- Y Diweddaraf sydd Ar Gael (Diwygiedig)
- Pwynt Penodol mewn Amser (20/02/2008)
- Gwreiddiol (Fel y’i mabwysiadwyd gan yr UE)
Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 February 2008 on common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a European Aviation Safety Agency, and repealing Council Directive 91/670/EEC, Regulation (EC) No 1592/2002 and Directive 2004/36/EC (Text with EEA relevance) (repealed)
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Version Superseded: 14/12/2009
Point in time view as at 20/02/2008.
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Article 4(1), (2) and (3) do not apply to aircraft falling in one or more of the categories set out below:
historic aircraft meeting the criteria below:
non-complex aircraft whose:
initial design was established before 1 January 1955, and
production has been stopped before 1 January 1975;
or
aircraft having a clear historical relevance, related to:
a participation in a noteworthy historical event, or
a major step in the development of aviation, or
a major role played into the armed forces of a Member State;
aircraft specifically designed or modified for research, experimental or scientific purposes, and likely to be produced in very limited numbers;
aircraft of which at least 51 % is built by an amateur, or a non-profit making association of amateurs, for their own purposes and without any commercial objective;
aircraft that have been in the service of military forces, unless the aircraft is of a type for which a design standard has been adopted by the Agency;
aeroplanes, helicopters and powered parachutes having no more than two seats, a maximum take-off mass (MTOM), as recorded by the Member States, of no more than:
300 kg for a land plane/helicopter, single-seater; or
450 kg for a land plane/helicopter, two-seater; or
330 kg for an amphibian or floatplane/helicopter single-seater; or
495 kg for an amphibian or floatplane/helicopter two-seater, provided that, where operating both as a floatplane/helicopter and as a land plane/helicopter, it falls below both MTOM limits, as appropriate;
472,5 kg for a land plane, two-seater equipped with an airframe mounted total recovery parachute system;
315 kg for a land plane single-seater equipped with an airframe mounted total recovery parachute system;
and, for aeroplanes, having the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration not exceeding 35 knots calibrated air speed (CAS);
single and two-seater gyroplanes with a maximum take off mass not exceeding 560 kg;
gliders with a maximum empty mass, of no more than 80 kg when single-seater or 100 kg when two-seater, including those which are foot launched;
replicas of aircraft meeting the criteria of (a) or (d) above, for which the structural design is similar to the original aircraft;
unmanned aircraft with an operating mass of no more than 150 kg;
any other aircraft which has a maximum empty mass, including fuel, of no more than 70 kg.
air law;
aircraft general knowledge;
technical matters related to the category of the aircraft;
flight performance and planning;
human performance and limitations;
meteorology;
navigation;
operational procedures, including resource management;
principles of flight;
communications; and
non-technical skills, including the recognition and management of threats and errors.
pre-flight and in-flight activities, including aircraft performance, mass and balance determination, aircraft inspection and servicing, fuel planning, weather appreciation, route planning, airspace restrictions and runway availability;
aerodrome and traffic-pattern operations;
collision avoidance precautions and procedures;
control of the aircraft by external visual reference;
flight manoeuvres, including in critical situations, and associated ‘upset’ manoeuvres, as technically achievable;
normal and cross-wind take-offs and landings;
flight by reference solely to instruments, as appropriate to the type of activity;
operational procedures, including team skills and resource management, as appropriate to the type of operation, whether single or multi-crew;
navigation and implementation of rules of the air and related procedures, using as appropriate, visual reference or navigation aids;
abnormal and emergency operations, including simulated aircraft equipment malfunctions;
compliance with air traffic services and communications procedures;
aircraft type or class specific aspects;
additional practical skill training that may be required to mitigate risks associated with specific activities; and
non-technical skills, including the recognition and management of threats and errors, using an adequate assessment methodology in conjunction with the technical skills assessment.
operating the aircraft within its limitations;
completing all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
exercising good judgement and airmanship;
applying aeronautical knowledge;
maintaining control of the aircraft at all times in a manner such that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is assured; and
non-technical skills, including the recognition and management of threats and errors, using an adequate assessment methodology in conjunction with the technical skills assessment.
A pilot must have demonstrated language proficiency to a degree appropriate to the functions exercised on the aircraft. Such demonstrated proficiency shall include:
the ability to understand weather information documents;
the use of aeronautical en-route, departure and approach charts and associated aeronautical information documents; and
the ability to communicate with other flight crew and air navigation services during all phases of flight, including flight preparation.
When a flight simulation training device (FSTD) is used for training, or for demonstration that practical skill is acquired or maintained, this FSTD must be qualified to a given level of performance in those areas, which are relevant to completing the related task. In particular, the replication of configuration, handling qualities, aircraft performance, and systems behaviour must adequately represent the aircraft.
a syllabus must be developed for each type of course; and
the training course must comprise a breakdown of theoretical knowledge and practical flight instruction (including synthetic training), if applicable.
Theoretical instruction must be given by appropriately qualified instructors. They must:
have appropriate knowledge in the field where instruction is to be given; and
be capable of using appropriate instructional techniques.
Flight and flight simulation instruction must be given by appropriately qualified instructors, who have the following qualifications:
meet the theoretical knowledge and the experience requirements appropriate for the instruction being given;
be capable of using appropriate instructional techniques;
have practised instructional techniques in those flight manoeuvres and procedures in which it is intended to provide flight instruction;
have demonstrated the ability to instruct in those areas in which flight instruction is to be given, including pre-flight, post-flight and ground instruction; and
receive regular refresher training to ensure that the instructional standards are maintained up to date.
Flight instructors must also be entitled to act as pilot in command on the aircraft for which instruction is being given, except for training on new aircraft types.
meet the requirements for flight or flight simulation instructors;
be capable of assessing pilot performance and conducting flight tests and checks.
have all the means necessary for the scope of responsibilities associated with their activity. These means comprise, but are not limited to, the following: facilities, personnel, equipment, tools and material, documentation of tasks, responsibilities and procedures, access to relevant data and record-keeping;
implement and maintain a management system relating to safety and the standard of training, and aim for continuous improvement of this system; and
establish arrangements with other relevant organisations, as necessary, to ensure continuing compliance with the above requirements.
Medical fitness, comprising physical and mental fitness, means not suffering from any disease or disability, which makes the pilot unable:
to execute the tasks necessary to operate an aircraft; or
to perform assigned duties at any time; or
to perceive correctly his/her environment.
be qualified and licensed in the practice of medicine;
have received training in aviation medicine and regular refresher training in aviation medicine to ensure that assessment standards are maintained;
have acquired practical knowledge and experience of the conditions in which pilots carry out their duties.
have all the means necessary for the scope of responsibilities associated with their privileges. These means comprise, but are not limited to, the following: facilities, personnel, equipment, tools and material, documentation of tasks, responsibilities and procedures, access to relevant data and record-keeping;
implement and maintain a management system relating to safety and the standard of medical assessment, and aim for continuous improvement of this system;
establish arrangements with other relevant organisations, as necessary, to ensure continuing compliance with these requirements.
the aircraft is airworthy as specified in point 6;
if required, the aircraft is duly registered and that appropriate certificates with respect thereto are aboard the aircraft;
instruments and equipment as specified in point 5 required for the execution of that flight are installed in the aircraft and are operative, unless waived by the applicable Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or equivalent document;
the mass of the aircraft and centre of gravity location are such that the flight can be conducted within limits prescribed in the airworthiness documentation;
all cabin baggage, hold luggage and cargo is properly loaded and secured; and
the aircraft operating limitations as specified in point 4 will not be exceeded at any time during the flight.
operating procedures;
pressure altitude of the aerodrome;
temperature;
wind;
size, slope and condition of the take-off/landing area; and
the condition of the airframe, the power plant or the systems, taking into account possible deterioration.
the aircraft is in an airworthy condition;
the operational and emergency equipment necessary for the intended flight is serviceable;
the airworthiness document of the aircraft is valid; and
the maintenance of the aircraft is performed in accordance with its maintenance programme.
the certification limitations of the aircraft, including if applicable, the relevant emergency evacuation demonstration;
the aircraft configuration; and
the type and duration of operations.
be trained and checked on a regular basis to attain and maintain an adequate level of competency in order to perform their assigned safety duties; and
be periodically assessed for medical fitness to safely exercise their assigned safety duties. Compliance must be shown by appropriate assessment based on aero-medical best practice.
the document must provide for the operation of the aircraft, under specified conditions, with particular instruments, items of equipment or functions inoperative at the commencement of the flight;
the document must be prepared for each individual aircraft, taking account of the operator's relevant operational and maintenance conditions; and
the MEL must be based on the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL), if available, and must not be less restrictive than the MMEL;
security of the flight crew compartment;
aircraft search procedure checklist;
training programmes;
protection of electronic and computer systems to prevent intentional system interference and corruption; and
reporting acts of unlawful interference.
When security measures may adversely affect the safety of operations, the risks must be assessed and appropriate procedures developed to mitigate safety risks, this may necessitate the use of specialist equipment.
the organisation must be qualified for the maintenance of products, parts and appliances under its responsibility or have established a contract with such a qualified organisation for these products, parts and appliances; and
the organisation must establish an organisation manual providing, for use and guidance of personnel concerned, a description of all continuing airworthiness procedures of the organisation including when applicable a description of administrative arrangements between the organisation and the approved maintenance organisation.
sound technical and vocational training,
satisfactory knowledge of the requirements of the certification tasks they carry out and adequate experience of such processes,
the ability required to draw up the declarations, records and reports to demonstrate that the investigations have been carried out.
Regulation (EC) No 1592/2002 | This Regulation |
---|---|
Article 1 | Article 1 |
Article 2(1) | Article 2(1) |
Article 2(2)(a) to (e) | Article 2(2)(a) to (e) |
— | Article 2(2)(f) |
Article 2(3) | Article 2(3) |
Article 3(a) to (g) | Article 3(a) to (g) |
— | Article 3(h) to (l) |
Article 4(1)(a) to (c) | Article 4(1)(a) to (c) |
— | Article 4(1)(d) |
— | Article 4(2) and (3) |
Article 4(2) | Article 4(4) |
— | Article 4(5) |
Article 4(3) | Article 4(6) |
Article 5(1) | Article 5(1) |
Article 5(2), first subparagraph, introductory wording | Article 5(2), first subparagraph, introductory wording |
Article 5(2), first subparagraph, points (a) to (c) | Article 5(2), first subparagraph, points (a) to (c) |
Article 5(2), first subparagraph, point (d) | Article 5(2), first subparagraph, points (d) and (e) |
Article 5(2), first subparagraph, points (e) and (f) | Article 5(2), first subparagraph, points (f) and (g) |
— | Article 5(3) |
Article 5(3) | Article 5(4) |
Article 5(4), first subparagraph, introductory wording | Article 5(5), first subparagraph, introductory wording |
Article 5(4), first subparagraph, points (a) to (d) | Article 5(5), first subparagraph, points (a) to (d) |
Article 5(4), first subparagraph, point (e)(i) to (iii) | Article 5(5), first subparagraph, point(e)(i) to (iii) |
— | Article 5(5), first subparagraph, point (e)(iv) to (vi) |
Article 5(4), first subparagraph, points (f) to (i) | Article 5(5), first subparagraph, points (f) to (i) |
— | Article 5(5), first subparagraph, point (j) |
Article 5(5), first subparagraph, introductory wording | Article 5(6), first subparagraph, introductory wording |
Article 5(5), first subparagraph, points (a), (b) and (c) | Article 5(6), first subparagraph, points (a), (b) and (c) |
— | Article 5(6), first subparagraph, point (d) |
Article 6 | Article 6 |
— | Article 7 |
— | Article 8 |
— | Article 9 |
— | Article 10 |
Article 8(1) | Article 11(1) |
— | Article 11(2) to (4) |
Article 8(2) | Article 11(5) |
— | Article 11(6) |
Article 9 | Article 12 |
— | Article 13 |
Article 10(1) | Article 14(1) |
— | Article 14(2) |
Article 10(2) | Article 14(3) |
Article 10(3) | Article 14(4) |
Article 10(4) | Article 14(5) |
Article 10(5) | Article 14(6) |
Article 10(6) | Article 14(7) |
Article 11 | Article 15 |
— | Article 16 |
Article 12 | Article 17 |
Article 13, introductory wording | Article 18, introductory wording |
Article 13(a) | Article 18(a) |
— | Article 18(b) |
Article 13(b) | Article 18(c) |
Article 13(c) | Article 18(d) |
— | Article 18(e) |
Article 14 | Article 19 |
Article 15(1), introductory wording | Article 20(1), introductory wording |
Article 15(1)(a) to (j) | Article 20(1)(a) to (j) |
— | Article 20(1)(k) and (l) |
Article 15(2) | Article 20(2) |
— | Article 21 |
— | Article 22 |
— | Article 23 |
Article 16(1) and (2) | Article 24(1) and (2) |
— | Article 24(3) |
Article 16(3) | Article 24(4) |
Article 16(4) | Article 24(5) |
— | Article 25 |
Article 17 | Article 26 |
Article 18 | Article 27 |
Article 19 | Article 28 |
Article 20 | Article 29 |
Article 21 | Article 30 |
Article 22 | Article 31 |
Article 23 | Article 32 |
Article 24(1) to (4) | Article 33(1) to (4) |
— | Article 33(5) |
Article 25(1) and (2) | Article 34(1) and (2) |
— | Article 34(3) |
Article 26 | Article 35 |
Article 27 | Article 36 |
Article 28 | Article 37 |
Article 29(1) and (2) | Article 38(1) and (2) |
Article 29(3)(a) to (j) | Article 38(3)(a) to (j) |
— | Article 38(3)(k) and (l) |
Article 30 | Article 39 |
Article 31 | Article 40 |
Article 32 | Article 41 |
Article 33 | Article 42 |
Article 34 | Article 43 |
Article 35 | Article 44 |
Article 36 | Article 45 |
Article 37 | Article 46 |
Article 38 | Article 47 |
Article 39 | Article 48 |
Article 40 | Article 49 |
Article 41 | Article 50 |
Article 42 | Article 51 |
Article 43 | Article 52 |
Article 44 | Article 53 |
Article 45 | Article 54 |
Article 46(1), introductory wording | Article 55(1), introductory wording |
Article 46(1)(a) to (d) | Article 55(1)(a) to (d) |
— | Article 55(1)(e) |
Article 46(2) and (3) | Article 55(2) and (3) |
— | Article 56 |
— | Article 57 |
Article 47(1) and (2) | Article 58(1) and (2) |
Article 47(3) | — |
Article 47(4) | Article 58(3) |
Article 47(5) | — |
— | Article 58(4) |
Article 48(1), introductory wording | Article 59(1), introductory wording |
Article 48(1)(a) | Article 59(1)(a) and (b) |
Article 48(1)(b) and (c) | Article 59(1)(c) and (d) |
— | Article 59(1)(e) |
Article 48(2) and (3) | Article 59(2) and (3) |
Article 59(4) | |
Article 48(4) to (10) | Article 59(5) to (11) |
Article 49 | Article 60 |
Article 50 | Article 61 |
Article 51 | Article 62 |
Article 52 | Article 63 |
Article 53 | Article 64 |
Article 54 | Article 65 |
Article 55 | Article 66 |
Article 56 | Article 67 |
— | Article 68 |
Article 57 | Article 69 |
Article 59 | Article 70 |
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