these Regulations and must include an adequate analysis and assessment of any risks;

b

specify the applicable requirements and cover, as far as relevant for the assessment, the design, manufacture and operation of the explosive;

c

contain, wherever applicable, at least the following elements—

i

a general description of the explosive;

ii

conceptual design and manufacturing drawings and schemes of components, sub-assemblies and circuits;

iii

descriptions and explanations necessary for the understanding of those drawings and schemes and the operation of the explosive;

iv

a list of the designated standards applied in full or in part (where applicable specifying the parts which have been applied);

v

where designated standards have not been applied, descriptions of the solutions adopted to meet the essential safety requirements, including a list of other relevant technical specifications applied to meet the essential safety requirements;

vi

the results of design calculations made and examinations carried out;

vii

test reports.

4

1

The approved body must examine the technical documentation and supporting evidence in respect of an explosive to assess the adequacy of the technical design of the explosive.

2

For each of the specimens examined, the approved body must—

a

verify that the specimen—

i

has been manufactured in conformity with the technical documentation;

ii

identifies the elements which have been designed in accordance with the applicable provisions of the relevant designated standards, as well as the elements which have been designed in accordance with other relevant technical specifications;

b

carry out appropriate examinations and tests, or have them carried out, to check whether, where the manufacturer has chosen to apply the solutions in the relevant designated standards, these have been applied correctly;

c

carry out, or arrange the carrying out of, appropriate examinations and tests to check whether, where the solutions in the relevant designated standards have not been applied, the solutions adopted by the manufacturer applying other relevant technical specifications meet the corresponding essential safety requirements;

d

agree with the manufacturer on a location where the examinations and tests will be carried out.

5

The approved body must draw up an evaluation report that records the activities undertaken in accordance with paragraph 4 and their outcomes and, without prejudice to the approved body's obligations in relation to the Secretary of State, the approved body may disclose the content of that report, in full or in part, only with the agreement of the manufacturer.

6

1

Where the type meets the applicable requirements of these Regulations, the approved body must issue a Type examination certificate to the manufacturer, which must contain—

a

the name and address of the manufacturer;

b

the conclusions of the examination;

c

the conditions (if any) for its validity;

d

the necessary data for the identification of the approved type;

e

all relevant information to allow the conformity of manufactured explosives with the examined type to be evaluated and to allow for in-service control.

2

The Type examination certificate referred to in sub-paragraph (1)—

a

may have one or more annexes attached;

b

must be accompanied by the descriptions and drawings necessary for identification of the approved type.

3

Where the type does not satisfy the applicable requirements of these Regulations, the approved body must refuse to issue a Type examination certificate and must inform the applicant accordingly, giving detailed reasons for its refusal.

7

An approved body must keep itself apprised of any changes in the generally acknowledged state of the art which indicate that the approved type may no longer comply with the applicable requirements of these Regulations, and must determine whether such changes require further investigation and, if so, the approved body must inform the manufacturer accordingly.

8

A manufacturer must inform the approved body that holds the technical documentation relating to the Type examination certificate of all modifications to the approved type that may affect the conformity of the explosive with the essential safety requirements or the conditions for validity of that certificate; such modifications require additional approval in the form of an addition to the original Type examination certificate.

9

1

Each approved body must inform the Secretary of State of all Type examination certificates and any additions thereto which it has issued or withdrawn, and must, periodically or upon request, make available to the Secretary of State the list of such certificates and any additions thereto refused, suspended or otherwise restricted.

2

Each approved body must inform the other approved bodies of all Type examination certificates and any additions thereto which it has refused, withdrawn, suspended or otherwise restricted, and must, upon request, inform the other approved bodies of such certificates and additions thereto which it has issued.

3

The other approved bodies and the Secretary of State may obtain from the approved body a copy of—

a

the Type examination certificates and additions thereto;

b

the technical documentation and the results of the examinations carried out by the approved body.

4

An approved body must keep a copy of the Type examination certificate, its annexes and additions, as well as the file containing the technical documentation including the documentation submitted by the manufacturer, until the expiry of the validity of that certificate.

5

A manufacturer must keep a copy of the Type examination certificate, its annexes and additions together with the technical documentation at the disposal of the relevant authorities for 10 years beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market.

10

A manufacturer's authorised representative (if any) may lodge the application referred to in paragraph 2 and fulfil the obligations set out in paragraphs 8 and 9(5), provided that they are specified in the mandate by which they were appointed under regulation 46.

PART 2CONFORMITY TO TYPE BASED ON INTERNAL PRODUCTION CONTROL PLUS SUPERVISED PRODUCT CHECKS AT RANDOM INTERVALS (MODULE C2)

11

Conformity to type based on internal production control plus supervised product checks at random intervals (Module C2) is the part of a conformity assessment procedure whereby the manufacturer fulfils the obligations laid down in paragraphs 12 to 14, and it is solely the manufacturer's responsibility to ensure and declare that the explosives concerned are in conformity with the type described in the Type examination certificate and satisfy the requirements of these Regulations that apply to them.

Manufacturing12

A manufacturer must take all measures necessary so that the manufacturing process and its monitoring ensure conformity of the manufactured explosives with the type described in the Type examination certificate and with the requirements of these Regulations that apply to them.

Product checks13

1

The approved body chosen by the manufacturer must carry out product checks or have them carried out at random intervals determined by that body, in order to verify the quality of the internal checks on the explosive, taking into account, amongst other things, the technological complexity of the explosives and the quantity of production.

2

The approved body must ensure that—

a

it takes an adequate sample of the final product on site before its placing on the market; and

b

the sample is examined and appropriate tests as identified by the relevant parts of the designated standards, or equivalent tests set out in other relevant technical specifications, are carried out to check the conformity of the explosive with the type described in the Type examination certificate and with the relevant requirements of these Regulations.

3

Where a sample does not conform to the acceptable quality level, the approved body must take appropriate measures.

4

The acceptance sampling procedure to be applied is intended to determine whether the manufacturing process of the explosive performs within acceptable limits, with a view to ensuring conformity of the explosive.

5

The manufacturer must, under the responsibility of the approved body, affix the approved body's identification number during the manufacturing process.

UK marking and declaration of conformity14

1

A manufacturer must affix the UK marking to each individual explosive that is in conformity with the type described in the Type examination certificate and which satisfies the applicable requirements of these Regulations.

2

A manufacturer must draw up a written declaration of conformity for each explosive type and keep it at the disposal of the relevant authorities for 10 years beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market; the declaration of conformity must identify the explosive type for which it has been drawn up.

3

A copy of the declaration of conformity must be made available to the relevant authorities upon request.

Authorised representative15

A manufacturer's obligations set out in paragraph 14 may be fulfilled by the manufacturer's authorised representative (if any), on the manufacturer's behalf and under the manufacturer's responsibility, provided that they are specified in the mandate by which they were appointed under regulation 46.

PART 3CONFORMITY TO TYPE BASED ON QUALITY ASSURANCE OF THE PRODUCTION PROCESS (MODULE D)

16

Conformity to type based on quality assurance of the production process (Module D) is a conformity assessment procedure whereby the manufacturer fulfils the obligations laid down in paragraphs 17 and 23, and it is solely the manufacturer's responsibility to ensure and declare that the explosives concerned are in conformity with the type described in the Type examination certificate and satisfy the requirements of these Regulations that apply to them.

Manufacturing17

A manufacturer must operate an approved quality system for production, final product inspection and testing of the explosives specified in paragraph 18, and which is subject to surveillance as specified in paragraph 22.

Quality system18

1

A manufacturer must lodge an application for assessment of the manufacturer's quality system with an approved body of the manufacturer's choice.

2

The application must include—

a

the name and address of the manufacturer and, if the application is lodged by the authorised representative, the name and address of the authorised representative;

b

a written declaration that the same application has not been lodged with any other approved body;

c

all relevant information for the explosive category envisaged;

d

the documentation concerning the quality system;

e

the technical documentation of the approved type and a copy of the Type examination certificate.

19

1

The quality system must ensure that the explosives are in conformity with the type described in the Type examination certificate and comply with the requirements of these Regulations that apply to them.

2

All the elements, requirements and provisions adopted by the manufacturer must be documented in a systematic and orderly manner in the form of written policies, procedures and instructions.

3

The quality system documentation must permit a consistent interpretation of the quality programmes, plans, manuals and records and must, in particular, contain an adequate description of—

a

the quality objectives and the organisational structure, responsibilities and powers of the management with regard to product quality;

b

the corresponding manufacturing, quality control and quality assurance techniques, processes and systematic actions that will be used;

c

the examinations and tests that will be carried out before, during and after manufacture, and the frequency with which they will be carried out;

d

quality records, such as inspection reports and test data, calibration data, and qualification reports on the personnel concerned;

e

the means of monitoring the achievement of the required product quality and the effective operation of the quality system.

20

1

The approved body must assess the quality system to determine whether it satisfies the requirements referred to in paragraph 19 and, where applicable, it must presume conformity with those requirements in respect of the elements of the quality system that comply with the corresponding specifications of the relevant designated standard.

2

The audit team appointed by the approved body to carry out the audit in paragraph 20(1) (“the audit”) must have experience in quality management systems, with at least one member of the team having experience of evaluation in the relevant product field and product technology concerned, and knowledge of the applicable requirements of these Regulations.

3

The audit must include an assessment visit to the manufacturer's premises.

4

The audit team must review the technical documentation referred to in paragraph 18(2)(e) to verify the manufacturer's ability to identify the relevant requirements of these Regulations and to carry out the necessary examinations with a view to ensuring compliance of the explosive with those requirements.

5

The decision of the approved body must be notified to the manufacturer and must contain the conclusions of the audit and a reasoned assessment of the decision.

21

1

A manufacturer must—

a

fulfil the obligations arising out of the quality system as approved and maintain it in an adequate and efficient state; and

b

keep the approved body that has approved the quality system informed of any intended change to the quality system.

2

Where the approved body is notified by a manufacturer of any proposed change to the quality system the approved body must—

a

evaluate such proposed changes and decide whether the modified quality system will continue to satisfy the requirements referred to in paragraph 19 or whether a reassessment is necessary; and

b

notify the manufacturer of its decision and, that notification must contain the conclusions of the examination and a reasoned assessment of the decision.

Surveillance under the responsibility of the approved body22

1

The approved body must carry out surveillance, the purpose of which is to ensure that a manufacturer fulfils the obligations arising out of the approved quality system.

2

A manufacturer must, for assessment purposes, allow the approved body access to the manufacture, inspection, testing and storage sites and must provide the approved body with all necessary information including, in particular—

a

the quality system documentation;

b

the quality records, such as inspection reports and test data, calibration data, and qualification reports on the personnel concerned.

3

The approved body must carry out periodic audits to ensure that a manufacturer maintains and applies the quality system and, following each audit, must provide the manufacturer with an audit report.

4

The approved body may pay unexpected visits to a manufacturer; during such visits the approved body may, if necessary, carry out product tests, or have them carried out, in order to verify that the quality system is functioning correctly; and following such a visit the approved body must provide the manufacturer with a visit report and, if tests have been carried out, with a test report.

UK marking and declaration of conformity23

1

A manufacturer must affix the UK marking, and, under the responsibility of the approved body referred to in paragraph 18(1), the latter's identification number to each individual explosive that is in conformity with the type described in the Type examination certificate and which satisfies the applicable requirements of these Regulations.

2

A manufacturer must draw up a written declaration of conformity for each explosive type and keep it at the disposal of the relevant authorities for 10 years beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market; the declaration of conformity must identify the explosive type for which it has been drawn up.

3

A copy of the declaration of conformity must be made available to the relevant authorities upon request.

24

A manufacturer must, for a period of 10 years beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market, keep at the disposal of the relevant authorities—

a

the documentation referred to in paragraph 18(2);

b

any information relating to the change referred to in paragraph 21(1)(b) and 21(2), as approved;

c

the decisions and reports of the approved body referred to in paragraphs 21, 22(3) and 22(4).

25

Each approved body must inform the Secretary of State of quality system approvals issued or withdrawn and must, periodically or upon request, make available to the Secretary of State the list of quality system approvals refused, suspended or otherwise restricted.

26

Each approved body must inform other approved bodies of quality system approvals which it has refused, suspended, withdrawn or otherwise restricted, and, upon request, of quality system approvals which it has issued.

Authorised representative27

A manufacturer's obligations set out in paragraphs 18(1), 18(2), 21(1)(b), 21(2), 23 and 24 may be fulfilled by the manufacturer's authorised representative (if any), on the manufacturer's behalf and under the manufacturer's responsibility, provided that they are specified in the mandate by which they were appointed under regulation 46.

PART 4CONFORMITY TO TYPE BASED ON PRODUCT QUALITY ASSURANCE (MODULE E)

28

Conformity to type based on product quality assurance (Module E) is that part of a conformity assessment procedure whereby the manufacturer fulfils the obligations laid down in paragraphs 29 and 34, and it is solely the responsibility of the manufacturer that the explosives concerned are in conformity with the type described in the Type examination certificate and satisfy the requirements of these Regulations that apply to them.

Manufacturing29

A manufacturer must operate an approved quality system for final product inspection and testing of the explosives concerned as specified in paragraphs 30 and 31 and which must be subject to surveillance as specified in paragraph 33.

Quality system30

1

A manufacturer must lodge an application for assessment of the manufacturer's quality system with an approved body of the manufacturer's choice for the explosives concerned.

2

The application must include—

a

the name and address of the manufacturer and, if the application is lodged by the authorised representative, the name and address of the authorised representative;

b

a written declaration that the same application has not been lodged with any other approved body;

c

all relevant information for the explosive category envisaged;

d

the documentation concerning the quality system;

e

the technical documentation of the approved type and a copy of the Type examination certificate.

3

The quality system must ensure compliance of the explosives with the type described in the Type examination certificate and with the applicable requirements of these Regulations.

4

All the elements, requirements and provisions adopted by the manufacturer must be documented in a systematic and orderly manner in the form of written policies, procedures and instructions; this quality system documentation must permit a consistent interpretation of the quality programmes, plans, manuals and records and, it must, in particular, contain an adequate description of—

a

the quality objectives and the organisational structure, responsibilities and powers of the management with regard to product quality;

b

the examinations and tests that will be carried out after manufacture;

c

the quality records, such as inspection reports and test data, calibration data and qualification reports on the personnel concerned;

d

the means of monitoring the effective operation of the quality system.

31

1

The approved body must assess the quality system to determine whether it satisfies the requirements referred to in paragraph 30(3) and (4) and, where applicable, it must presume conformity with those requirements in respect of the elements of the quality system that comply with the corresponding specifications of a relevant designated standard.

2

The audit team appointed by the approved body to carry out the audit under paragraph 31(1) (“the audit”) must have experience in quality management systems and have at least one member with experience of evaluation in the relevant product field and product technology concerned, and knowledge of the applicable requirements of these Regulations.

3

The audit must include an assessment visit to the manufacturer's premises.

4

The audit team must review the technical documentation referred to in paragraph 30(2)(e), in order to verify the manufacturer's ability to identify the relevant requirements of these Regulations and to carry out the necessary examinations with a view to ensuring compliance of the explosive with those requirements.

5

The decision of the approved body must be notified to the manufacturer and the notification must contain the conclusions of the audit and the reasoned assessment for the decision.

32

1

A manufacturer must—

a

fulfil the obligations arising out of the quality system as approved and maintain it in an adequate and efficient state; and

b

keep the approved body that has approved the quality system informed of any intended change to the quality system.

2

Where the approved body is notified by a manufacturer of any proposed change to the quality system the approved body must—

a

evaluate any proposed changes and decide whether the modified quality system will continue to satisfy the requirements referred to in paragraph 30(3) and (4) or whether a reassessment is necessary; and

b

notify the manufacturer of its decision and, that notification must contain the conclusions of the examination and the reasoned assessment for the decision.

Surveillance under the responsibility of the approved body33

1

The approved body must carry out surveillance, the purpose of which is to ensure that a manufacturer fulfils the obligations arising out of the approved quality system.

2

A manufacturer must, for assessment purposes, allow the approved body access to the manufacture, inspection, testing and storage sites and must provide it with all necessary information, in particular—

a

the quality system documentation;

b

the quality records, such as inspection reports and test data, calibration data and qualification reports on the personnel concerned.

3

The approved body must carry out periodic audits to ensure that a manufacturer maintains and applies the quality system and, following each audit, must provide the manufacturer with an audit report.

4

The approved body may pay unexpected visits to the manufacturer; during such visits the approved body may carry out product tests, or have them carried out, in order to verify that the quality system is functioning correctly and, following such a visit, the approved body must provide the manufacturer with a visit report and, if tests have been carried out, a test report.

UK marking and declaration of conformity34

1

A manufacturer must affix the UK marking and, under the responsibility of the approved body referred to in paragraph 30(1), the latter's identification number to each individual explosive that is in conformity with the type described in the Type examination certificate and satisfies the applicable requirements of these Regulations.

2

A manufacturer must draw up a written declaration of conformity for each explosive type and keep it at the disposal of the relevant authorities for 10 years beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market.

3

A copy of the declaration of conformity must be made available to the relevant authorities upon request.

35

A manufacturer must, for a period of 10 years, beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market, keep at the disposal of the relevant authorities—

a

the documentation referred to in paragraph 30(1) and 30(2);

b

the information relating to the change referred to in paragraph 32(1)(b) and 32(2), as approved;

c

the decisions and reports of the approved body referred to in paragraphs 32(2), 33(3) and 33(4).

36

1

Each approved body must inform the Secretary of State of quality system approvals issued or withdrawn and must, periodically or upon request, make available to the Secretary of State the list of quality system approvals refused, suspended or otherwise restricted.

2

Each approved body must inform the other approved bodies of quality system approvals which it has refused, suspended or withdrawn, and, upon request, of quality system approvals which it has issued.

Authorised representative37

A manufacturer's obligations set out in paragraphs 30(1), 30(2), 32(1)(b), 34 and 35 may be fulfilled by the manufacturer's authorised representative (if any), on the manufacturer's behalf and under the manufacturer's responsibility, provided that they are specified in the mandate by which they were appointed under regulation 46.

PART 5CONFORMITY TO TYPE BASED ON PRODUCT VERIFICATION (MODULE F)

38

Conformity to type based on product verification (Module F) is the part of a conformity assessment procedure whereby a manufacturer fulfils the obligations laid down in paragraphs 39, 42(1) and 43, and it is solely the responsibility of the manufacturer to ensure and declare that the explosives concerned, which have been subject to examinations and tests under paragraph 40, are in conformity with the type described in the Type examination certificate and satisfy the requirements of these Regulations that apply to them.

Manufacturing39

A manufacturer must take all measures necessary so that the manufacturing process and its monitoring ensure conformity of the manufactured explosives with the approved type described in the Type examination certificate and with the requirements of these Regulations that apply to them.

Verification40

1

An approved body chosen by the manufacturer must carry out appropriate examinations and tests in order to check the conformity of the explosives with the approved type described in the Type examination certificate and with the appropriate requirements of these Regulations.

2

The examinations and tests to check the conformity of the explosives with the appropriate requirements must be carried out, at the choice of the manufacturer, either—

a

by examination and testing of every product as specified in paragraph 41; or

b

by examination and testing of the explosives on a statistical basis as specified in paragraph 42.

Verification of conformity by examination and testing of every product41

1

All explosives must be individually examined and appropriate tests in the relevant designated standard or equivalent tests in other relevant technical specifications must be carried out in order to verify conformity with the approved type described in the Type examination certificate and with the appropriate requirements of these Regulations; in the absence of such a designated standard, the approved body concerned must decide on the appropriate tests to be carried out.

2

The approved body must issue a certificate of conformity in respect of the examinations and tests carried out, and must affix its identification number to each approved explosive or have it affixed under its responsibility.

3

A manufacturer must keep the certificates of conformity available for inspection by the relevant authorities for 10 years beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market.

Statistical verification of conformity42

1

A manufacturer must take all measures necessary so that the manufacturing process and its monitoring ensure the homogeneity of each lot produced, and must present the manufacturer's explosives for verification in the form of homogeneous lots.

2

The approved body must take a random sample from each lot; all explosives in a sample must be individually examined and appropriate tests set out in the relevant designated standards, or equivalent tests set out in other relevant technical specifications, must be carried out in order to verify their conformity with the approved type described in the Type examination certificate and with the applicable requirements of these Regulations and to determine whether the lot is accepted or rejected; in the absence of such a designated standard, the approved body concerned must decide on the appropriate tests to be carried out.

3

If a lot is accepted, all explosives of the lot must be considered approved, except for those explosives from the sample that have been found not to satisfy the tests.

4

The approved body must issue a certificate of conformity in respect of the examinations and tests carried out, and must affix its identification number to each approved explosive or have it affixed under its responsibility.

5

A manufacturer must keep the certificates of conformity at the disposal of the relevant authorities for 10 years beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market.

6

If a lot is rejected, the approved body, or enforcing authority, must take appropriate measures to prevent the placing on the market of that lot and, in the event of the frequent rejection of lots the approved body may suspend statistical verification and take appropriate measures.

UK marking and declaration of conformity43

1

A manufacturer must affix the UK marking, and, under the responsibility of the approved body referred to in paragraph 40(1), the latter's identification number to each individual explosive confirming that the explosive is in conformity with the approved type described in the Type examination certificate and that it satisfies the applicable requirements of these Regulations.

2

A manufacturer must draw up a written declaration of conformity for each explosive type and keep it at the disposal of the relevant authorities for 10 years beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market and, such a declaration of conformity must identify the explosive type for which it has been drawn up.

3

A copy of the declaration of conformity must be made available to the relevant authorities upon request.

4

If the approved body referred to in paragraph 40(1) agrees, and under its responsibility, the manufacturer may affix the approved body's identification number to the explosives.

5

If the approved body referred to in paragraph 40(1) agrees and under its responsibility, a manufacturer may affix the approved body's identification number to the explosives during the manufacturing process.

Authorised representative44

A manufacturer's obligations under this Part of this Schedule may be fulfilled by the manufacturer's authorised representative (if any), on the manufacturer's behalf and under the manufacturer's responsibility, provided that they are specified in the mandate by which they were appointed under regulation 46, but an authorised representative may not fulfil the manufacturer's obligations set out in paragraphs 39 and 42(1).

PART 6CONFORMITY BASED ON UNIT VERIFICATION (MODULE G)

45

Conformity based on unit verification (Module G) is the conformity assessment procedure whereby a manufacturer fulfils the obligations laid down in paragraphs 46, 47 and 49, and it is solely the responsibility of the manufacturer to ensure and declare that the explosive concerned, which has been subject to the provisions of paragraph 48, is in conformity with the requirements of these Regulations that apply to it.

Technical documentation46

1

A manufacturer must establish the technical documentation and make it available to the approved body referred to in paragraph 48; the documentation must make it possible to assess the explosive's conformity with the relevant requirements and must include an adequate analysis and assessment of any risks.

2

The technical documentation must specify the applicable requirements and cover, as far as relevant for the assessment, the design, manufacture and operation of the explosive and, wherever applicable, the technical documentation must contain at least the following elements—

a

a general description of the explosive;

b

conceptual design and manufacturing drawings and schemes of components, sub-assemblies and circuits;

c

descriptions and explanations necessary for the understanding of the drawings and schemes and the operation of the explosive;

d

a list of the designated standards applied in full or in part and, where those designated standards have not been applied, descriptions of the solutions adopted to meet the essential safety requirements of these Regulations, including a list of other relevant technical specifications applied; and in the case of partly applied designated standards, the technical documentation must specify the parts which have been applied;

e

results of design calculations made and examinations carried out; and

f

test reports.

3

A manufacturer must keep the technical documentation at the disposal of the relevant authorities for 10 years beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market.

Manufacturing47

A manufacturer must take all measures necessary so that the manufacturing process and its monitoring ensure conformity of the manufactured explosive with the applicable requirements of these Regulations.

Verification48

1

An approved body chosen by the manufacturer must carry out, or have carried out, appropriate examinations and tests set out in the relevant designated standards, or equivalent tests set out in other relevant technical specifications, to check the conformity of the explosive with the applicable requirements of these Regulations; in the absence of such a designated standard, the approved body concerned must decide on the appropriate tests to be carried out.

2

The approved body must issue a certificate of conformity in respect of the examinations and tests carried out and must affix its identification number to the approved explosive, or have it affixed under its responsibility.

3

A manufacturer must keep the certificates of conformity at the disposal of the relevant authorities for 10 years beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market.

UK marking and declaration of conformity49

1

A manufacturer must affix the UK marking and, under the responsibility of the approved body referred to in paragraph 48, the latter's identification number to each explosive that satisfies the applicable requirements of these Regulations.

2

A manufacturer must draw up a written declaration of conformity and keep it at the disposal of the relevant authorities for 10 years beginning on the day on which the explosive has been placed on the market and, the declaration of conformity must identify the explosive for which it has been drawn up.

3

A copy of the declaration of conformity must be made available to the relevant authorities upon request.

Authorised representative50

A manufacturer's obligations set out in paragraphs 46(3) and 49 may be fulfilled by the manufacturer's authorised representative (if any), on the manufacturer's behalf and under the manufacturer's responsibility, provided that they are specified in the mandate by which they were appointed under regulation 46.

SCHEDULE 18DECLARATION OF CONFORMITY

Regulation 67(c)

Declaration of conformity (No XXXX)

1

No … (product, type, batch or serial number):

2

Name and address of the manufacturer and, where applicable, the manufacturer's authorised representative:

3

This declaration of conformity is issued under the sole responsibility of the manufacturer.

4

Object of the declaration (identification of product allowing traceability):

5

The object of the declaration described above is in conformity with the relevant statutory requirements:

6

References to the relevant designated standards used or references to the other technical specifications in relation to which conformity is declared:

7

The approved body … (name, number) performed … (description of intervention) and issued the certificate:

8

Additional information:

Signed for and on behalf of: (place and date of issue): (name, function) (signature):