- Y Diweddaraf sydd Ar Gael (Diwygiedig)
- Gwreiddiol (a wnaed Fel)
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Whole provisions yet to be inserted into this Instrument (including any effects on those provisions):
Article 2
References | |
---|---|
The Air Navigation Order 2000 | S.I. 2000/1562 |
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2001 | S.I. 2001/397 |
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2002 | S.I. 2002/264 |
The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2002 | S.I. 2002/1628 |
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2003 | S.I. 2003/777 |
The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2003 | S.I. 2003/2905 |
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2004 | S.I. 2004/705 |
Articles 4(6) and 155(6)
Article 5(2)
1.—(1) The nationality mark of the aircraft shall be the capital letter “G” in Roman character and the registration mark shall be a group of four capital letters in Roman character assigned by the CAA on the registration of the aircraft. The letters shall be without ornamentation and a hyphen shall be placed between the nationality mark and the registration mark.
(2) The nationality and registration marks shall be displayed to the best advantage, taking into consideration the constructional features of the aircraft and shall always be kept clean and visible.
(3) The letters constituting each group of marks shall be of equal height and they, and the hyphen, shall all be of the same single colour which shall clearly contrast with the background on which they appear.
(4) The nationality and registration marks shall also be inscribed on a fire-proof metal plate affixed in a prominent position—
(a)in the case of a microlight aeroplane, either in accordance with sub-paragraph (c) or on the wing;
(b)in the case of a balloon, on the basket or envelope; or
(c)in the case of any other aircraft on the fuselage or car as the case may be.
(5) The nationality and registration marks shall be painted on the aircraft, or shall be affixed thereto by any other means ensuring a similar degree of permanence, in the manner specified in paragraphs 2 and 3 of this Part.
2.—(1) The position and size of marks on heavier than air aircraft (excluding kites) shall be as follows—
(a)on the horizontal surfaces of the wings—
(i)on aircraft having a fixed wing surface, the marks shall appear on the lower surface of the wing structure and shall be on the port wing unless they extend across the whole surface of both wings. So far as is possible the marks shall be located equidistant from the leading and trailing edges of the wings. The tops of the letters shall be towards the leading edge of the wing;
(ii)the height of the letters shall be—
(aa)subject to sub-paragraph (bb), at least 50 centimetres;
(bb)if the wings are not large enough for the marks to be 50 centimetres in height, marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances;
(b)on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and vertical tail surfaces—
(i)the marks shall also appear either—
(aa)on each side of the fuselage (or equivalent structure), and shall, in the case of fixed wing aircraft be located between the wings and the horizontal tail surface; or
(bb) on the vertical tail surfaces;
(ii)when located on a single vertical tail surface, the marks shall appear on both sides. When located on multi-vertical tail surfaces, the marks shall appear on the outboard sides of the outer-surfaces. Subject to sub-paragraphs (iv) and (v), the height of the letters constituting each group of marks shall be at least 30 centimetres;
(iii)if one of the surfaces authorised for displaying the required marks is large enough for those marks to be 30 centimetres in height (whilst complying with sub-paragraph (v)) and the other is not, marks of 30 centimetres in height shall be placed on the largest authorised surface;
(iv)if neither authorised surface is large enough for marks of 30 centimetres in height (whilst complying with sub-paragraph (v)), marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances shall be displayed on the larger of the two authorised surfaces;
(v)marks on the vertical tail surfaces shall be such as to leave a margin of at least 5 centimetres along each side of the vertical tail surface;
(vi)on rotary wing aircraft where owing to the structure of the aircraft the greatest height practicable for the marks on the side of the fuselage (or equivalent structure) is less than 30 centimetres, the marks shall also appear on the lower surface of the fuselage as close to the line of symmetry as is practicable, and shall be placed with the tops of the letters towards the nose. The height of the letters constituting each group of marks shall be:
(aa)subject to sub-paragraph (bb), at least 50 centimetres; or
(bb)if the lower surface of the fuselage is not large enough for the marks to be of 50 centimetres in height, marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances;
(c)wherever in this paragraph marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances are required, that height shall be such as is consistent with compliance with paragraph 3 of this Part.
(2) The position and size of marks on airships and free balloons shall be as follows—
(a)in the case of airships the marks shall be placed on each side of the airship. They shall be placed horizontally either on the hull near the maximum cross-section of the airship or on the lower vertical stabiliser;
(b)in the case of free balloons, the marks shall be in two places on diametrically opposite sides of the balloon;
(c)in the case of both airships and free balloons the side marks shall be so placed as to be visible from the sides and from the ground. The height of the letters shall be at least 50 centimetres.
3.—(1) For the purposes of this paragraph—
(a)“standard letter” shall mean any letter other than the letters I, M and W;
(b)the width of each standard letter and the length of the hyphen between the nationality mark and the registration mark shall be two thirds of the height of a letter;
(c)the width of the letters M and W shall be neither less than two thirds of their height nor more than their height; and
(d)the width of the letter I shall be one sixth of the height of the letter.
(2) The thickness of the lines comprising each letter and hyphen shall be one sixth of the height of the letters forming the marks.
(3) Each letter and hyphen shall be separated from the letter or hyphen which it immediately precedes or follows by a space equal to either one quarter or one half of the width of a standard letter. Each such space shall be equal to every other such space within the marks.
Article 4(8)
The conditions in an aircraft dealer's certificate shall be as follows—
(1) The operator of the aircraft shall be the registered owner of the aircraft, who shall be the holder of an aircraft dealer's certificate granted under this Order.
(2) The aircraft shall fly only for the purpose of—
(a)testing the aircraft;
(b)demonstrating the aircraft with a view to the sale of that aircraft or of other similar aircraft;
(c)proceeding to or from a place at which the aircraft is to be tested or demonstrated as aforesaid, or overhauled, repaired or modified;
(d)delivering the aircraft to a person who has agreed to buy, lease or sell it; or
(e)proceeding to or from a place for the purpose of storage.
(3) Without prejudice to article 52 the operator of the aircraft shall satisfy himself before the aircraft takes off that the aircraft is in every way fit for the intended flight.
(4) The aircraft shall fly only within the United Kingdom.
Articles 3(3), 8(2) and 65(7)
1.—(1) A non-EASA aircraft registered in the United Kingdom may fly for a purpose set out in paragraph (2) subject to the conditions contained in paragraphs (3) to (8) when either:
(a)it does not have a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the United Kingdom; or
(b)the certificate of airworthiness or certificate of validation issued in respect of the aircraft has ceased to be in force by virtue of any of the matters specified in article 10.
(2) The purposes referred to in paragraph (1) are—
(a)in the case of an aircraft falling within paragraph (1)(a) the aircraft shall fly only so as to enable it to—
(i)qualify for the issue, renewal or validation of a certificate of airworthiness after an application has been made for such issue, renewal or validation as the case may be, or carry out a functional check of a previously approved modification of the aircraft (and for the purpose of this Schedule “a previously approved modification” shall mean a modification which has previously been approved by the CAA or by an organisation approved for that purpose by the CAA in respect of that aircraft or another aircraft of the same type);
(ii)proceed to or from a place at which any inspection, repair, modification, maintenance, approval, test or weighing of, or the installation of equipment in, the aircraft is to take place or has taken place for a purpose referred to in sub-paragraph (i), after any relevant application has been made, or at which the installation of furnishings in, or the painting of, the aircraft is to be undertaken; or
(iii)proceed to or from a place at which the aircraft is to be or has been stored.
(b)in the case of an aircraft falling within paragraph (1)(b), the aircraft shall fly only so as to enable it to—
(i)proceed to a place at which any inspection or maintenance required by virtue of article 10(b)(ii) is to take place; or
(ii)proceed to a place at which any inspection, maintenance or modification required by virtue of article 10(b)(i) or (c) is to take place and in respect of which flight the CAA has given permission in writing; or
(iii)carry out a functional check, test or in-flight adjustment in connection with the carrying out in a manner approved by the CAA of any overhaul, repair, previously approved modification, inspection or maintenance required by virtue of article 10.
(3) The aircraft, including any modifications, shall be of a design which previously has been approved by the CAA, or by an organisation approved for that purpose by the CAA, as being compliant with a standard accepted by the CAA as appropriate for the issue of a national certificate of airworthiness.
(4) The aircraft and its engines shall be certified as fit for flight by the holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer's licence granted under this Order, being a licence which entitles him to issue that certificate or by a person approved by the CAA for the purpose of issuing certificates under this condition, and in accordance with that approval.
(5) The aircraft shall carry the minimum flight crew specified in any certificate of airworthiness or validation or flight manual which has previously been in force under the Order in respect of the aircraft, or is or has previously been in force in respect of any other aircraft of identical design.
(6) The aircraft shall not carry any persons or cargo except persons performing duties in the aircraft in connection with the flight or persons who are carried in the aircraft to perform duties in connection with a purpose referred to in paragraph (2).
(7) The aircraft shall not fly over any congested area of a city, town or settlement except to the extent that it is necessary to do so in order to take off or land.
2.—(1) A non-EASA aircraft may fly for a purpose set out in paragraph (2) subject to the conditions set out in paragraphs (3) to (8) whether or not it is registered in accordance with article 3(1) and when there is not in force—
(a)in the case of an aircraft which is so registered, a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered; or
(b)in the case of an aircraft which is not so registered, either a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the United Kingdom or a permit to fly issued by the CAA in respect of that aircraft.
(2) The purposes referred to in paragraph (1) are—
(a)experimenting with or testing the aircraft (including any engines installed thereon) or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft;
(b)enabling the aircraft to qualify for the issue or validation of a certificate of airworthiness or the approval of a modification of the aircraft or the issue of a permit to fly;
(c)demonstrating and displaying the aircraft, any engines installed thereon or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft with a view to its sale or of other similar aircraft, engines or equipment;
(d)demonstrating and displaying the aircraft to employees of the operator;
(e)the giving of flying training to or the testing of flight crew employed by the operator or the training or testing of other persons employed by the operator and who are carried or are intended to be carried under paragraph (7)(a); or
(f)proceeding to or from a place at which any experiment, inspection, repair, modification, maintenance, approval, test or weighing of the aircraft, the installation of equipment in the aircraft, demonstration, display or training is to take place for a purpose referred to in sub-paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d) or (e) or at which installation of furnishings in, or the painting of, the aircraft is to be undertaken.
(3) The flight shall be operated by a person approved by the CAA for the purposes of these Conditions and subject to any additional conditions which may be specified in such an approval.
(4) If not registered in the United Kingdom the aircraft shall be marked in a manner approved by the CAA for the purposes of these Conditions, and articles 20, 22, 52, 55, 86 and 88 shall be complied with in relation to the aircraft as if it were registered in the United Kingdom.
(5) If not registered in the United Kingdom, the aircraft shall carry such flight crew as may be necessary to ensure the safety of the aircraft.
(6) No person shall act as pilot in command of the aircraft except a person approved for the purpose by the CAA.
(7) The aircraft shall not carry any cargo, or any persons other than the flight crew except the following—
(a)persons employed by the operator who during the flight carry out duties or are tested or receive training in connection with a purpose specified in paragraph (2);
(b)persons acting on behalf of the manufacturers of component parts of the aircraft (including its engines) or of equipment installed in or carried in the aircraft for carrying out during the flight duties in connection with a purpose so specified;
(c)persons approved by the CAA under article 165 as qualified to furnish reports for the purposes of article 9;
(d)persons other than those carried under the preceding provisions of this paragraph who are carried in the aircraft in order to carry out a technical evaluation of the aircraft or its operation;
(e)cargo which comprises equipment carried in connection with a purpose specified in paragraph (2)(f); or
(f)persons employed by the operator or persons acting on behalf of the manufacturers of component parts of the aircraft (including its engines) or of equipment installed in or carried in the aircraft in connection with a purpose specified in paragraph (2)(f) which persons have duties in connection with that purpose.
(8) The aircraft shall not fly, except in accordance with procedures which have been approved by the CAA in relation to that flight, over any congested area of a city, town or settlement.
Article 9
Categories of certificate of airworthiness | Purpose for which the aircraft may fly |
---|---|
Standard | Any purpose |
Special Category | Any purpose, other than public transport, specified in the certificate of airworthiness but not including the carriage of passengers unless expressly permitted. |
Articles 16(9) and 19(2)
1. Every aircraft of a description specified in the first column of the Table in paragraph 5 of this Schedule and which is registered in the United Kingdom shall be provided, when flying in the circumstances specified in the second column of the said Table, with adequate equipment, and for the purpose of this paragraph the expression “adequate equipment” shall mean, subject to paragraph 2, the scales of equipment respectively indicated in the third column of that Table.U.K.
2.—(1) If the aircraft is flying in a combination of such circumstances, the scales of equipment shall not on that account be required to be duplicated.U.K.
(2) The equipment carried in an aircraft as being necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft shall be taken into account in determining whether this Schedule is complied with in respect of that aircraft.
3.—(1) For the purposes of the Table in paragraph 5, flying time in relation to a helicopter or gyroplane shall be calculated on the assumption that it is flying in still air at the speed specified in the relevant flight manual as the speed for compliance with regulations governing flights over water.U.K.
(2) In this Schedule “day” means the time from half an hour before sunrise until half an hour after sunset (both times exclusive), sunset and sunrise being determined at surface level.
4. The following items of equipment shall not be required to be of a type approved by EASA or the CAA—U.K.
(a)the equipment referred to in Scale A (2);
(b)first aid equipment and handbook, referred to in Scale A;
(c)time-pieces, referred to in Scale F;
(d)torches, referred to in Scales G, H, K and Z;
(e)whistles, referred to in Scale H;
(f)sea anchors, referred to in Scales J and K;
(g)rocket signals, referred to in Scale J;
(h)equipment for mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring aircraft on the water, referred to in Scale J;
(i)paddles, referred to in Scale K;
(j)food and water, referred to in Scales K, U and V;
(k)first aid equipment, referred to in Scales K, U and V;
(l)stoves, cooking utensils, snow shovels, ice saws, sleeping bags and Arctic suits, referred to in Scale V;
(m)megaphones, referred to in Scale Y.
5. TableU.K.
Description of Aircraft | Circumstances of Flight | Scale of Equipment Required |
---|---|---|
(1) Gliders | (a)flying for purposes other than public transport or aerial work; and when flying by night | A(2) |
(b)flying for the purpose of public transport or aerial work; and | A, B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7), D and F(1) | |
(i)when flying by night | C and G | |
(ii)when carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres | B(8) and (9) | |
(2) Aeroplanes | (a)flying for purposes other than public transport; and | A(1) and (2) and B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) |
(i)when flying by night | C and D | |
(ii)when flying under Instrument Flight Rules; | ||
(aa)outside controlled airspace | D | |
(bb)within Class A, B or C airspace | E with E(4) duplicated and F | |
(cc)within Class D and E airspace | E and F | |
(iii)when carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres | B(8) and (9) | |
(b) flying for the purpose of public transport; and | A, B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7), D and F(1) | |
(i)when flying under Instrument Flight Rules except flights outside controlled airspace in the case of aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised not exceeding 1,150 kg | E with E(4) duplicated and F | |
(ii)when flying by night; and in the case of aeroplanes of which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds 1,150 kg | C and G, E with E(4) duplicated and F | |
(iii)when flying over water beyond gliding distance from land | H | |
(iv)on all flights on which in the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or during the landing at the intended destination or any likely alternate destination it is reasonably possible that the aeroplane would be forced to land onto water; | H | |
(v)when flying over water; | ||
(aa)in the case of aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit becoming inoperative, at a greater distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing than that corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles, whichever is the lesser; or | H and K | |
(bb)in the case of all other aeroplanes, at a greater distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing than that corresponding to 30 minutes at cruising speed or 100 nautical miles, whichever is the lesser | H and K | |
(vi)having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 2002 | KK(1) or (2) | |
(vii)having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 2002 | KK(2) | |
(viii)on all flights which involve manoeuvres on water | H, J and K | |
(ix)when flying at a height of 10,000 ft or more above mean sea level; | ||
(aa)having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 1989 | L1 or L2 | |
(bb)having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1989 | L2 | |
(x)on flights when the weather reports or forecasts available at the aerodrome at the time of departure indicate that conditions favouring ice formation are likely to be met | M | |
(xi)when carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres | B(8) and (9) | |
(xii)on all flights on which the aircraft carries a flight crew of more than one person | N | |
(xiii)on all flights for the purpose of the public transport of passengers | Q and Y(1), (2) and (3) | |
(xiv)on all flights by a pressurised aircraft | R | |
(xv)when flying over substantially uninhabited land areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, tropical conditions are likely to be met | U | |
(xvi)when flying over substantially uninhabited land or other areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, polar conditions are likely to be met | V | |
(xvii)when flying at an altitude of more than 49,000 ft | W | |
(3) Turbine-jet aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg or pressurised aircraft having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 11,400 kg | when flying for the purpose of public transport | O |
(4) Turbine-engined aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg and piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 27,000 kg except for such aeroplanes falling within paragraphs (5) or (6); | ||
(a)which are operated by an air transport undertaking; or | when flying on any flight | P |
(b)which are public transport aeroplanes in respect of which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under an EASA permit to fly, “A Conditions” or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part B of Schedule 3 | when flying on any flight | P |
(5) Public transport aeroplanes in respect of which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport aeroplanes in respect of which an application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under an EASA permit to fly, “A Conditions” or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part B of Schedule 3 except for such aeroplanes falling within paragraph (6); | ||
(a)which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg but not exceeding 11,400 kg; or | when flying on any flight | S(1) |
(b)which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 11,400 kg but not exceeding 27,000 kg; or | when flying on any flight | S(2) |
(c)which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 27,000 kg but not exceeding 230,000 kg; or | when flying on any flight | S(3) |
(d)which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate in the United Kingdom on or after 1st January 1970 and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 230,000 kg | when flying on any flight | S(3) |
(6) Public transport aeroplanes in respect of which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport aeroplanes in respect of which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under an EASA permit to fly, “A Conditions” or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part B of Schedule 3; | ||
(a)for which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum total weight authorised not exceeding 5,700 kg, are powered by 2 or more turbine engines and with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9; or | when flying on any flight | S(4) |
(b)for which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg but not exceeding 27,000 kg; or | when flying on any flight | S(5) |
(c)for which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 27,000 kg | when flying on any flight | S(6) |
(7) Aerial work and private aeroplanes for which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 27,000 kg. | when flying on any flight | S(6) |
(8) Public transport aeroplanes; | ||
(a)which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 27,000 kg; or | when flying on any flight | T |
(b)which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate in the United Kingdom on or after 1st January 1970 and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 230,000 kg and in respect of which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness; or | when flying on any flight | T |
(c)having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 27,000 kg which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate on or after 1st April 1971 (or 1st January 1970 in the case of an aeroplane having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 230,000 kg) in respect of which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under an EASA permit to fly, “A Conditions” or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part B of Schedule 3 | when flying on any flight | T |
(9)Aeroplanes powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more turbine propeller engines and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 15,000 kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 30 | when flying for the purpose of public transport | X(1) |
(10)Aeroplanes which are powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more turbine propeller engines and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg but not exceeding 15,000 kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 but not exceeding 30 | when flying for the purpose of public transport except when flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate | X(1) |
(11)Aeroplanes which are powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more turbine propeller engines and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9; | ||
(a)in respect of which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness except any such aeroplanes as come within sub-paragraph (b); or | when flying for purposes other than public transport | X(1) or X(2) |
(b)in respect of which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and which have equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water installed before 1st April 2000 | when flying for purposes other than public transport on or after 1st January 2007 | X(1) or X(2) |
(12) Aeroplanes; | ||
(a)powered by one or more turbo-jets and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 22,700 kg; or | when flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers | Z(1) and (2) |
(b)having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any aeroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to an aeroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or | when flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers | Z(1) and (2) |
(c)with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; or | when flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers | Z(1) |
(d)having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any aeroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to an aeroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or | when flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers | Z(3) |
(e)powered by one or more turbo-jets and which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 22,700 kg; or | when flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers | Z(3) |
(f)first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1958 and with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 | when flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers | Z(3) |
(13) Aeroplanes; | ||
(a)powered by one or more turbine jets | when flying on any flight | AA |
(b)powered by one or more turbine propeller engines and having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg and first issued with a certificate of airworthiness in the United Kingdom on or after 1st April 1989 | when flying on any flight | AA |
(14) Public transport aeroplanes | when flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers | Y(4) |
(15) Helicopters and Gyroplanes | (a)flying for purposes other than public transport; and | A(1) and (2) and B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) |
(i)when flying by day under Visual Flight Rules with visual ground reference; | D | |
(ii)when flying by day under Instrument Flight Rules or without visual ground reference; | ||
(aa)outside controlled airspace | E with E(2) duplicated | |
(bb)within controlled airspace | E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated and F with F(4) for all weights | |
(iii)when flying at night; | ||
(aa)with visual ground reference | C, E, G(3) and G(5) and (6) | |
(bb)without visual ground reference outside controlled airspace | C, E with E(2) duplicated, G(3), (5) and (6) | |
(cc)without visual ground reference within controlled airspace | C, E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated, F with F(4) for all weights, G(3), (5) and (6) | |
(b)flying for the purpose of public transport; and | A, B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) and F(1) and F(4) for all weights | |
(i)when flying by day under Visual Flight Rules with visual ground reference | D | |
(ii)when flying by day under Instrument Flight Rules or without visual ground reference | E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated, F(2), F(3) and F(5) | |
(iii)when flying by night with visual ground reference; | ||
(aa)when flying with one pilot | C, E with E(2) duplicated and either E(4) duplicated or a radio altimeter, F(2), (3), (5) and G | |
(bb)when flying in circumstances where two pilots are required | C, E, F(2), F(3), F(5) and G for each pilot's station | |
(iv)when flying by night without visual ground reference | C, E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated, F(2), (3), (5) and G | |
(v)when flying over water; | ||
(aa)in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 2 or 3 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 or B when beyond auto-rotational gliding distance from land suitable for an emergency landing | E and H | |
(bb)on all flights on which in the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or during the landing at the intended destination or any likely alternate destination it is reasonably possible that the helicopter or gyroplane would be forced to land onto water | H | |
(cc)in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 or 2 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 when beyond 10 minutes flying time from land | E, H, K and T | |
(dd)for more than a total of 3 minutes in any flight | EE | |
(ee)in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 or 2 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 which is intended to fly beyond 10 minutes flying time from land or which actually flies beyond 10 minutes flying time from land, on a flight which is either in support of or in connection with the offshore exploitation or exploration of mineral resources (including gas) or is on a flight under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate, when in either case the weather reports or forecasts available to the commander of the aircraft indicate that the sea temperature will be less than plus 10°C during the flight or when any part of the flight is at night | I | |
(vi)when flying on Performance Class 1 or 2 operations over water beyond 10 minutes flying time from land and not required to comply with sub-paragraph (ix) | KK(2) | |
(vii)when flying on Performance Class 3 operations beyond auto-rotational or safe forced landing distance from land | KK(2) | |
(viii)when flying over land areas which have been designated by the State concerned as areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult | KK(2) | |
(ix)when flying on Performance Class 1 or 2 operations over water in a hostile environment at a distance from land corresponding to more than 10 minutes flying time at normal cruising speed in support of or in connection with the offshore exploitation or exploration of mineral resources (including gas) | KK(3) | |
(x)on all flights which involve manoeuvres on water | H, J and K | |
(xi)when flying at a height of 10,000 ft or more above mean sea level; | ||
(aa)having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 1989 | L1 or L2 | |
(bb)having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1989 | L2 | |
(xii)on flights when the weather reports or forecasts available at the aerodrome at the time of departure indicate that conditions favouring ice formation are likely to be met | M | |
(xiii)on all flights on which the aircraft carries a flight crew of more than one person | N | |
(xiv)on all flights for the purpose of the public transport of passengers | Y(1), (2) and (3) | |
(xv)when flying over substantially uninhabited land areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, tropical conditions are likely to be met | U | |
(xvi)when flying over substantially uninhabited land or other areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, polar conditions are likely to be met | V | |
(16) Helicopters and Gyroplanes; | ||
(a)having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any helicopter or gyroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to a helicopter or gyroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or | when flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers | Z(1) and (2) |
(b)with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; or | when flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers | Z(1) |
(c)which are public transport helicopters or gyroplanes in respect of which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport helicopters or gyroplanes in respect of which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under an EASA permit to fly, A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part B of Schedule 3; and | ||
(i)which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 2,730 kg but not exceeding 7,000 kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 or both | when flying on any flight | SS(1) or (3) |
(ii)which have a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 7,000 kg | when flying on any flight | SS(2) or (3) |
6. The scales of equipment indicated in the foregoing Table shall be as follows—U.K.
(1) Spare fuses for all electrical circuits the fuses of which can be replaced in flight, consisting of 10 per cent of the number of each rating or three of each rating, whichever is the greater.
(2) Maps, charts, codes and other documents and navigational equipment necessary, in addition to any other equipment required under this Order, for the intended flight of the aircraft including any diversion which may reasonably be expected.
(3) First aid equipment of good quality, sufficient in quantity, having regard to the number of persons on board the aircraft, and including the following—
(a)roller bandages;
(b)triangular bandages;
(c)adhesive plaster;
(d)absorbent gauze or wound dressings;
(e)cotton wool or wound dressings;
(f)burn dressings;
(g)safety pins;
(h)haemostatic bandages or tourniquets;
(i)scissors;
(j)antiseptic;
(k)analgesic and stimulant drugs;
(l)splints, in the case of aeroplanes the maximum total weight authorised of which exceeds 5,700 kg;
(m)a handbook on first aid.
(4) In the case of a flying machine used for the public transport of passengers in which, while the flying machine is at rest on the ground, the sill of any external door intended for the disembarkation of passengers, whether normally or in an emergency—
(a)is more than 1.82 metres from the ground when the undercarriage of the machine is in the normal position for taxiing; or
(b)would be more than 1.82 metres from the ground if the whole or any part of the undercarriage should collapse, break or fail to function;
apparatus readily available for use at each such door consisting of a device or devices which will enable passengers to reach the ground safely in an emergency while the flying machine is on the ground, and can be readily fixed in position for use.
(1) Subject to sub-paragraph (2), an altitude alerting system capable of alerting the pilot upon approaching a preselected altitude in either ascent or descent, by a sequence of visual and aural signals in sufficient time to establish level flight at that preselected altitude and when deviating above or below that preselected altitude, by a visual and an aural signal.
(2) If the system becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may fly or continue to fly, until it first lands at a place at which it is reasonably practicable for the system to be repaired or replaced.
(1) If the maximum total weight authorised of the aircraft is 2,730 kg or less, for every pilot's seat and for any seat situated alongside a pilot's seat, either a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness, or with the permission of the CAA, a safety belt without a diagonal shoulder strap which permission may be granted if the CAA is satisfied that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness.
(2) If the maximum total weight authorised of the aircraft exceeds 2,730 kg, either a safety harness for every pilot's seat and for any seat situated alongside a pilot's seat, or with the permission of the CAA, a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap which permission may be granted if the CAA is satisfied that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety harness.
(3) For every seat in use (not being a seat referred to in paragraphs (1), (2), (5) and (6)) a safety belt with or without one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness.
(4) In addition, and to be attached to or secured by the equipment required in paragraph (3) above, a child restraint device for every child under the age of two years on board.
(5) On all flights for the public transport of passengers by aircraft, for each seat for use by cabin crew who are required to be carried under this Order, a safety harness.
(6) On all flights in aeroplanes in respect of which a certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st February 1989, the maximum total weight authorised of which does not exceed 5,700 kg but with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9, (otherwise than in seats referred to under paragraph (1) or (2)), a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness for each seat intended for use by a passenger.
(7) If the commander cannot, from his own seat, see all the passengers' seats in the aircraft, a means of indicating to the passengers that seat belts should be fastened.
(8) Subject to paragraph (9), a safety harness for every seat in use.
(9) In the case of an aircraft carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres consisting only of erect spinning, the CAA may permit a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap to be fitted if it is satisfied that such restraint is sufficient for the carrying out of erect spinning in that aircraft and that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety harness in that aircraft.
(1) Equipment for displaying the lights required by the Rules of the Air Regulations 1996.
(2) Electrical equipment, supplied from the main source of supply in the aircraft, to provide sufficient illumination to enable the flight crew properly to carry out their duties during flight.
(3) Unless the aircraft is equipped with radio, devices for making the visual signal specified in the Rules of the Air Regulations 1996 as indicating a request for permission to land.
(1) In the case of a helicopter or gyroplane, a slip indicator.
(2) In the case of any other flying machine either—
(a)a turn indicator and a slip indicator; or
(b)a gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator and a gyroscopic direction indicator.
(3) A sensitive pressure altimeter adjustable for any sea level barometric pressure which the weather report or forecasts available to the commander of the aircraft indicate is likely to be encountered during the intended flight.
(1) In the case of—
(a)a helicopter or gyroplane, a slip indicator;
(b)any other flying machine, a slip indicator and either a turn indicator or, at the option of the operator, an additional gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator.
(2) A gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator.
(3) A gyroscopic direction indicator.
(4) A sensitive pressure altimeter adjustable for any sea level barometric pressure which the weather report or forecasts available to the commander of the aircraft indicate is likely to be encountered during the intended flight.
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), a radio altimeter with an audio voice warning operating below a preset height and a visual warning capable of operating at a height selectable by the pilot.
(2) A helicopter flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate may instead be equipped with a radio altimeter with an audio warning and a visual warning each capable of operating at a height selectable by the pilot.
(1) A timepiece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds.
(2) A means of indicating whether the power supply to the gyroscopic instrument is adequate.
(3) A rate of climb and descent indicator.
(4) A means of indicating in the flight crew compartment the outside air temperature calibrated in degrees celsius.
(5) If the maximum total weight authorised of the aircraft exceeds 5,700 kg two air speed indicators.
(1) In the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter or gyroplane landing lights consisting of 2 single filament lamps, or one dual filament lamp with separately energised filaments.
(2) An electrical lighting system to provide illumination in every passenger compartment.
(3) Either—
(a)one electric torch for each member of the crew of the aircraft; or
(b)one electric torch—
(i)for each member of the flight crew of the aircraft; and
(ii)affixed adjacent to each floor level exit intended for the disembarkation of passengers whether normally or in an emergency, provided that such torches shall—
(aa)be readily accessible for use by the crew of the aircraft at all times; and
(bb)number in total not less than the minimum number of members of the cabin crew required to be carried with a full passenger complement.
(4) In the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter or gyroplane of which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds 5,700 kg, means of observing the existence and build up of ice on the aircraft.
(5) In the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 or 2 operations or a gyroplane in respect of which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness designating the gyroplane as being of performance group A, either—
(a)2 landing lights both of which are adjustable so as to illuminate the ground in front of and below the helicopter or gyroplane and one of which is adjustable so as to illuminate the ground on either side of the helicopter or gyroplane; or
(b)one landing light or, if the maximum total weight authorised of the helicopter or gyroplane exceeds 5,700 kg, one dual filament landing light with separately energised filaments, or 2 single filament lights, each of which is adjustable so as to illuminate the ground in front of and below the helicopter or gyroplane, and 2 parachute flares.
(6) In the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 3 operations or a gyroplane in respect of which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness designating the gyroplane as being of performance group B, either—
(a)one landing light and 2 parachute flares; or
(b)if the maximum total weight authorised of the helicopter or gyroplane exceeds 5,700 kg, either one dual filament landing light with separately energised filaments or 2 single filament landing lights, and 2 parachute flares.
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), for each person on board, a lifejacket equipped with a whistle and waterproof torch.
(2) Lifejackets constructed and carried solely for use by children under three years of age need not be equipped with a whistle.
A survival suit for each member of the crew.
(1) Additional flotation equipment, capable of supporting one-fifth of the number of persons on board, and provided in a place of stowage accessible from outside the flying machine.
(2) Parachute distress rocket signals capable of making, from the surface of the water, the pyrotechnical signal of distress specified in the Rules of the Air Regulations 1996 and complying with Part III of Schedule 15 to the Merchant Shipping (Life-Saving Appliances) Regulations 1980 M1.
(3) A sea anchor and other equipment necessary to facilitate mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring the flying machine on water, appropriate to its size, weight and handling characteristics.
Marginal Citations
(1) In the case of—
(a)a flying machine, other than a helicopter or gyroplane carrying 20 or more persons, liferafts sufficient to accommodate all persons on board;
(b)a helicopter or gyroplane carrying 20 or more persons, a minimum of 2 liferafts sufficient together to accommodate all persons on board.
(2) Each liferaft shall contain the following equipment—
(a)means for maintaining buoyancy;
(b)a sea anchor;
(c)life-lines, and means of attaching one liferaft to another;
(d)paddles or other means of propulsion;
(e)means of protecting the occupants from the elements;
(f)a waterproof torch;
(g)marine type pyrotechnical distress signals;
(h)means of making sea water drinkable, unless the full quantity of fresh water is carried as specified in sub-paragraph (i);
(i)for each 4 or proportion of 4 persons the liferaft is designed to carry—
(i)100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets; and
(ii)1/2 litre of fresh water in durable containers or in any case in which it is not reasonably practicable to carry the quantity of water above specified, as large a quantity of fresh water as is reasonably practicable in the circumstances; provided that in no case shall the quantity of water carried be less than is sufficient, when added to the amount of fresh water capable of being produced by means of the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (h) to provide 1/2 litre of water for each 4 or proportion of 4 persons the liferaft is designed to carry; and
(j)first aid equipment.
(3) Items (2)(f) to (j) inclusive shall be contained in a pack.
(4) The number of survival beacon radio apparatus carried when the aircraft is carrying the number of liferafts specified in column 1 of the following Table shall be not less than the number specified in, or calculated in accordance with, column 2.
Column 1 | Column 2 |
Not more than 8 liferafts | 2 survival beacon radio apparatus |
For every additional 4 or proportion of 4 liferafts | 1 additional survival beacon radio apparatus |
(1) A survival emergency locator transmitter capable of operating in accordance with the relevant provisions of Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention, Volume III (Fifth Edition July 1995) and of transmitting on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz.
(2) An automatic emergency locator transmitter capable of operating in accordance with the relevant provisions of Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention, Volume III (Fifth Edition July 1995) and transmitting on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz.
(3) An automatically deployable emergency locator transmitter capable of operating in accordance with the relevant provisions of Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention, Volume III (Fifth Edition July 1995) and transmitting on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz.
(1) In every flying machine which is provided with means for maintaining a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals throughout the flight in the flight crew compartment and in the compartments in which the passengers are carried—
(a)a supply of oxygen sufficient, in the event of failure to maintain such pressure, occurring in the circumstances specified in columns 1 and 2 of the Table set out in Part II, for continuous use, during the periods specified in column 3 of the said Table, by the persons for whom oxygen is to be provided in accordance with column 4 of that Table; and
(b)in addition, in every case where the flying machine flies above flight level 350, a supply of oxygen in a portable container sufficient for the simultaneous first aid treatment of 2 passengers;
together with suitable and sufficient apparatus to enable such persons to use the oxygen.
(2) In any other flying machine—
(a)a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use by all the crew other than the flight crew, and if passengers are carried, by 10% of the number of passengers, for any period exceeding 30 minutes during which the flying machine flies above flight level 100 but not above flight level 130 and the flight crew shall be supplied with oxygen sufficient for continuous use for any period during which the flying machine flies above flight level 100; and
(b)a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use by all persons on board for the whole time during which the flying machine flies above flight level 130;
together with suitable and sufficient apparatus to enable such persons to use the oxygen.
(3) The quantity of oxygen required for the purpose of complying with paragraphs (1) and (2) of this Part shall be computed in accordance with the information and instructions relating thereto specified in the operations manual relating to the aircraft under paragraph 1(f) of Part A of Schedule 9.
A. The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals in the control compartment and in the compartments in which passengers are carried has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 100.U.K.
B. The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain such pressure has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 150.U.K.
C. The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain such pressure has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 100, but not above flight level 150.U.K.
X. The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain such pressure occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual relating to the aircraft, to flight level 150 within 6 minutes, and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.U.K.
Y. The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain such pressure occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual relating to the aircraft, to flight level 150 within 4 minutes, and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.U.K.
(1) A supply of oxygen and the associated equipment to meet the requirements set out in Part I in the case of unpressurised aircraft and Part II in the case of pressurised aircraft.
(2) The duration for the purposes of this Scale shall be whichever is the greater of—
(a)that calculated in accordance with the operations manual prior to the commencement of the flight, being the period or periods which it is reasonably anticipated that the aircraft will be flown in the circumstances of the intended flight at a height where the said requirements apply and in calculating the said duration account shall be taken of—
(i)in the case of pressurised aircraft, the possibility of depressurisation when flying above flight level 100;
(ii)the possibility of failure of one or more of the aircraft engines;
(iii)restrictions due to required minimum safe altitude;
(iv)fuel requirement; and
(v)the performance of the aircraft; or
(b)the period or periods during which the aircraft is actually flown in the circumstances specified in the said Parts.
Unpressurised aircraft
(1) When flying at or below flight level 100—
Nil.
(2) When flying above flight level 100 but not exceeding flight level 120—
Supply for | Duration |
---|---|
(a)Members of the flight crew | Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 100 |
(b)Members of the cabin crew and 10% of passengers | For any continuous period exceeding 30 minutes during which the aircraft flies above flight level 100 but not exceeding flight level 120, the duration shall be the period by which 30 minutes is exceeded |
(3) When flying above flight level 120—
Supply for | Duration |
---|---|
(a)Members of the flight crew | Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 120 |
(b)Members of the cabin crew and all passengers | Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 120 |
Pressurised aircraft
(1) When flying at or below flight level 100—
Nil.
(2) When flying above flight level 100 but not exceeding flight level 250—
Supply for | Duration |
---|---|
(a)Members of the flight crew | 30 minutes or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft, whichever is the greater |
(b)Members of the cabin crew and 10% of passengers | (i)When the aircraft is capable of descending and continuing to its destination as specified at A hereunder, 30 minutes or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft, whichever is the greater (ii)When the aircraft is not so capable, whenever the cabin pressure altitude is greater than 10,000 ft but does not exceed 12,000 ft |
(c)Members of the cabin crew and all passengers | (i)When the aircraft is capable of descending and continuing to its destination as specified at A hereunder, no requirement other than that at (2)(b)(aa) of this Part of this Scale (ii)When the aircraft is not so capable and the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 ft, the duration shall be the period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 ft or 10 minutes, whichever is the greater |
(3) When flying above flight level 250—
Supply for | Duration |
---|---|
(a)Members of the flight crew | 2 hours or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft, whichever is the greater |
(b)Members of the cabin crew | Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds10,000 ft, and a portable supply for 15 minutes |
(c)10% of passengers | Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds10,000 ft but does not exceed 12,000 ft |
(d)30% of passengers | Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds12,000 ft but does not exceed 15,000 ft |
(e)All passengers | If the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 ft, the duration shall be the period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 ft or 10 minutes, whichever is the greater |
(f)2% of passengers or 2 passengers, whichever is the greater, being a supply of first aid oxygen which must be available for simultaneous first aid treatment of 2% or 2 passengers wherever they are seated in the aircraft | Whenever, after decompression, the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 8,000 ft |
A. The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain cabin pressurisation occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual relating to the aircraft, to flight level 120 within 5 minutes and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.U.K.
Equipment to prevent the impairment through ice formation of the functioning of the controls, means of propulsion, lifting surfaces, windows or equipment of the aircraft so as to endanger the safety of the aircraft.
An intercommunication system for use by all members of the flight crew and including microphones, not of a hand-held type, for use by the pilot and flight engineer (if any).
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), a radar set capable of giving warning to the pilot in command of the aircraft and to the co-pilot of the presence of cumulo-nimbus clouds and other potentially hazardous weather conditions.
(2) A flight may commence if the set is unserviceable or continue if the set becomes unserviceable thereafter—
(a) so as to give the warning only to one pilot, so long as the aircraft is flying only to the place at which it first becomes reasonably practicable for the set to be repaired; or
(b)when the weather report or forecasts available to the commander of the aircraft indicate that cumulo-nimbus clouds or other potentially hazardous weather conditions, which can be detected by the set when in working order, are unlikely to be encountered on the intended route or any planned diversion therefrom or the commander has satisfied himself that any such weather conditions will be encountered in daylight and can be seen and avoided, and the aircraft is in either case operated throughout the flight in accordance with any relevant instructions given in the operations manual.
(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (5), a flight data recorder which is capable of recording, by reference to a time-scale, the following data—
(a)indicated airspeed;
(b)indicated altitude;
(c)vertical acceleration;
(d)magnetic heading;
(e)pitch attitude, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded;
(f)engine power, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded;
(g)flap position;
(h)roll attitude, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded.
(2) Subject to paragraph (5), any aeroplane having a maximum total weight authorised not exceeding 11,400 kg may be provided with—
(a)a flight data recorder capable of recording the data described in paragraph (1)(a) to (1)(h); or
(b)a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder.
(3) Subject to paragraph (5), in addition, on all flights by turbine-powered aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 11,400 kg, a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder.
(4) The flight data recorder and cockpit voice recorder referred to above shall be so constructed that the record would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident to the aeroplane.
(5) An aeroplane shall not be required to carry the said equipment if, before take off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.
If the maximum total weight authorised of the aeroplane exceeds 5,700 kg and it was first registered, whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, on or after 1st June 1965, a door between the flight crew compartment and any adjacent compartment to which passengers have access, which door shall be fitted with a lock or bolt capable of being worked from the flight crew compartment.
(1) In respect of—
(a)aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg, equipment sufficient to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all members of the flight crew required to be carried by virtue of article 25 for a period of not less than 15 minutes and, in addition, where the minimum flight crew required as aforesaid is more than one and a member of the cabin crew is not required to be carried by virtue of article 25, portable equipment sufficient to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of one member of the flight crew for a period of not less than 15 minutes;
(b)aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised not exceeding 5,700 kg, either the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (1)(a) or, in the case of such aeroplanes restricted by virtue of the operator's operations manual to flight at or below flight level 250 and capable of descending as specified at paragraph (4) such equipment sufficient to protect the eyes only.
(2) In respect of—
(a)aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised exceeding 5,700 kg, portable equipment to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all members of the cabin crew required to be carried by virtue of article 25 for a period of not less than 15 minutes;
(b)aeroplanes having a maximum total weight authorised not exceeding 5,700 kg, subject to paragraph (3), the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (2)(a).
(3) Sub-paragraph (2)(b) shall not apply to such aeroplanes restricted by virtue of the operator's operations manual to flight at or below flight level 250 and capable of descending as specified at paragraph (4).
(4) The aeroplane is capable of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual relating to the aeroplane, to flight level 100 within 4 minutes and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.
(1) Subject to paragraphs (7) and (8), either a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder or a flight data recorder capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane: the flight path, attitude and the basic lift, thrust and drag forces acting upon it.
(2) Subject to paragraphs (7) and (8), a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane: the information specified in paragraph (1) together with use of VHF transmitters.
(3) Subject to paragraphs (7) and (8), a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane: the flight path, attitude, the basic lift, thrust and drag forces acting upon it, the selection of high lift devices (if any) and airbrakes (if any), the position of primary flying control and pitch trim surfaces, outside air temperature, instrument landing deviations, use of automatic flight control systems, use of VHF transmitters, radio altitude (if any), the level or availability of essential AC electricity supply and cockpit warnings relating to engine fire and engine shut-down, cabin pressurisation, presence of smoke and hydraulic/pneumatic power supply.
(4) Subject to paragraphs (7) and (8), either a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder or a combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder capable in either case of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a)the flight path;
(b)speed;
(c)attitude;
(d)engine power;
(e)outside air temperature;
(f)configuration of lift and drag devices;
(g)use of VHF transmitters; and
(h)use of automatic flight control systems.
(5) Subject to paragraphs (7) and (8), a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a)the flight path;
(b)speed;
(c)attitude;
(d)engine power;
(e)outside air temperature;
(f)configuration of lift and drag devices;
(g)use of VHF transmitters; and
(h)use of automatic flight control systems.
(6) Subject to paragraphs (7) and (8), a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—
(a)the flight path;
(b)speed;
(c)attitude;
(d)engine power;
(e)outside air temperature;
(f)instrument landing system deviations;
(g)marker beacon passage;
(h)radio altitude;
(i)configuration of the landing gear and lift and drag devices;
(j)position of primary flying controls;
(k)pitch trim position;
(l)use of automatic flight control systems;
(m)use of VHF transmitters;
(n)ground speed/drift angle or latitude/longitude if the navigational equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability;
(o)cockpit warnings relating to ground proximity; and
(p)the master warning system.
(7) An aircraft shall not be required to carry the equipment specified in paragraphs (1) to (6) if, before take-off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.
(8) The cockpit voice recorder or flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder, as the case may be, shall be so constructed that the record would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident.
(1) Subject to paragraphs (4) and (5), a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of its operation and a flight data recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 8 hours of its operation being the data required to determine by reference to a time scale the following matters accurately in respect of the helicopter or gyroplane—
(a)flight path;
(b)speed;
(c)attitude;
(d)engine power;
(e)main rotor speed;
(f)outside air temperature;
(g)position of pilot's primary flight controls;
(h)use of VHF transmitters;
(i)use of automatic flight controls (if any);
(j)use of stability augmentation system (if any);
(k)cockpit warnings relating to the master warning system; and
(l)selection of hydraulic system and cockpit warnings of failure of essential hydraulic systems.
(2) Subject to paragraphs (4) and (5), a 4 channel cockpit voice recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of its operation and a flight data recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 8 hours of its operation being the data required to determine by reference to a time scale the information specified in paragraph (1) together with the following matters accurately in respect of the helicopter or gyroplane—
(a)landing gear configuration;
(b)indicated sling load force if an indicator is provided in the helicopter or gyroplane of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability;
(c) radio altitude;
(d)instrument landing system deviations;
(e)marker beacon passage;
(f)ground speed/drift angle or latitude/longitude if the navigational equipment provided in the helicopter or gyroplane is of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability; and
(g)main gear box oil temperature and pressure.
(3) Subject to paragraphs (4) and (5)—
(a)a combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder which meets the following requirements—
(i)in the case of a helicopter or gyroplane which is otherwise required to carry a flight data recorder specified at paragraph (1) the flight data recorder shall be capable of recording the data specified therein and retaining it for the duration therein specified;
(ii)in the case of a helicopter or gyroplane which is otherwise required to carry a flight data recorder specified at paragraph (2) the flight data recorder shall be capable of recording the data specified therein and retaining it for the duration therein specified;
(iii)the cockpit voice recorder shall be capable of recording and retaining at least the last hour of cockpit voice recording information on not less than three separate channels;
(b)in any case when a combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder specified at paragraph (3)(a) is required to be carried by or under this Order, the flight data recorder shall be capable of retaining—
(i)as protected data the data recorded during at least the last 5 hours of its operation or the maximum duration of the flight, whichever is the greater; and
(ii)additional data as unprotected data for a period which together with the period for which protected data is required to be retained amounts to a total of 8 hours; provided that the flight data recorder need not be capable of retaining the said additional data if additional data is retained which relates to the period immediately preceding the period to which the required protected data relates or for such other period or periods as the CAA may permit under article 62 and the additional data is retained in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.
(4) A helicopter or gyroplane shall not be required to carry the equipment specified in paragraphs (1) to (3) if, before take-off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.
(5) With the exception of flight data which it is expressly stated above may be unprotected, the cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder, as the case may be, shall be so constructed and installed that the record (herein referred to as “protected data”) would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident and each cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder/flight data recorder required to be carried on the helicopter or gyroplane shall have attached an automatically activated underwater sonar location device or an emergency locator radio transmitter.
An underwater sonar location device except in respect of those helicopters or gyroplanes which are required to carry equipment in accordance with Scale SS.
(1) 1 survival beacon radio apparatus.
(2) Marine type pyrotechnical distress signals.
(3) For each 4 or proportion of 4 persons on board, 100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets.
(4) For each 4 or proportion of 4 persons on board, 1/2 litre of fresh water in durable containers.
(5) First aid equipment.
(1) 1 survival beacon radio apparatus.
(2) Marine type pyrotechnical distress signals.
(3) For each 4 or proportion of 4 persons on board, 100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets.
(4) For each 4 or proportion of 4 persons on board, 1/2 litre of fresh water in durable containers.
(5) First aid equipment.
(6) For every 75 or proportion of 75 persons on board, 1 stove suitable for use with aircraft fuel.
(7) 1 cooking utensil, in which snow or ice can be melted.
(8) 2 snow shovels.
(9) 2 ice saws.
(10) Single or multiple sleeping-bags, sufficient for the use of one-third of all persons on board.
(11) 1 arctic suit for each member of the crew of the aircraft.
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), cosmic radiation detection equipment calibrated in millirems per hour and capable of indicating the action and alert levels of radiation dose rate.
(2) An aircraft shall not be required to carry the said equipment if before take-off the equipment is found to be unserviceable and it is not reasonably practicable to repair or replace it at the aerodrome of departure and the radiation forecast available to the commander of the aircraft indicates that hazardous radiation conditions are unlikely to be encountered by the aircraft on its intended route or any planned diversion therefrom.
(1) Subject to paragraph (3), a Terrain Awareness and Warning System known as Class A, being equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including excessive closure rate to terrain, flight into terrain when not in landing configuration, excessive downward deviation from an instrument landing system glideslope, a predictive terrain hazard warning function and a visual display.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), a Terrain Awareness and Warning System known as Class B, being equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including a predictive terrain hazard warning function.
(3) If the equipment becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may fly or continue to fly until it first lands at a place at which it is reasonably practicable for the equipment to be repaired or replaced.
(1) If the aircraft may in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness carry more than 19 and less than 100 passengers, one portable battery-powered megaphone capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and readily available for use by a member of the crew.
(2) If the aircraft may in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness carry more than 99 and less than 200 passengers, 2 portable battery-powered megaphones together capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and each readily available for use by a member of the crew.
(3) If the aircraft may in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness carry more than 199 passengers, 3 portable battery-powered megaphones together capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and each readily available for use by a member of the crew.
(4) If the aircraft may in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness carry more than 19 passengers—
(a)a public address system; and
(b)an interphone system of communication between members of the flight crew and the cabin crew.
(1) An emergency lighting system to provide illumination in the passenger compartment sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft notwithstanding the failure of the lighting systems specified in paragraph (2) of Scale G.
(2) An emergency lighting system to provide illumination outside the aircraft sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft.
(3) An emergency floor path lighting system in the passenger compartment sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft notwithstanding the failure of the lighting systems specified in paragraph (2) of Scale G; provided that if the equipment becomes unserviceable the aircraft may fly or continue to fly in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.
Article 20(2)
1. Subject to paragraph 3, every aircraft shall be provided, when flying in the circumstances specified in the first column of the Table in paragraph 2 of this Schedule, with the scales of equipment respectively indicated in the second column of that Table; provided that, if the aircraft is flying in a combination of such circumstances the scales of equipment shall not on that account be required to be duplicated.U.K.
2. TableU.K.
Aircraft and Circumstances of Flight | Scale of Equipment Required | ||||||||
---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
A | B | C | D | E | F | G | H | J | |
(1) All aircraft (other than gliders) within the United Kingdom— | |||||||||
(a)when flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace | A | E1 | F | ||||||
(b)when flying within controlled airspace | A | ||||||||
(c)when making an approach to landing at an aerodrome notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph | G | ||||||||
(d)when flying for the purpose of public transport | E1 | ||||||||
(2) All aircraft within the United Kingdom— | |||||||||
(a)when flying at or above flight level 245 | A | ||||||||
(b)when flying within airspace notified for the purposes of this sub paragraph | A | ||||||||
(3) All aircraft (other than gliders) within the United Kingdom— | |||||||||
(a)when flying at or above flight level 245 | E1 | F | |||||||
(b)when flying within airspace notified for the purposes of this sub-paragraph | E1 | ||||||||
(c)when flying at or above flight level 100 | E1 | ||||||||
(4) When flying under Instrument Flight Rules within airspace notified for the purposes of this paragraph— | |||||||||
(a)all aeroplanes having a maximum take-off weight authorised not exceeding 5,700 kg and a maximum cruising true airspeed capability not exceeding 250 knots | E2 | ||||||||
(b)all rotorcraft | E2 | ||||||||
(c)all aeroplanes having either a maximum take-off weight authorised of more than 5,700 kg or a maximum cruising true airspeed capability of more than 250 knots | E3 | ||||||||
(d)all aircraft required to carry Scale E2 or E3 | EE | ||||||||
(5) All aircraft registered in the United Kingdom, wherever they may be— | |||||||||
(a)when flying for the purpose of public transport under Instrument Flight Rules— | |||||||||
(i)while making an approach to landing | A | C | D | H | |||||
(ii)on all other occasions | A | C | H | ||||||
(b)when flying for the purpose of public transport | E1 | ||||||||
(c)multi-engined aircraft when flying for the purpose of public transport under Visual Flight Rules | A | H | |||||||
(d)single-engined aircraft when flying for the purpose of public transport under Visual Flight Rules— | |||||||||
(i)over a route on which navigation is effected solely by visual reference to landmarks | A | B | |||||||
(ii)on all other occasions | A | ||||||||
(e)when flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace and not required to comply with paragraph (5)(a) above | A | ||||||||
(6) All aeroplanes registered in the United Kingdom, wherever they may be, and all aeroplanes wherever registered when flying in the United Kingdom, powered by one or more turbine jets or turbine propeller engines and either having a maximum take-off weight exceeding 15,000 kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 30 | J | ||||||||
(7) All aeroplanes powered by one or more turbine jets or turbine propeller engines and either having a maximum take-off weight exceeding 5,700 kg or a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; and— | |||||||||
(a)registered in the United Kingdom and flying for the purpose of public transport; or | J | ||||||||
(b)registered in the United Kingdom and flying within the airspace of the member states of the European Civil Aviation Conference; or | J | ||||||||
(c)flying in the United Kingdom | J |
3.—(1) In the case of sub-paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4)(a), (4)(c) and (5)(e) of paragraph 2, the specified equipment need not be carried if the appropriate air traffic control unit otherwise permits in relation to the particular flight and the aircraft complies with any instructions which the air traffic control unit may give in the particular case.U.K.
(2) An aircraft which is not a public transport aircraft and which is flying in Class D or Class E airspace shall not be required to be provided with distance measuring equipment in accordance with paragraph (b) of Scale F when flying in the circumstances specified in sub-paragraph (1)(a) of paragraph 2.
4. The scales of radio communication and radio navigation equipment indicated in the foregoing Table shall be as follows—U.K.
Radio communication equipment capable of maintaining direct two-way communication with the appropriate aeronautical radio stations.
Radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated on the intended route including such equipment as may be prescribed.
Radio communication equipment capable of receiving from the appropriate aeronautical radio stations meteorological broadcasts relevant to the intended flight.
Radio navigation equipment capable of receiving signals from one or more aeronautical radio stations on the surface to enable the aircraft to be guided to a point from which a visual landing can be made at the aerodrome at which the aircraft is to land.
Secondary surveillance radar equipment which includes a pressure altitude reporting transponder capable of operating in Mode A and Mode C and is capable of being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the air traffic control unit.
Secondary surveillance radar equipment which includes a pressure altitude reporting transponder capable of operating in Mode A and Mode C and has the capability and functionality prescribed for Mode S Elementary Surveillance and is capable of being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the air traffic control unit.
Secondary surveillance radar equipment which includes a pressure altitude reporting transponder capable of operating in Mode A and Mode C and has the capability and functionality prescribed for Mode S Enhanced Surveillance and is capable of being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the air traffic control unit.
The aircraft shall, in the circumstances specified in paragraph 2.1.5.3 of Volume IV (Third Edition July 2002) of Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention, comply with the requirements for antenna diversity set out in that paragraph.
Radio communication and radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated along the intended route including—
(a)automatic direction finding equipment;
(b)distance measuring equipment; and
(c)VHF omni-range equipment.
Radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to make an approach to landing using the Instrument Landing System.
(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated on the intended route including—
(a)automatic direction finding equipment;
(b)distance measuring equipment;
(c)duplicated VHF omni-range equipment; and
(d)a 75 MHz marker beacon receiver.
(2) An aircraft may fly notwithstanding that it does not carry the equipment specified in this Scale if it carries alternative radio navigation equipment or navigational equipment approved in accordance with article 19(9).
(3) Where not more than one item of equipment specified in this Scale is unserviceable when the aircraft is about to begin a flight, the aircraft may nevertheless take off on that flight if—
(a)it is not reasonably practicable for the repair or replacement of that item to be carried out before the beginning of the flight;
(b)the aircraft has not made more than one flight since the item was last serviceable; and
(c)the commander of the aircraft has satisfied himself that, taking into account the latest information available as to the route and aerodrome to be used (including any planned diversion) and the weather conditions likely to be encountered, the flight can be made safely and in accordance with any relevant requirements of the appropriate air traffic control unit.
An airborne collision avoidance system.
5. In this Schedule—U.K.
(1) “Airborne collision avoidance system” means an aeroplane system which conforms to requirements prescribed for the purpose; is based on secondary surveillance radar transponder signals; operates independently of ground based equipment and which is designed to provide advice and appropriate avoidance manoeuvres to the pilot in relation to other aeroplanes which are equipped with secondary surveillance radar and are in undue proximity;
(2) “Automatic direction finding equipment” means radio navigation equipment which automatically indicates the bearing of any radio station transmitting the signals received by such equipment;
(3) “Distance measuring equipment” means radio equipment capable of providing a continuous indication of the aircraft's distance from the appropriate aeronautical radio stations;
(4) “Mode A” means replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface to elicit transponder replies for identity and surveillance with identity provided in the form of a 4 digit identity code;
(5) “Mode C” means replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface to elicit transponder replies for automatic pressure-altitude transmission and surveillance;
(6) “Secondary surveillance radar equipment” means such type of radio equipment as may be notified as being capable of—
(a)replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface; and
(b)being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the appropriate air traffic control unit;
(7) “VHF omni-range equipment” means radio navigation equipment capable of giving visual indications of bearings of the aircraft by means of signals received from very high frequency omni-directional radio ranges.
Article 22
1. The following entries shall be included in the aircraft log book—
(1) the name of the constructor, the type of the aircraft, the number assigned to it by the constructor and the date of the construction of the aircraft;
(2) the nationality and registration marks of the aircraft;
(3) the name and address of the operator of the aircraft;
(4) the date of each flight and the duration of the period between take-off and landing, or, if more than one flight was made on that day, the number of flights and the total duration of the periods between take-offs and landings on that day;
(5) subject to paragraph (8), particulars of all maintenance work carried out on the aircraft or its equipment;
(6) subject to paragraph (8), particulars of any defects occurring in the aircraft or in any equipment required to be carried therein by or under this Order, and of the action taken to rectify such defects including a reference to the relevant entries in the technical log or approved record required by article 15(2) and (3);
(7) subject to paragraph (8), particulars of any overhauls, repairs, replacements and modifications relating to the aircraft or any such equipment as aforesaid;
(8) entries shall not be required to be made under paragraphs (5), (6) and (7) in respect of any engine or variable pitch propeller.
2. The following entries shall be included in the engine log book—
(1) the name of the constructor, the type of engine, the number assigned to it by the constructor and the date of the construction of the engine;
(2) the nationality and registration marks of each aircraft in which the engine is fitted;
(3) the name and address of the operator of each such aircraft;
(4) either—
(a)the date of each flight and the duration of the period between take-off and landing or, if more than one flight was made on that day, the number of flights and the total duration of the periods between take-offs and landings on that day; or
(b)the aggregate duration of periods between take-off and landing for all flights made by that aircraft since the immediately preceding occasion that any maintenance, overhaul, repair, replacement, modification or inspection was undertaken on the engine;
(5) particulars of all maintenance work done on the engine;
(6) particulars of any defects occurring in the engine, and of the rectification of such defects, including a reference to the relevant entries in the technical log or approved record required by article 15(2) and (3);
(7) particulars of all overhauls, repairs, replacements and modifications relating to the engine or any of its accessories.
3. The following entries shall be included in the variable pitch propeller log book—
(1) the name of the constructor, the type of propeller, the number assigned to it by the constructor and the date of the construction of the propeller;
(2) the nationality and registration marks of each aircraft, and the type and number of each engine, to which the propeller is fitted;
(3) the name and address of the operator of each such aircraft;
(4) either—
(a)the date of each flight and the duration of the period between take-off and landing or, if more than one flight was made on that day, the number of flights and the total duration of the periods between take-offs and landings on that day; or
(b)the aggregate duration of periods between take-off and landing for all flights made by that aircraft since the immediately preceding occasion that any maintenance, overhaul, repair, replacement, modification or inspection was undertaken on the propeller;
(5) particulars of all maintenance work done on the propeller;
(6) particulars of any defects occurring in the propeller, and of the rectification of such defects, including a reference to the relevant entries in the technical log or approved record required by article 15(2) and (3);
(7) particulars of any overhauls, repairs, replacements and modifications relating to the propeller.
Article 25(9)
The following areas are hereby specified for the purposes of article 25(9)—
All that area north of latitude 68° north, but excluding any part within the area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points—
68° | north | latitude | 00° | east/west | longitude |
73° | north | latitude | 15° | east | longitude |
73° | north | latitude | 30° | east | longitude |
68° | north | latitude | 45° | east | longitude |
68° | north | latitude | 00° | east/west | longitude |
All that area south of latitude 55° south.
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points—
30° | north | latitude | 05° | west | longitude |
24° | north | latitude | 11° | west | longitude |
14° | north | latitude | 11° | west | longitude |
14° | north | latitude | 28° | east | longitude |
24° | north | latitude | 28° | east | longitude |
28° | north | latitude | 23° | east | longitude |
30° | north | latitude | 15° | east | longitude |
30° | north | latitude | 05° | west | longitude |
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points—
04° | north | latitude | 72° | west | longitude |
04° | north | latitude | 60° | west | longitude |
08° | south | latitude | 42° | west | longitude |
18° | south | latitude | 54° | west | longitude |
18° | south | latitude | 60° | west | longitude |
14° | south | latitude | 72° | west | longitude |
05° | south | latitude | 76° | west | longitude |
04° | north | latitude | 72° | west | longitude |
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points—
60° | north | latitude | 180° | east/west | longitude |
20° | north | latitude | 128° | east | longitude |
04° | north | latitude | 128° | east | longitude |
04° | north | latitude | 180° | east/west | longitude |
55° | south | latitude | 180° | east/west | longitude |
55° | south | latitude | 82° | west | longitude |
25° | south | latitude | 82° | west | longitude |
60° | north | latitude | 155° | west | longitude |
60° | north | latitude | 180° | east/west | longitude |
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points—
18° | south | latitude | 123° | east | longitude |
30° | south | latitude | 118° | east | longitude |
30° | south | latitude | 135° | east | longitude |
18° | south | latitude | 123° | east | longitude |
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points—
35° | south | latitude | 110° | east | longitude |
55° | south | latitude | 180° | east/west | longitude |
55° | south | latitude | 10° | east | longitude |
40° | south | latitude | 10° | east | longitude |
25° | south | latitude | 60° | east | longitude |
20° | south | latitude | 60° | east | longitude |
05° | south | latitude | 43° | east | longitude |
10° | north | latitude | 55° | east | longitude |
10° | north | latitude | 73° | east | longitude |
04° | north | latitude | 77° | east | longitude |
04° | north | latitude | 92° | east | longitude |
10° | south | latitude | 100° | east | longitude |
10° | south | latitude | 110° | east | longitude |
35° | south | latitude | 110° | east | longitude |
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points—
55° | north | latitude | 15° | west | longitude |
68° | north | latitude | 28° | west | longitude |
68° | north | latitude | 60° | west | longitude |
45° | north | latitude | 45° | west | longitude |
40° | north | latitude | 60° | west | longitude |
40° | north | latitude | 19° | west | longitude |
55° | north | latitude | 15° | west | longitude |
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points—
40° | north | latitude | 60° | west | longitude |
18° | north | latitude | 60° | west | longitude |
05° | south | latitude | 30° | west | longitude |
55° | south | latitude | 55° | west | longitude |
55° | south | latitude | 10° | east | longitude |
40° | south | latitude | 10° | east | longitude |
02° | north | latitude | 05° | east | longitude |
02° | north | latitude | 10° | west | longitude |
15° | north | latitude | 25° | west | longitude |
40° | north | latitude | 19° | west | longitude |
40° | north | latitude | 60° | west | longitude |
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points—
68° | north | latitude | 130° | west | longitude |
55° | north | latitude | 115° | west | longitude |
55° | north | latitude | 70° | west | longitude |
68° | north | latitude | 60° | west | longitude |
68° | north | latitude | 130° | west | longitude |
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points—
68° | north | latitude | 56° | east | longitude |
68° | north | latitude | 160° | east | longitude |
50° | north | latitude | 125° | east | longitude |
50° | north | latitude | 56° | east | longitude |
68° | north | latitude | 56° | east | longitude |
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points—
50° | north | latitude | 56° | east | longitude |
50° | north | latitude | 125° | east | longitude |
40° | north | latitude | 110° | east | longitude |
30° | north | latitude | 110° | east | longitude |
30° | north | latitude | 80° | east | longitude |
35° | north | latitude | 80° | east | longitude |
35° | north | latitude | 56° | east | longitude |
50° | north | latitude | 56° | east | longitude |
Articles 27, 28, 29, 30 and 31
Minimum age—17 years
No maximum period of validity
Privileges:
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane of any of the types or classes specified or otherwise falling within an aircraft rating included in the licence.
(2) He shall not—
(a)fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of public transport or aerial work save as hereinafter provided—
(i)he may fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of aerial work which consists of—
(aa)the giving of instruction in flying, if his licence includes a flying instructor's rating, class rating instructor rating, flight instructor rating or an assistant flying instructor's rating; or
(bb)the conducting of flying tests for the purposes of this Order;
in either case in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a flying club of which the person giving the instruction or conducting the test and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both members;
(ii)he may fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of aerial work which consists of—
(aa)towing a glider in flight; or
(bb)a flight for the purpose of dropping of persons by parachute;
in either case in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a flying club of which the holder of the licence and any person carried in the aircraft or in any glider towed by the aircraft are members;
(b)receive any remuneration for his services as a pilot on a flight save that if his licence includes a flying instructor's rating, a flight instructor rating or an assistant flying instructor's rating by virtue of which he is entitled to give instruction in flying microlight aeroplanes or self-launching motor gliders he may receive remuneration for the giving of such instruction or the conducting of such flying tests as are specified in sub-paragraph (a)(i) in a microlight aircraft or a self launching motor glider;
(c)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane—
(i)on a flight outside controlled airspace when the flight visibility is less than 3 km;
(ii)on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less than 10 km except on a route or in an aerodrome traffic zone notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph; or
(iii)out of sight of the surface;
(d)fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane at night unless his licence includes a night rating (aeroplanes) or a night qualification (aeroplane);
(e)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class A, B or C airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules;
(f)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class D or E airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules; or
(g)fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane carrying passengers unless within the preceding 90 days he has made at least three take-offs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aeroplane of the same type or class and if such a flight is to be carried out at night and his licence does not include an instrument rating (aeroplane) at least one of those take-offs and landings shall have been at night.
Minimum age—18 years
Maximum period of validity—10 years
Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Basic Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) shall be entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes).
(2) Subject to paragraphs (3) and (7), he shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane of a type or class on which he is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aeroplane is engaged on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.
(3) He shall not—
(a)fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport if he has less than 400 hours of flying experience as pilot in command of aeroplanes other than self-launching motor gliders or microlight aeroplanes;
(b)fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport if its maximum total weight authorised exceeds 2,300 kg;
(c)fly such an aeroplane on any scheduled journey;
(d)fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport except a flight beginning and ending at the same aerodrome and not extending beyond 25 nautical miles from that aerodrome;
(e)fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport after he attains the age of 60 years unless the aeroplane is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained the age of 60 years and who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling him to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that aeroplane;
(f)fly such an aeroplane at night, unless his licence includes a night rating (aeroplanes) or a night qualification (aeroplane);
(g)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane—
(i)on a flight outside controlled airspace when the flight visibility is less than 3 km;
(ii)on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less than 10 km except on a route or in an aerodrome traffic zone notified for the purposes of this sub-paragraph; or
(iii)out of sight of the surface;
(h)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class A, B or C airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules;
(i)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class D or E airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules; or
(j)fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane carrying passengers unless within the preceding 90 days he has made at least three take-offs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aeroplane of the same type or class and if the flight is to be undertaken at night and his licence does not include an instrument rating (aeroplane) at least one of those take-offs and landings shall have been at night.
(4) Subject to paragraph (5), he shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane of a type or class specified in an instructor's rating included in the licence on a flight for the purpose of aerial work which consists of—
(a)the giving of instruction in flying; or
(b)the conducting of flying tests for the purposes of this Order;
in either case in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a flying club of which the person giving the instruction or conducting the test and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both members.
(5) He shall not be entitled to exercise the privileges contained in paragraph (4) other than in an aeroplane which he is entitled to fly as pilot in command on a private flight, an aerial work flight or a public transport flight under the privileges set out in paragraph (1) or (2) of these privileges.
(6) Subject to paragraph (7) he shall be entitled to fly as co-pilot of any aeroplane of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aeroplane is engaged on a flight for any purpose whatsoever provided that he shall not be entitled to fly as co-pilot of an aeroplane which is engaged on a flight for the purpose of public transport unless he has more than 400 hours of flying experience as pilot in command of aeroplanes other than self-launching motor gliders and microlight aeroplanes and the aeroplane is certificated for single pilot operation.
(7) He shall not at any time after he attains the age of 65 years act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport.
Minimum age—18 years
Maximum period of validity—10 years
Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) shall be entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) which includes an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) and a night rating (aeroplanes) or night qualification (aeroplane), and shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane—
(a)on a special VFR flight notwithstanding that the flight visibility is less than 3 km;
(b)when the aeroplane is taking off or landing at any place notwithstanding that the flight visibility below cloud is less than 1,800 metres.
(2) Subject to paragraphs (3) and (7), he shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane of a type or class on which he is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aeroplane is engaged on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.
(3) He shall not—
(a)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly such an aeroplane on any scheduled journey;
(b)fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane carrying passengers unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type or class or in a flight simulator, approved for the purpose, of the aeroplane type or class to be used, in the preceding 90 days;
(c)as co-pilot serve at the flying controls in an aeroplane carrying passengers during take-off and landing unless he has served as a pilot at the controls during take-off and landing in an aeroplane of the same type or class or in a flight simulator, approved for the purpose, of the aeroplane type or class to be used, in the preceding 90 days;
(d)as the holder of a licence which does not include a valid instrument rating (aeroplane), fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the take-offs and landings required in sub-paragraph (b) has been carried out at night;
(e)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly any such aeroplane of which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds 2,300 kg on any flight for the purpose of public transport, except a flight beginning and ending at the same aerodrome and not extending beyond 25 nautical miles from that aerodrome;
(f)fly such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport unless it is certificated for single pilot operation;
(g)fly such an aeroplane on any flight for the purpose of public transport after he attains the age of 60 years unless the aeroplane is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained the age of 60 years and who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling him to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that aeroplane; or
(h)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class A, B or C airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
(4) Subject to paragraph (5), he shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane of a type or class specified in an instructor's rating included in the licence on a flight for the purpose of aerial work which consists of—
(a)the giving of instruction in flying; or
(b)the conducting of flying tests for the purposes of this Order;
in either case in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a flying club of which the person giving the instruction or conducting the test and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both members.
(5) He shall not be entitled to exercise privileges contained in paragraph (4) other than in an aeroplane which he is entitled to fly as pilot in command on a private flight, an aerial work flight or a public transport flight under the privileges set out in paragraph (1) or (2) of these privileges.
(6) Subject to paragraph (7) he shall be entitled to fly as co-pilot of any aeroplane of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aeroplane is engaged on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.
(7) He shall not at any time after he attains the age of 65 years act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport.
Minimum age—21 years
Maximum period of validity—10 years
Privileges:
The holder of an Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) shall be entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) except that sub-paragraph (3)(f) of those privileges shall not apply.
Minimum age—17 years
No maximum period of validity
Privileges:
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any helicopter of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence.
(2) He shall not—
(a)fly such a helicopter for the purpose of public transport or aerial work other than aerial work which consists of—
(i)the giving of instruction in flying if his licence includes a flying instructor's rating, flight instructor rating or an assistant flying instructor's rating; or
(ii)the conducting of flying tests for the purposes of this Order;
in either case in a helicopter owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a flying club of which the person giving the instruction or conducting the test and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both members;
(b)receive any remuneration for his services as a pilot on a flight other than remuneration for the giving of such instruction or the conducting of such flying tests as are specified in sub-paragraph (a);
(c)fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter at night unless his licence includes a night rating (helicopters) or a night qualification (helicopter);
(d)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter) fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such a helicopter flying in Class A, B or C airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules; or
(e)fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter carrying passengers unless—
(i)within the preceding 90 days he has made at least three circuits, each to include take-offs and landings, as the sole manipulator of the controls of a helicopter of the same type; or
(ii)if the privileges are to be exercised by night and his licence does not include an instrument rating, within the preceding 90 days he has made at least three circuits, each to include take-offs and landings, by night as the sole manipulator of the controls of a helicopter of the same type.
Minimum age—17 years
No maximum period of validity
Privileges:
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any gyroplane of a type specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence.
(2) He shall not—
(a)fly such a gyroplane for the purpose of public transport or aerial work other than aerial work which consists of—
(i)the giving of instruction in flying if his licence includes a flying instructor's rating, flight instructor rating or an assistant flying instructor's rating; or
(ii)the conducting of flying tests for the purposes of this Order;
in either case in a gyroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a flying club of which the person giving the instruction or conducting the test and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both members;
(b)receive any remuneration for his services as a pilot on a flight other than remuneration for the giving of such instruction or the conducting of such flying tests as are specified in sub-paragraph (a);
(c)fly as pilot in command of such a gyroplane at night unless his licence includes a night rating (gyroplanes) and he has within the immediately preceding 13 months carried out as pilot in command not less than 5 take-offs and five landings at a time when the depression of the centre of the sun was not less than 12° below the horizon.
Minimum age—18 years
Maximum period of validity—10 years
Privileges:
(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (5), the holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) shall be entitled—
(a)to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) or a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) which includes respectively either a night rating (helicopters) or night qualification (helicopter) or a night rating (gyroplanes); and
(b)to fly as pilot in command of any helicopter or gyroplane on which he is so qualified and which is of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the helicopter or gyroplane is engaged on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.
(2) He shall not—
(a)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter) fly such a helicopter on any scheduled journey or on any flight for the purpose of public transport other than in visual meteorological conditions;
(b)fly such a helicopter on a flight for the purpose of public transport unless it is certificated for single pilot operation;
(c)fly such a helicopter on any flight for the purpose of public transport after he attains the age of 60 years unless the helicopter is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained the age of 60 years and who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling him to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that helicopter;
(d)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter) fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter flying in Class A, B or C airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules;
(e)fly as pilot in command of a helicopter carrying passengers unless he has carried out at least three circuits, each to include take-offs and landings, as pilot flying in a helicopter of the same type or a flight simulator of the helicopter type to be used, in the preceding 90 days;
(f)as the holder of a helicopter licence which does not include a valid instrument rating (helicopter) act as pilot in command of a helicopter carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the take-offs and landings required in sub-paragraph (e) above has been carried out at night;
(g)fly such a gyroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport unless it is certificated for single pilot operation;
(h)fly such a gyroplane at night unless he has within the immediately preceding 13 months carried out as pilot in command not less than 5 take-offs and 5 landings at a time when the depression of the centre of the sun was not less than 12° below the horizon; or
(i)fly such a gyroplane on any flight for the purpose of public transport after he attains the age of 60 years unless the gyroplane is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who has not attained the age of 60 years and who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling him to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that gyroplane.
(3) Subject to paragraphs (4) and (5) he shall be entitled to fly as co-pilot of any helicopter or gyroplane of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the helicopter or gyroplane is engaged on a flight for any purpose whatsoever.
(4) He shall not—
(a)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter) fly as co-pilot of a helicopter flying in Class A, B or C airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules;
(b)as co-pilot serve at the flying controls in a helicopter carrying passengers during take-off and landing unless he has served as a pilot at the controls during take-off and landing in a helicopter of the same type or in a flight simulator of the helicopter type to be used, in the preceding 90 days; or
(c)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter) fly as co-pilot of a helicopter on any scheduled journey or on a flight for the purpose of public transport other than in visual meteorological conditions.
(5) He shall not at any time after he attains the age of 65 years act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any helicopter or gyroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport.
Minimum age—21 years
Maximum period of validity—10 years
Privileges:
The holder of an Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) shall be entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) except that sub-paragraphs (2)(b) and (2)(g) of those privileges shall not apply.
Minimum age—17 years
No maximum period of validity
Privileges:
(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships) shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command of any type of balloon or airship on which he is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating in the licence and co-pilot of any type of balloon or airship specified in such a rating.
(2) He shall not—
(a)fly such a balloon or airship for the purpose of public transport or aerial work, other than aerial work which consists of the giving of instruction in flying or the conducting of flying tests in either case in a balloon or airship owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a flying club of which the person giving the instruction or conducting the test and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both members;
(b)receive any remuneration for his services as a pilot on a flight other than remuneration for the giving of such instruction or the conducting of such flying tests as are specified in sub-paragraph (a); or
(c)fly such a balloon unless he has within the immediately preceding 13 months carried out as pilot in command in a free balloon at least 5 flights each of not less than 5 minutes duration.
Minimum age—18 years
Maximum period of validity—10 years
Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) shall be entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships).
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), he shall be entitled to fly, when the balloon is flying for any purpose whatsoever, as pilot in command or co-pilot of any type of balloon specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence.
(3) He shall not act as pilot in command on a flight for the purpose of the public transport of passengers unless he has within the immediately preceding 90 days carried out as pilot in command in a free balloon at least 3 flights each of not less than 5 minutes duration.
Minimum age—18 years
Maximum period of validity—10 years
Privileges:
(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships) shall be entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships).
(2) He shall be entitled to fly, when the airship is flying for any purpose whatsoever, as pilot in command of any type of airship on which he is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence and as co-pilot of any type of airship specified in such a rating.
Minimum age—18 years
Maximum period of validity—10 years
Privileges:
The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gliders) shall be entitled to fly for any purpose as pilot in command or co-pilot of—
(a)any glider of which the maximum total weight authorised does not exceed 680 kg;
(b)any glider of which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds 680 kg and which is of a type specified in the rating included in the licence.
Minimum age—21 years
Maximum period of validity—10 years
Privileges:
The holder of a Flight Navigator's Licence shall be entitled to act as flight navigator in any aircraft.
Minimum age—21 years
Maximum period of validity—10 years
Privileges:
The holder of a Flight Engineer's Licence shall be entitled to act as flight engineer in any type of aircraft specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence.
Minimum age—16 years
Maximum period of validity—10 years
Privileges:
The holder of a Flight Radiotelephony Operator's Licence shall be entitled to operate radiotelephony apparatus in any aircraft if the stability of the frequency radiated by the transmitter is maintained automatically but shall not be entitled to operate the transmitter, or to adjust its frequency, except by the use of external switching devices.
Minimum age—17 years
Maximum period of validity—5 years
Privileges and conditions:
(1) Subject to any conditions specified in respect of the licence, the privileges of the holder of a Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) are to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot in command or co-pilot of any aeroplane specified in a class or type rating included in Part XII of the licence engaged in non-revenue flights.
(2) The licence is subject to the conditions and restrictions specified in paragraph 1.175 of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1.
(3) The holder shall not—
(a)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane—
(i)on a flight outside controlled airspace when the flight visibility is less than 3 km;
(ii)on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less than 10 km except on a route or in an aerodrome traffic zone notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph; or
(iii)out of sight of the surface;
(b)unless his licence includes an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes), fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class D or E airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules;
(c)fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane at night unless his licence includes a night rating (aeroplanes) or a night qualification (aeroplane); or
(d)fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane carrying passengers unless within the preceding 90 days he has made at least three take-offs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aeroplane of the same type or class and if such a flight is to be carried out at night and his licence does not include an instrument rating (aeroplanes) at least one of those take-offs and landing shall have been at night.
Minimum age—18 years
Maximum period of validity—5 years
Privileges and conditions:
(1) Subject to any conditions specified in respect of the licence, the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) are to—
(a)exercise all the privileges of the holder of a JAR-FCL Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) which includes a night qualification;
(b)act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any aeroplane specified in a type or class rating included in Part XII of the licence on a flight other than a public transport flight;
(c)act as pilot in command on a public transport flight of any aeroplane included in Part XII of the licence certificated for single pilot operation; and
(d)act as co-pilot on a public transport flight of any aeroplane included in Part XII of the licence.
(2) The licence is subject to the conditions and restrictions specified in paragraph 1.175 of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1.
(3) The holder shall not—
(a)fly as pilot in command on a flight for the purpose of public transport unless he complies with the requirements of paragraph 1.960(a)(1) and (2) of Section 1 of JAR-OPS 1;
(b)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly such an aeroplane on any scheduled journey;
(c)fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane carrying passengers unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type or class or in a flight simulator, approved for the purpose, of the aeroplane type or class to be used, in the preceding 90 days;
(d)as co-pilot serve at the flying controls in an aeroplane carrying passengers during take-off and landing unless he has served as a pilot at the controls during take-off and landing in an aeroplane of the same type or class or in a flight simulator, approved for the purpose, of the aeroplane type or class to be used, in the preceding 90 days;
(e)as the holder of a licence which does not include a valid instrument rating (aeroplane) act as pilot in command of an aeroplane carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the take-offs and landings required in sub-paragraph (c) has been carried out at night; or
(f)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane), fly any such aeroplane of which the maximum total weight authorised exceeds 2,300 kg on any flight for the purpose of public transport, except a flight beginning and ending at the same aerodrome and not extending beyond 25 nautical miles from that aerodrome.
(4) The holder shall be entitled subject to paragraph (5), to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane of a type or class specified in any flying instructor's rating, class rating instructor rating, flight instructor rating or assistant flying instructor's rating included in the licence on a flight for the purpose of aerial work which consists of—
(a)the giving of instruction in flying; or
(b)the conducting of flying tests for the purposes of this Order;
in either case in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a flying club of which the person giving the instruction or conducting the test and the person receiving the instruction or undergoing the test are both members.
(5) The holder shall not be entitled to exercise privileges contained in paragraph (4) other than in an aeroplane which he is entitled to fly as pilot in command on a private flight, an aerial work flight or a public transport flight under the privileges set out in paragraph (1) or (2) of these privileges.
Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more
(6) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 60 years but not attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of an aeroplane on a public transport flight except where the holder is:
(a)a member of a multi-pilot crew; and
(b)the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years.
(7) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of an aeroplane on a public transport flight.
Minimum age—21 years
Maximum period of validity—5 years
Privileges and conditions:
(1) Subject to any conditions specified in respect of the licence, the privileges of the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) are to—
(a)exercise all the privileges of the holder of a JAR-FCL Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane), a JAR-FCL Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) and an instrument rating (aeroplane); and
(b)act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any aeroplane specified in a type rating included in Part XII of the licence on a public transport flight.
(2) The licence is subject to the conditions and restrictions specified in paragraph 1.175 of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1.
Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more
(3) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 60 years but not attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of an aeroplane on a public transport flight except where the holder is—
(a)a member of a multi-pilot crew; and
(b)the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years.
(4) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of an aeroplane on a public transport flight.
Minimum age—17 years
Maximum period of validity—5 years
Privileges and conditions:
(1) Subject to any conditions specified in respect of the licence, the privileges of the holder of a Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter) are to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot in command or co-pilot of any helicopter included in a type rating in Part XII of the licence engaged in non-revenue flights.
(2) The licence is subject to the conditions and restrictions specified in paragraph 2.175 of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 2.
(3) The holder shall not—
(a)fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter at night unless his licence includes a night rating (helicopters) or a night qualification (helicopter); or
(b)fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter carrying passengers unless—
(i)within the preceding 90 days he has made at least three solo circuits, each to include take-offs and landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of a helicopter of the same type; or
(ii)if the privileges are to be exercised by night and his licence does not include an instrument rating, within the preceding 90 days he has made at least three circuits, each to include take-offs and landings by night as the sole manipulator of the controls of a helicopter of the same type.
Minimum age—18 years
Maximum period of validity—5 years
Privileges and conditions:
(1) Subject to any conditions specified in respect of the licence, the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopter) are to—
(a)exercise all the privileges of the holder of a JAR-FCL Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter);
(b)act as pilot in command or co-pilot of any helicopter included in a type rating in Part XII of the licence on a flight other than a public transport flight;
(c)act as pilot in command on a public transport flight of any helicopter certificated for single-pilot operation included in Part XII of the licence;
(d)act as co-pilot on a public transport flight in any helicopter included in Part XII of the licence required to be operated with a co-pilot.
(2) The licence is subject to the conditions and restrictions specified in paragraph 2.175 of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 2.
(3) The holder shall not fly as pilot in command on a flight for the purpose of public transport unless he complies with the requirements of paragraph 3.960(a)(2) of Section 1 of JAR-OPS 3.
(4) The holder shall not—
(a)unless his licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter), fly such a helicopter on any scheduled journey or on any flight for the purpose of public transport other than in visual meteorological conditions;
(b)fly as pilot in command of a helicopter carrying passengers unless he has carried out at least three circuits, each to include take-offs and landings, as pilot flying in a helicopter of the same type or a flight simulator of the helicopter type to be used, in the preceding 90 days; or
(c)as the holder of a helicopter licence which does not include a valid instrument rating (helicopter), act as pilot in command of a helicopter carrying passengers at night unless during the previous 90 days at least one of the take-offs and landings required in sub-paragraph (b) has been carried out at night.
Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more
(5) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 60 years but not attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of a helicopter on a public transport flight except where the holder is—
(a)a member of a multi-pilot crew; and
(b)the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years.
(6) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of a helicopter on a public transport flight.
Minimum age—21 years
Maximum period of validity—5 years
Privileges and conditions:
(1) Subject to any conditions specified in respect of the licence, the privileges of the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Helicopter) are to—
(a)exercise all the privileges of the holder of a JAR-FCL Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter) and a JAR-FCL Commercial Pilot Licence (Helicopter); and
(b)subject to paragraph (2), act as pilot in command or co-pilot in any helicopter included in a type rating in Part XII of the licence on a public transport flight.
(2) The holder shall not fly as pilot in command on a flight for the purpose of public transport unless he complies with the requirements of paragraph 3.960(a)(2) of Section 1 of JAR-OPS 3.
Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more
(3) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 60 years but not attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of a helicopter on a public transport flight except where the holder is—
(a)a member of a multi-pilot crew; and
(b)the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained the age of 60 years.
(4) The holder of a licence who has attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of a helicopter on a public transport flight.
Minimum age—17 years
No maximum period of validity
Privileges and conditions:
(1) Subject to paragraphs (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) the holder of the licence shall be entitled to fly as pilot in command of any simple single engine aeroplane, microlight aeroplane or SLMG specified or otherwise falling within an aircraft rating included in the licence.
Flight outside the United Kingdom
(2) He shall not fly—
(a)such a simple single engine aeroplane or a microlight aeroplane outside the United Kingdom except with the permission of the competent authority for the airspace in which he flies; or
(b)such a SLMG in or over the territory of a Contracting State other than the United Kingdom except in accordance with permission granted by the competent authority of that State provided that he may fly a SLMG outside the United Kingdom if his licence includes a SLMG rating and a medical certificate appropriate for such a flight.
Flight for purpose of public transport and aerial work
(3) He shall not fly any such aeroplane for the purpose of public transport or aerial work except in the circumstances specified in paragraph (4).
(4) The circumstances referred to in paragraph (3) are that he flies such an aeroplane for the purpose of aerial work which consists of towing another aeroplane or glider in flight—
(a)in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by a flying club of which the holder of the licence and any person carried in the towing aeroplane or in any aeroplane or glider being towed are members; or
(b)in an aeroplane owned, or operated under arrangements entered into, by an organisation approved by the CAA for the purpose of this provision when—
(i)the holder of the licence is a member of an organisation approved by the CAA for the purpose of this provision; and
(ii)any person carried in the towing aeroplane or in any aeroplane or glider being towed is a member of an organisation approved by the CAA for the purpose of this provision.
Prohibitions on flight in specified conditions
(5) He shall not fly—
(a)as pilot in command of such a simple single engine aeroplane on a flight outside controlled airspace when the flight visibility is less than 5 km;
(b)as pilot in command of such a SLMG or microlight aeroplane on a flight outside controlled airspace when the flight visibility is less than 3 km;
(c)as pilot in command of any such aeroplane—
(i)on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less than 10 km;
(ii)out of sight of the surface; or
(iii)at night; or
(d)as pilot in command of any such aeroplane in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
Carriage of persons
(6) He shall not fly as pilot in command of any such aeroplane—
(a)when the total number of persons carried (including the pilot) exceeds four; or
(b)when carrying passengers unless within the preceding 90 days he has made at least three take-offs and three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aeroplane of the same class as that being flown.
Differences training
(7) He shall not fly—
(a)as pilot in command of such a simple single engine aeroplane where—
(i)the aeroplane is fitted with a tricycle undercarriage;
(ii)the aeroplane is fitted with a tailwheel;
(iii)the engine is fitted with either a supercharger or turbo-charger;
(iv)the engine is fitted with a variable pitch propeller;
(v)the landing gear is retractable;
(vi)a cabin pressurisation system is fitted; or
(vii)the aeroplane has a maximum continuous cruising speed in excess of 140 knots indicated airspeed;
unless appropriate differences training has been completed and recorded in his personal flying log book; or
(b)as pilot in command of such a microlight aeroplane where—
(i)the aeroplane has 3 axis controls and his previous training and experience has only been in an aeroplane with flexwing controls; or
(ii)the aeroplane has flexwing controls and his previous training and experience has only been in an aeroplane with 3 axis controls;
unless appropriate differences training has been completed and recorded in his personal flying logbook.
1. The following ratings may be included in a pilot's licence granted under Part 4, and, subject to the provisions of this Order and of the licence, the inclusion of a rating in a licence shall have the consequences respectively specified as follows—U.K.
Aircraft rating: The rating shall entitle the holder of the licence to act as pilot of aircraft of the types and classes specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence and different types and classes of aircraft may be specified in respect of different privileges of a licence.
Instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes)
(1) Subject to paragraph (2) the rating shall within the United Kingdom—
(a)entitle the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) or a United Kingdom Basic Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane without being subject to the restrictions contained respectively in paragraph (2)(c) or (f) of the privileges of the United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) or (3)(g) or (i) of the privileges of the United Kingdom Basic Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes); and
(b)entitle the holder of a JAR-FCL Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) to fly as pilot in command of an aeroplane in Class D or E airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
(2) The rating shall not entitle the holder of the licence to fly—
(a)on a special VFR flight in a control zone in a flight visibility of less than 3 km; or
(b)when the aeroplane is taking off or landing at any place if the flight visibility below cloud is less than 1,800 metres.
Instrument rating (aeroplane) shall entitle the holder of the licence to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane flying in controlled airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
Instrument rating (helicopter) shall entitle the holder of the licence to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of a helicopter flying in controlled airspace in circumstances which require compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
Microlight class rating shall, when included in the aircraft rating of a National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) or a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) and subject to the conditions of the licence in which it is included, entitle the holder to act as pilot in command of any microlight aeroplane.
Night rating (aeroplanes) shall entitle the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) or a United Kingdom Basic Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) to act as pilot in command of an aeroplane at night.
Night qualification (aeroplane) shall entitle the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes), a JAR-FCL Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) or a United Kingdom Basic Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) to act as pilot in command of an aeroplane at night.
Night rating (helicopters) shall entitle the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) to act as pilot in command of a helicopter at night.
Night qualification (helicopter) shall entitle the holder of either a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) or a JAR-FCL Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter) to act as pilot in command of a helicopter at night.
Night rating (gyroplanes) shall entitle the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) to act as pilot in command of a gyroplane at night.
Simple single engine aeroplane (NPPL) class rating shall, when included in the aircraft rating of a National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) and subject to the conditions of that licence, entitle the holder to act as pilot in command of any simple single engine aeroplane with a maximum take off weight authorised not exceeding 2,000 kg excluding any such aeroplane which is a self-launching motor glider or a microlight aeroplane.
SLMG class rating shall, when included in the aircraft rating of a National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) or a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) and subject to the conditions of the licence in which it is included, entitle the holder to act as pilot in command of any SLMG.
Towing rating (flying machines) shall entitle the holder of the licence to act as pilot of a flying machine while towing a glider in flight for the purpose of public transport or aerial work.
Flying instructor's rating shall entitle the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying aircraft of such types and classes as may be specified in the rating for that purpose.
Assistant flying instructor's rating shall entitle the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying aircraft of such types and classes as may be specified in the rating for that purpose provided that—
(a)such instruction shall only be given under the supervision of a person present during the take-off and landing at the aerodrome at which the instruction is to begin and end and holding a pilot's licence endorsed with a flying instructor's rating;
(b)such a rating shall not entitle the holder of the licence to give directions to the person undergoing instruction in respect of the performance by that person of—
(i)his first solo flight;
(ii)his first solo flight by night;
(iii)his first solo cross-country flight otherwise than by night; or
(iv)his first solo cross-country flight by night.
Flight instructor rating (aeroplane) shall entitle the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying aircraft of such types and classes as may be specified in the rating for that purpose subject to the restrictions specified below.
Flight instructor rating (aeroplane)—Restrictions
Restricted period
(1) Until the holder of a flight instructor rating (aeroplane) has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and, in addition, has supervised at least 25 solo flights by students, the privileges of the rating shall be restricted.
(2) The restrictions shall be removed from the rating when the above requirements have been met and on the recommendation of the supervising flight instructor (aeroplane).
Restricted privileges
(3) The privileges shall be restricted to carrying out under the supervision of the holder of a flight instructor rating (aeroplane) approved for this purpose—
(a)flight instruction for the issue of the Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) or those parts of integrated courses at Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) level and class and type ratings for single-engine aeroplanes, excluding approval of first solo flights by day or by night and first solo cross country flights by day or by night; and
(b)night flying instruction.
Flight instructor rating (helicopter) shall entitle the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying helicopters of such types as may be specified in the rating for that purpose subject to the restrictions specified below.
Flight instructor rating (helicopter)—Restrictions
Restricted period
(1) Until the holder of a flight instructor rating (helicopter) has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and, in addition, has supervised at least 25 solo flights by students, the privileges of the rating shall be restricted.
(2) The restrictions shall be removed from the rating when the above requirements have been met and on the recommendation of the supervising flight instructor (helicopter).
Restricted privileges
(3) The privileges shall be restricted to carrying out under the supervision of the holder of a flight instructor rating (helicopter) approved for this purpose—
(a)flight instruction for the issue of the Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter) or those parts of integrated courses at Private Pilot Licence (Helicopter) level and type ratings for single-engine helicopters, excluding approval of first solo flights by day or by night and first solo cross-country flights by day or by night; and
(b)night flying instruction.
Type rating instructor rating (multi-pilot aeroplane) shall entitle the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating, including the instruction required for multi-crew co-operation.
Type rating instructor rating (helicopter) shall entitle the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a type rating, including the instruction required for multi-crew co-operation as applicable.
Class rating instructor rating (single-pilot aeroplane) shall entitle the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a type or class rating for single-pilot aeroplanes.
Instrument rating instructor rating (aeroplane) shall entitle the holder to conduct flight instruction for the issue of an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes).
Instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter) shall entitle the holder to conduct flight instruction for the issue of an instrument rating (helicopter).
2. An aircraft rating included in a flight engineer's licence shall entitle the holder of the licence to act as flight engineer only of aircraft of a type specified in the aircraft rating.U.K.
3. For the purposes of this Schedule—U.K.
“Day” means the time from half an hour before sunrise until half an hour after sunset (both times exclusive), sunset and sunrise being determined at surface level;
“Solo flight” means a flight on which the pilot of the aircraft is not accompanied by a person holding a pilot's licence granted or rendered valid under this Order;
“Cross-country flight” means any flight during the course of which the aircraft is more than 3 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure.
1.
(a)A certificate of test or a certificate of experience required by article 28, 30(2) or 31(1) shall not be appropriate to the functions to be performed on a flight unless it is a certificate appropriate to the description of the flight according to the following Table—
Case | Class of United Kingdom Licence | Description of Flight | Certificate Required |
---|---|---|---|
A | Microlight Licence SLMG Licence Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) | Any flight within the privileges of the licence | Certificate of test or certificate of experience |
B | Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gliders) Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships) | Carriage of passengers on a flight in respect of which the holder of the licence receives remuneration | Certificate of test |
C | Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gliders) Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships) | For public transport | Certificate of test |
D | Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gliders) Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships) | For aerial work | Certificate of test or certificate of experience |
E | Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gliders) Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships) | Any flight within the privileges of a Private Pilot's Licence | Certificate of test or certificate of experience |
F | Flight Navigator's Licence | Flights to which article 25(9) applies | Certificate of experience |
(b)For the purposes of this Part of this Schedule, references to Cases are references to the Cases indicated in the first Column of the Table in paragraph 1(a) of this Part of this Schedule.
2. A certificate of test required by article 28, 30(2) or 31(1) shall be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and shall certify the following particulars—
(a)the functions to which the certificate relates;
(b)that the person signing the certificate is satisfied that on a date specified in the certificate the holder of the licence or personal flying logbook of which the certificate forms a part, as the case may be, passed an appropriate test of his ability to perform the functions to which the certificate relates;
(c)the type of aircraft or flight simulator in or by means of which the test was conducted; and
(d)the date on which it was signed.
3. The appropriate test referred to in paragraph 2 above shall be—
(a)in the case of a test which entitles the holder of the licence of which the certificate forms part to act as pilot in command or co-pilot (or both) of aircraft of the type, types or class specified in the certificate, a test of the pilot's competence to fly the aircraft as pilot in command or co-pilot (or both) and shall, where the CAA so specifies in respect of the whole or part of a test, be conducted in an aircraft in flight or by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA;
(b)in the case of a test which entitles the holder of the licence of which the certificate forms part to perform the functions to which a flying instructor's rating (gyroplanes), an assistant flying instructor's rating (gyroplanes) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) relates, a test of his ability to perform the functions to which the rating relates and shall, where the CAA so specifies in respect of the whole or part of the test, be conducted in an aircraft in flight.
4. A certificate of test—
(a)required by article 28 in respect of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) shall not be valid in relation to a flight made more than 13 months after the date of the test which it certifies and, required by article 28 or 30(2) in respect of any other licence, shall not be valid in relation to a flight made more than 13 months in Cases A, B and E or more than 6 months in Cases C and D after the date of the test which it certifies; provided that in the case of Cases C and D, 2 certificates of test shall together be deemed to constitute a valid certificate of test if they certify flying tests conducted on 2 occasions within the period of 13 months preceding the flight on which the functions are to be performed, such occasions being separated by an interval of not less than 4 months, and if both certificates are appropriate to those functions;
(b)required by article 31(1) in respect of an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) shall not be valid in relation to a flight made more than 25 months after the date of the test which it certifies;
(c)required by article 31(1) in respect of an assistant flying instructor's rating (gyroplanes) and a flying instructor's rating (gyroplanes) shall not be valid in relation to a flight made more than 3 years after the date of the test which it certifies.
5. A certificate of experience required by article 28 or 30(2) shall be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign such a certificate and shall certify the following particulars—
(a)the functions to which the certificate relates;
(b)in the case of a pilot, that on the date on which the certificate was signed the holder of the licence or personal flying log book of which it forms part, as the case may be, produced his personal flying log book to the person signing the certificate and satisfied him that he had appropriate experience in the capacity to which his licence relates within the appropriate period specified in paragraph 6 of this Part of this Schedule;
(c)in the case of a flight navigator, that on the date on which the certificate was signed the holder of the licence of which it forms part produced his navigation logs, charts and workings of astronomical observations to the person signing the certificate and satisfied him that he had appropriate experience in the capacity to which the licence relates within the appropriate period specified in paragraph 6 of this Part of this Schedule;
(d)in the case of a pilot or flight engineer, the type or types of aircraft in which the experience was gained;
(e)the date on which it was signed.
6. A certificate of experience shall not be valid unless the experience was gained within the period of 13 months preceding the signing of the certificate in the case of Cases A, E and F, or 6 months preceding the signing of the certificate in the case of Case D.
7. A certificate of experience in respect of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) shall not be valid for more than 13 months after it was signed and in respect of any other licence shall not be valid for more than 6 months after it was signed for Case D nor for more than 13 months after it was signed for any other case.
1. A certificate of revalidation required by article 29 or 31(2) shall not be appropriate to the exercise of the privileges of a flight crew licence unless it is a certificate which accords with this Section.
2.
(1) Aeroplane type and class ratings
(a)Type ratings and multi-engine class ratings, aeroplane
(i)Validity
Type ratings and multi-engine class ratings for aeroplanes are valid for one year beginning with the date of issue, or the date of expiry if revalidated within the period of three months preceding the date of expiry.
(ii)Revalidation
For revalidation of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings, aeroplane, the applicant shall satisfy the requirements specified in paragraph 1.245(a) and (b) of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1.
(b)Single-pilot single-engine class ratings
(i)Validity
Single-pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for two years beginning with the date of issue, or the date of expiry if revalidated within the period of three months preceding the date of expiry.
(ii)Revalidation of all single-engine piston aeroplane class ratings (land) and all touring motor glider ratings
For revalidation of single-pilot single-engine piston aeroplane (land) class ratings or touring motor glider class ratings (or both) the applicant shall on single engine piston aeroplanes (land) or touring motor gliders (as the case may be) satisfy the requirements specified in paragraph 1.245(c)(1) of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1.
(iii)Revalidation of single-engine turbo-prop aeroplanes (land) single-pilot
For revalidation of single-engine turbo-prop (land) class ratings the applicant shall within the three months preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency check with an authorised examiner on an aeroplane in the relevant class.
(iv)Revalidation of single-engine piston aeroplanes (sea)
For revalidation of single-pilot single-engine piston aeroplane (sea) class ratings the applicant shall—
(aa)within the three months preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency check with an authorised examiner on a single-engine piston aeroplane (sea); or
(bb)within the 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating complete at least 12 hours of flight time including at least 6 hours of pilot in command time on either a single-engine piston aeroplane (sea) or a single-engine piston aeroplane (land) and at least 12 water take-offs and 12 alightings on water; and either complete a training flight of at least 1 hour duration with a flight instructor or pass a proficiency check or skill test for any other class or type rating.
(c)Expired ratings
(i)If a type rating or multi-engine class rating has expired, the applicant shall meet the requirements in paragraph (b) above and meet any refresher training requirements as determined by the CAA and the rating will be valid from the date of completion of the renewal requirements.
(ii)If a single-pilot single-engine class rating has expired, the applicant shall complete the skill test in accordance with the requirements specified at Appendix 3 to paragraph 1.240 of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1.
(2) Helicopter type ratings
(a)Type ratings, helicopter—validity
Type ratings for helicopters are valid for one year beginning with the date of issue, or the date of expiry if revalidated within the period of three months preceding the date of expiry.
(b)Type ratings, helicopter—revalidation
For revalidation of type ratings, helicopter, the applicant shall complete the requirements specified in paragraph 2.245(b) of Section 1 of JAR-FCL 2.
(c)Expired ratings
If a type rating has expired, the applicant shall meet the requirements in sub-paragraph (b) above and meet any refresher training requirements as determined by the CAA and the rating shall be valid for a period beginning with the date of completion of the renewal requirements.
(3) Flight engineer type ratings
(a)Type ratings—validity
Flight engineer type ratings are valid for one year beginning with the date of issue, or the date of expiry if revalidated within the period of three months preceding the date of expiry.
(b)Type ratings—Revalidation
For revalidation of flight engineer type ratings the applicant shall, within the three months preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency check with an authorised examiner on the relevant type of aircraft.
3.
(1) A certificate of revalidation required by article 29 or 31(2) shall be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and shall certify—
(a)the functions to which the certificate relates;
(b)that the person signing the certificate is satisfied that on a date specified in the certificate, the holder of the licence of which the certificate forms a part met the appropriate requirements for revalidation specified in respect of the rating, in the case of an aircraft rating in paragraph 2 and in the case of any other rating in the Table at sub-paragraph (2) below, to exercise the privileges of the licence or rating to which the certificate relates;
(c)the type of aircraft or flight simulator in or by means of which the test was conducted; and
(d)the date on which it was signed.
(2) The requirements for revalidation of a rating listed in Column 1 are those set out in Column 2 of the following Table—
Rating | Paragraph in Section 1 of JAR-FCL 1 or 2 |
---|---|
Instrument rating (aeroplane) | 1.185 |
Instrument rating (helicopter) | 2.185 |
Flight Instructor (aeroplane) | 1.355 |
Flying instructor's rating (aeroplanes) | |
Assistant flying instructor's rating (aeroplanes) | |
Flight instructor (helicopter) | 2.355 |
Flying instructor's rating (helicopters) | |
Assistant flying instructor's rating (helicopters) | |
Type rating instructor rating (multi-pilot aeroplane) | 1.370 |
Type rating instructor rating (helicopter) | 2.370 |
Class rating instructor rating (single pilot aeroplane) | 1.385 |
Instrument rating instructor rating (aeroplane) | 1.400 |
Instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter) | 2.400 |
1. A simple single engine aeroplane (NPPL) class rating included in a National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) shall not be valid for the purposes of article 30(1) unless the provisions of this Section have been complied with.U.K.
2. A simple single engine aeroplane (NPPL) class rating shall be valid if either—U.K.
(a)the holder has within the 12 months preceding the flight flown not less than six hours in an aeroplane falling within the simple single engine aeroplane (NPPL) class rating, four hours of which shall have been as pilot in command and he has carried out a training flight of at least 1 hour duration with a flying instructor within the previous 24 months; or
(b)he has within the three months preceding the expiry of the rating undertaken a simple single engine aeroplane (NPPL) General Skills Test.
Articles 38(3), 40(3) and 42(3)
1. Information and instructions relating to the following matters shall be included in the operations manual referred to in article 38(2)—U.K.
(a)the number of the crew to be carried in the aircraft, on each stage of any route to be flown, and the respective capacities in which they are to act, and instructions as to the order and circumstances in which command is to be assumed by members of the crew;
(b)the respective duties of each member of the crew and the other members of the operating staff;
(c)the scheme referred to in article 82(1)(c)(i);
(d)such technical particulars concerning the aircraft, its engines and equipment and concerning the performance of the aircraft as may be necessary to enable the flight crew of the aircraft to perform their respective duties;
(e)the manner in which the quantities of fuel and oil to be carried by the aircraft are to be computed and records of fuel and oil carried and consumed on each stage of the route to be flown are to be maintained; the instructions shall take account of all circumstances likely to be encountered on the flight including the possibility of failure of one or more of the aircraft engines;
(f)the manner in which the quantity, if any, of oxygen and oxygen equipment to be carried in the aircraft for the purpose of complying with Scale L1 or L2 in Schedule 4 is to be computed;
(g)the check system to be followed by the crew of the aircraft prior to and on take-off, on landing and in an emergency, so as to ensure that the operating procedures contained in the operations manual and in the flight manual or performance schedule for the aircraft are complied with;
(h)the circumstances in which a radio watch is to be maintained;
(i)the circumstances in which oxygen is to be used by the crew of the aircraft, and by passengers;
(j)subject to paragraph 2, communication, navigational aids, aerodromes, local regulations, in-flight procedures, approach and landing procedures and such other information as the operator may deem necessary for the proper conduct of flight operations; the information referred to in this sub-paragraph shall be contained in a route guide, which may be in the form of a separate volume;
(k)the reporting in flight to the notified authorities of meteorological observations;
(l)subject to paragraph 2, the minimum altitudes for safe flight on each stage of the route to be flown and any planned diversion therefrom, such minimum altitudes being not lower than any which may be applicable under the law of the United Kingdom or of the countries whose territory is to be flown over;
(m)the particulars referred to in article 47(2);
(n)emergency flight procedures, including procedures for the instruction of passengers in the position and use of emergency equipment and procedures to be adopted when the commander of the aircraft becomes aware that another aircraft or a vessel is in distress and needs assistance;
(o)in the case of aircraft intended to fly at an altitude of more than 49,000 ft the procedures for the use of cosmic radiation detection equipment;
(p)the labelling and marking of dangerous goods, the manner in which they must be loaded on or suspended beneath an aircraft, the responsibilities of members of the crew in respect of the carriage of dangerous goods and the action to be taken in the event of emergencies arising involving dangerous goods;
(q)such particulars of any permission granted to the operator under article 21 as may be necessary to enable the commander of the aircraft to determine whether he can comply with article 52(b)(ii);
(r)procedures for the operation of any airborne collision avoidance system carried on the aircraft; and
(s)the establishment and maintenance of an accident prevention and flight safety programme.
2. In relation to any flight which is not one of a series of flights between the same two places it shall be sufficient if, to the extent that it is not practicable to comply with sub-paragraphs (j) and (l), the manual contains such information and instructions as will enable the equivalent data to be ascertained before take-off.U.K.
The following information and instructions in relation to the training, experience, practice and periodical tests required under article 42(3) shall be included in the training manual referred to in article 40(3)—
(a)the manner in which the training, practice and periodical tests required under article 42(3) and specified in Part C of this Schedule are to be carried out;
(b)the minimum qualifications and experience which the operator requires of persons appointed by him to give or to supervise the said training, practice and periodical tests;
(c)the type of training, practice and periodical tests which each such person is appointed to give or to supervise;
(d)the type of aircraft in respect of which each such person is appointed to give or to supervise the said training, practice and periodical tests;
(e)the minimum qualifications and experience required for each member of the crew undergoing the said training, practice and periodical tests;
(f)the current syllabus for, and specimen forms for recording, the said training, practice and periodical tests;
(g)the manner in which instrument flight conditions and engine failure are to be simulated in the aircraft in flight;
(h)the extent to which the said training and testing is permitted in the course of flights for the purpose of public transport; and
(i)the use to be made in the said training and testing of apparatus approved for the purpose by the CAA.
1. The training, experience, practice and periodical tests required under article 42(3) for members of the crew of an aircraft engaged on a flight for the purpose of public transport shall be as specified in paragraph 2.U.K.
2.—(1) CrewU.K.
Every member of the crew shall—
have been tested within the relevant period by or on behalf of the operator as to his knowledge of the use of the emergency and life saving equipment required to be carried in the aircraft on the flight; and
have practised within the relevant period under the supervision of the operator or of a person appointed by him for the purpose, the carrying out of the duties required of him in case of an emergency occurring to the aircraft, either in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight or in apparatus approved by the CAA for the purpose and controlled by persons so approved.
(2) Pilots
(a)Every pilot included in the flight crew who is intended by the operator to fly as pilot in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules shall within the relevant period have been tested by or on behalf of the operator—
(i)as to his competence to perform his duties while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures in flight, in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight, including the use of the instruments and equipment provided in the aircraft; and
(ii)as to his competence to perform his duties in instrument flight conditions while executing emergency manoeuvres and procedures in flight, in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight, including the use of the instruments and equipment provided in the aircraft.
(b)A pilot's ability to carry out normal manoeuvres and procedures shall be tested in the aircraft in flight.
(c)The other tests required by sub-paragraph (a) may be conducted either in the aircraft in flight, or under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.
(d)The tests specified in sub-paragraph (a)(ii) when conducted in the aircraft in flight shall be carried out either in actual instrument flight conditions or in instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the CAA.
(e)Every pilot included in the flight crew whose licence does not include an instrument rating or who, notwithstanding the inclusion of such a rating in his licence, is not intended by the operator to fly in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules, shall within the relevant period have been tested, by or on behalf of the operator in flight in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight—
(i)as to his competence to act as pilot of that aircraft, while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures; and
(ii)as to his competence to act as pilot of that aircraft while executing emergency manoeuvres and procedures.
(f)Every pilot included in the flight crew who is seated at the flying controls during the take-off or landing and who is intended by the operator to fly as pilot in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules shall within the relevant period have been tested as to his proficiency in using instrument approach-to-land systems of the type in use at the aerodrome of intended landing and any alternate aerodromes, such test being carried out either in flight in instrument flight conditions or in instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the CAA; or under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.
(g)In the case of a helicopter, every pilot included in the flight crew whose licence does not include an instrument rating but who is intended to fly at night under visual flight conditions, shall within the relevant period have been tested, by or on behalf of the operator, in a helicopter of the type to be used on the flight—
(i)as to his competence to act as pilot of that helicopter, while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures; and
(ii)as to his competence to act as pilot of that helicopter, while executing specified manoeuvres and procedures in flight in instrument flight conditions by means approved by the CAA.
(h)Every pilot included in the flight crew and who is seated at the flying controls during take-off or landing shall within the relevant period have carried out, when seated at the flying controls, at least three take-offs and three landings in aircraft of the type to be used on the flight.
(3) Flight engineers
(a)Every flight engineer included in the flight crew shall within the relevant period have been tested by or on behalf of the operator—
(i)as to his competence to perform his duties while executing normal procedures in flight, in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight;
(ii)as to his competence to perform his duties while executing emergency procedures in flight, in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight.
(b)A flight engineer's ability to carry out normal procedures shall be tested in an aircraft in flight and the other tests required by this sub-paragraph may be conducted either in the aircraft in flight, or under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.
(4) Flight navigators and flight radiotelephony operators
Every flight navigator and flight radiotelephony operator whose inclusion in the flight crew is required under article 25(9) and (11) respectively shall within the relevant period have been tested by or on behalf of the operator as to his competence to perform his duties in conditions corresponding to those likely to be encountered on the flight—
(a)in the case of a flight navigator, using equipment of the type to be used in the aircraft on the flight for purposes of navigation;
(b)in the case of a flight radiotelephony operator using radio equipment of the type installed in the aircraft to be used on the flight, and including a test of his ability to carry out emergency procedures.
(5) Aircraft commanders
(a)The pilot designated as commander of the aircraft for the flight shall within the relevant period have demonstrated to the satisfaction of the operator that he has adequate knowledge of the route to be taken, the aerodromes of take-off and landing, and any alternate aerodromes, including in particular his knowledge of—
(i)the terrain;
(ii)the seasonal meteorological conditions;
(iii)the meteorological, communications and air traffic facilities, services and procedures;
(iv)the search and rescue procedures; and
(v)the navigational facilities;
relevant to the route.
(b)In determining whether a pilot's knowledge of the matters referred to in sub-paragraph (a) is sufficient to render him competent to perform the duties of aircraft commander on the flight, the operator shall take into account the pilot's flying experience in conjunction with the following—
(i)the experience of other members of the intended flight crew;
(ii)the influence of terrain and obstructions on departure and approach procedures at the aerodromes of take-off and intended landing and at alternate aerodromes;
(iii)the similarity of the instrument approach procedures and let-down aids to those with which the pilot is familiar;
(iv)the dimensions of runways which may be used in the course of the flight in relation to the performance limits of aircraft of the type to be used on the flight;
(v)the reliability of meteorological forecasts and the probability of difficult meteorological conditions in the areas to be traversed;
(vi)the adequacy of the information available regarding the aerodrome of intended landing and any alternate aerodromes;
(vii)the nature of air traffic control procedures and the familiarity of the pilot with such procedures;
(viii)the influence of terrain on route conditions and the extent of the assistance obtainable en route from navigational aids and air-to-ground communication facilities; and
(ix)the extent to which it is possible for the pilot to become familiar with unusual aerodrome procedures and features of the route by means of ground instruction and training devices.
(6) Definitions and validity periods
For the purposes of this Part—
(a)“visual flight conditions” means weather conditions such that the pilot is able to fly by visual reference to objects outside the aircraft;
(b)“instrument flight conditions” means weather conditions such that the pilot is unable to fly by visual reference to objects outside the aircraft;
(c)“relevant period” means a period which immediately precedes the commencement of the flight, being, subject to sub-paragraph (d), a period—
(i)in the case of sub-paragraph (2)(h), of 3 months;
(ii)in the case of sub-paragraphs (2)(a)(ii), (2)(e)(ii), (2)(f), (2)(g)(ii) and (3)(a)(ii), of 6 months;
(iii)in the case of sub-paragraphs (1), (2)(a)(i), (2)(e)(i), (2)(g)(i), (3)(a)(i), (4) and (5)(a), of 13 months.
(d)Any pilot of the aircraft to whom the provisions of sub-paragraph (2)(a)(ii), (2)(e)(ii) or (2)(f) and any flight engineer of the aircraft to whom the provisions of sub-paragraph (3)(a)(ii) apply shall for the purposes of the flight be deemed to have complied with such requirements respectively within the relevant period if he has qualified to perform his duties in accordance therewith on at least 2 occasions within the period of 13 months immediately preceding the flight, such occasions being separated by an interval of not less than 4 months.
(e)The requirements of sub-paragraph (5)(a) shall be deemed to have been complied with within the relevant period by a pilot designated as commander of the aircraft for the flight if, having become qualified so as to act on flights between the same places over the same route more than 13 months before commencement of the flight, he has within the period of 13 months immediately preceding the flight flown as pilot of an aircraft between those places over that route.
3. The records required to be maintained by an operator under article 42(4) shall be accurate and up-to-date records so kept as to show, on any date, in relation to each person who has during the period of 2 years immediately preceding that date flown as a member of the crew of any public transport aircraft operated by that operator—U.K.
(a)the date and particulars of each test required by this Part undergone by that person during the said period including the name and qualifications of the examiner;
(b)the date upon which that person last practised the carrying out of duties referred to in paragraph 2(1)(b) of this Part;
(c)the operator's conclusions based on each such test and practice as to that person's competence to perform his duties; and
(d)the date and particulars of any decision taken by the operator during the said period in pursuance of paragraph 2(5)(a) of this Part including particulars of the evidence upon which that decision was based.
4. The operator shall whenever called upon to do so by any authorised person produce for the inspection of any person so authorised all records referred to in paragraph 3 and furnish to any such person all such information as he may require in connection with any such records and produce for his inspection all log books, certificates, papers and other documents, whatsoever which he may reasonably require to see for the purpose of determining whether such records are complete or of verifying the accuracy of their contents.U.K.
5. The operator shall at the request of any person in respect of whom he is required to keep records as aforesaid furnish to that person, or to any operator of aircraft for the purpose of public transport by whom that person may subsequently be employed, particulars of any qualifications in accordance with this Schedule obtained by such person whilst in his service.U.K.
Articles 86 and 88
1.—(1) On a flight for the purpose of public transport Documents A, B, C, D, E, F, H and, if the flight is international air navigation, Documents G and I shall be carried.
(2) On a flight for the purpose of aerial work Documents A, B, C, E, F and, if the flight is international air navigation, Documents G and I shall be carried.
(3) On a private flight, being international air navigation Documents A, B, C, G and I shall be carried.
(4) On a flight made in accordance with the terms of a permission granted to the operator under article 21 Document J shall be carried.
2. For the purposes of this Schedule—
(1) “Document A” means the licence in force under the Wireless Telegraphy Act 1949 M2 in respect of the aircraft radio station installed in the aircraft;
(2) “Document B” means the certificate of airworthiness in force in respect of the aircraft; provided that, where the certificate of airworthiness includes the flight manual for the aircraft, with the permission of the CAA, an aircraft to which article 38 applies need not carry the flight manual as part of this document;
(3) “Document C” means the licences of the members of the flight crew of the aircraft;
(4) “Document D” means one copy of the load sheet, if any, required by article 43 in respect of the flight;
(5) “Document E” means one copy of each certificate of maintenance review, if any, in force in respect of the aircraft;
(6) “Document F” means the technical log, if any, in which entries are required to be made under article 15;
(7) “Document G” means the certificate of registration in force in respect of the aircraft;
(8) “Document H” means those parts of the operations manual, if any, required by article 38(2)(c) to be carried on the flight;
(9) “Document I” means a copy of the notified procedures to be followed by the pilot in command of an intercepted aircraft, and the notified visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft;
(10) “Document J” means the permission, if any, granted in respect of the aircraft under article 21; provided that, with the permission of the CAA, an aircraft to which article 38 applies need not carry such a permission if it carries an operations manual which includes the particulars specified at sub-paragraph 1(q) of Part A of Schedule 9.
Marginal Citations
3. For the purposes of this Schedule—
“M3 under section 108(1) of that Act.
” means any flight which includes passage over the territory of any country other than the United Kingdom, except any of the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man or any other relevant overseas territory to which there is power to extend the Civil Aviation Act 1982Marginal Citations
Article 108
1.—(1) The minimum age at which a person may be granted an Air Traffic Controller's Licence shall be 20 years.
(2) There shall be no maximum period of validity for an Air Traffic Controller's Licence.
(3) The privileges of an Air Traffic Controller's Licence are to—
(a)act as an air traffic controller for any sector or operational position for which a valid rating and endorsement and current unit licence endorsement are included in the licence; and
(b)exercise the privileges of a Student Air Traffic Controller's Licence.
2.—(1) The minimum age at which a person may be granted a Student Air Traffic Controller's Licence shall be 18 years.
(2) The maximum period of validity for a Student Air Traffic Controller's Licence shall be two years.
(3) The privileges of a Student Air Traffic Controller's Licence are to act as an air traffic controller under the supervision of another person who is present at the time and who—
(a)is the holder of an air traffic controller's licence entitling him to provide unsupervised the type of air traffic control service which is being provided by the student air traffic controller; and
(b)holds an On the Job Training Instructor Licence Endorsement.
1. Ratings, rating endorsements and licence endorsements of the classes contained in paragraphs 3 and 4 may be included in an air traffic controller's licence granted under article 108 and, subject to the provisions of this Order and of the licence, the inclusion of a rating, rating endorsement or licence endorsement shall have the consequences respectively specified.
2.—(1) Subject to sub-paragraphs (2) and (3), the holder of a licence which includes ratings of two or more of the classes specified in paragraph 3 shall not at any one time perform the functions specified in respect of more than one of those ratings.
(2) The functions of the following ratings may be exercised at the same time—
(a)an Aerodrome Control Instrument Rating and an Approach Control Procedural Rating; and
(b)an Aerodrome Control Instrument Rating and an Approach Control Surveillance Rating, provided that the holder shall not exercise the functions of any Radar Rating Endorsement, Surveillance Radar Approach Rating Endorsement or Precision Approach Radar Rating Endorsement included in the Approach Control Surveillance Rating.
(3) When a surveillance radar approach terminating at a point less than 2 nautical miles from the point of intersection of the glide path with the runway is being provided under an approach control surveillance rating, no other function under the approach control surveillance rating shall be exercised at the same time.
3.—(1) There shall be the following classes of aerodrome control ratings and endorsements—
(a)an Aerodrome Control Visual Rating shall entitle the holder to act as an air traffic controller in the course of the provision of an aerodrome control service at an aerodrome with no instrument approach or departure procedures;
(b)an Aerodrome Control Instrument Rating shall entitle the holder to act as an air traffic controller in the course of the provision of an aerodrome control service in accordance with the provisions of one or more of the following Rating Endorsements—
(i)a Tower Control Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder to provide an aerodrome control service at an aerodrome where the aerodrome control service is not divided into air control and ground movement control;
(ii)a Ground Movement Control Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder to provide a ground movement control service at an aerodrome where the aerodrome control service is divided into ground movement control and air control;
(iii)a Ground Movement Surveillance Control Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder of a Tower Control Rating Endorsement or a Ground Movement Control Rating Endorsement to use aerodrome surface movement and guidance systems in the provision of an aerodrome control service;
(iv)an Air Control Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder to provide an air control service at an aerodrome where the aerodrome control service is divided into ground movement control and air control; provided that nothing in this Order shall prevent the holder of an Air Control Rating Endorsement from using aerodrome surface movement and guidance systems in the provision of an air control service;
(v)an Aerodrome Radar Control Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder of an Air Control Rating Endorsement or a Tower Control Rating Endorsement to use radar in the provision of an aerodrome control service to aircraft flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome; provided that nothing in this Order shall prevent the holder of an Air Control Rating Endorsement or Tower Control Rating Endorsement from using an aerodrome traffic monitor in the provision of an aerodrome control service.
(2) There shall be the following classes of approach control ratings and endorsements—
(a)an Approach Control Procedural Rating shall entitle the holder to act as an air traffic controller in the course of the provision of an approach control service, without the use of any surveillance equipment;
(b)an Approach Control Surveillance Rating shall entitle the holder to act as an air traffic controller in the course of the provision of an approach control service with the use of surveillance equipment in accordance with the provisions of one or more of the following Rating Endorsements—
(i)a Radar Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder to use radar in the provision of an approach control service except for anything authorised by a specific rating endorsement below;
(ii)a Surveillance Radar Approach Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder of a Radar Rating Endorsement to provide ground controlled non-precision radar approaches with the use of surveillance radar equipment;
(iii)a Precision Approach Radar Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder of a Radar Rating Endorsement to provide ground controlled precision approaches using precision approach radar equipment;
(iv)a Terminal Control Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder of a Radar Rating Endorsement to provide a terminal control service;
(v)an Offshore Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder of a Radar Rating Endorsement to provide an offshore service;
(vi)a Special Tasks Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder of a Radar Rating Endorsement to provide a special tasks service.
(3) There shall be the following classes of area control ratings and endorsements—
(a)an Area Control Procedural Rating shall entitle the holder to act as an air traffic controller in the course of the provision of an area control service without the use of any surveillance equipment except for anything authorised by the rating endorsement below;
(i)an Oceanic Control Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder to provide an area control service in the Shanwick Oceanic Control Area;
(b)an Area Control Surveillance Rating shall entitle the holder to act as an air traffic controller in the course of the provision of an area control service with the use of surveillance equipment in accordance with the provisions of one or more of the following Rating Endorsements—
(i)a Radar Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder to use radar in the provision of an area control service;
(ii)a Terminal Control Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder of a Radar Rating Endorsement to provide a Terminal Control Service;
(iii)an Offshore Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder of a radar rating endorsement to provide an offshore service;
(iv)a Special Tasks Rating Endorsement shall entitle the holder of a radar rating endorsement to provide a special tasks service.
4.—(1) An Examiner Licence Endorsement shall entitle the holder to sign a unit licence endorsement in respect of—
(a)the air traffic control services that his air traffic controller licence entitles him to provide; or
(b)such other air traffic control services as the CAA may authorise for that holder.
(2) An On the Job Training Instructor Licence Endorsement shall entitle the holder to supervise and give operational air traffic control instruction to the holder of a Student Air Traffic Controller's or Air Traffic Controller's Licence in relation to an air traffic control service which his Air Traffic Controller's Licence entitles him to provide.
(3) A Unit Licence Endorsement—
(a)specifies the aerodrome or place at which the holder is entitled to exercise the privileges of his licence and the validity of any ratings, rating endorsements or licence endorsements included in the licence; and
(b)is valid for the period of 12 months beginning with the date of issue or the date of renewal.
Article 125
(1) A record of any functional tests, flight checks and particulars of any maintenance, repair, overhaul, replacement or modification.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), the record shall be kept in a legible or a non-legible form so long as the record is capable of being reproduced by the person required to keep the record in a legible form and it shall be so reproduced by that person if requested by an authorised person.
(3) In any particular case the CAA may direct that the record is kept or be capable of being reproduced in such a form as it may specify.
Each record made by the apparatus provided in compliance with article 125(2) or (3) shall be adequately identified and in particular shall include—
(a)the identification of the aeronautical radio station;
(b)the date or dates on which the record was made;
(c)a means of determining the time at which each message or signal was transmitted or received;
(d)the identity of the aircraft to or from which and the radio frequency on which the message or signal was transmitted or received; and
(e)the time at which the record started and finished.
(1) The purpose for which the apparatus is to be used.
(2) The manner in which the apparatus has been specified and produced in relation to the purpose for which it is to be used.
(3) The adequacy, in relation to the purpose for which the apparatus is to be used, of the operating parameters of the apparatus (if any).
(4) The manner in which the apparatus has been or will be operated, installed, modified, maintained, repaired and overhauled.
(5) The manner in which the apparatus has been or will be inspected.
Article 128(7)
Information and instructions relating to the following matters shall be included in the aerodrome manual referred to in article 128—
(a)the name and status of the official in charge of day to day operation of the aerodrome together with the names and status of other senior aerodrome operating staff and instructions as to the order and circumstances in which they may be required to act as the official in charge;
(b)the system of aeronautical information service available;
(c)procedures for promulgating information concerning the aerodrome's state;
(d)procedures for the control of access, vehicles and work in relation to the aerodrome manoeuvring area and apron;
(e)procedures for complying with article 142 and for the removal of disabled aircraft;
(f)in the case of an aerodrome which has facilities for fuel storage, procedures for complying with article 137;
(g)plans to a scale of 1:2500 depicting the layout of runways, taxiways and aprons, aerodrome markings, aerodrome lighting if such lighting is provided, and the siting of any navigational aids within the runway strip; provided that in the case of copies or extracts of the manual provided or made available to a member of the aerodrome operating staff, the plans shall be of a scale reasonably appropriate for the purposes of article 128(9);
(h)in respect of an aerodrome in relation to which there is a notified instrument approach procedure, survey information sufficient to provide data for the production of aeronautical charts relating to that aerodrome;
(i)description, height and location of obstacles which infringe standard obstacle limitation surfaces, and whether they are lit;
(j)data for and method of calculation of declared distances and elevations at the beginning and end of each declared distance;
(k)method of calculating reduced declared distances and the procedure for their promulgation;
(l)details of surfaces and bearing strengths of runways, taxiways and aprons;
(m)the system of the management of air traffic in the airspace associated with the aerodrome, including procedures for the co-ordination of traffic with adjacent aerodromes, except any such information or procedures already published in any manual of air traffic services;
(n)operational procedures for the routine and special inspection of the aerodrome manoeuvring area and aprons;
(o)if operations are permitted during periods of low visibility, procedures for the protection of the runways during such periods;
(p)procedures for the safe integration of all aviation activities undertaken at the aerodrome;
(q)procedures for the control of bird hazards;
(r)procedures for the use and inspection of the aerodrome lighting system, if such a system is provided; and
(s)the scale of rescue, first aid and fire service facilities, the aerodrome emergency procedures and procedures to be adopted in the event of temporary depletion of the rescue and fire service facilities.
Article 148
Article of Order | Subject Matter |
---|---|
3 | Aircraft flying unregistered |
5 | Aircraft flying with false or incorrect markings |
14(1)(a) | Flight without appropriate maintenance |
14(1)(b) | Flight without a certificate of maintenance review |
15 | Failure to keep a technical log |
16 | Flight without a certificate of release to service issued under the Order or under paragraph 21A.163(d) of Part 21 |
17 | Flight without a certificate of release to service issued under Part 145 |
18(7) and (8) | Exercise of privileges of aircraft maintenance engineer's licence or an aircraft maintenance licence whilst unfit or drunk etc. |
19 | Flight without required equipment |
20 | Flight without required radio communication or radio navigation equipment |
21 | Minimum equipment requirements |
22 | Failure to keep log books |
23 | Requirement to weigh aircraft and keep weight schedule |
25 | Crew requirement |
28, 30(2) and 31(1) | Requirement for appropriate certificate of test or experience |
29 and 31(2) | Requirement for appropriate certificate of revalidation |
30(1) | Requirement for valid rating |
32(1) | Flight without valid medical certificate |
32(4) | Flight in unfit condition |
33(1) | Prohibition of flight after failure of test |
36 | Instruction in flying without appropriate licence and rating |
38 | Operations manual requirement |
39 | Police operations manual requirement |
40 | Training manual requirement |
42 | Operator's responsibilities in connection with crew |
43 | Requirements for loading aircraft |
44 and 45 | Operational restrictions on aeroplanes and helicopters |
46 | Prohibition on public transport flights at night or in Instrument Meteorological Conditions by non-United Kingdom registered single engined aeroplanes |
47 | Aerodrome operating minima—United Kingdom registered public transport aircraft |
48 | Aerodrome operating minima—public transport aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom |
49 | Aerodrome operating minima—non-public transport aircraft |
50 | Requirement for pilot to remain at controls |
52 | Pre-flight action by commander of aircraft |
53 | Requirement for passenger briefing |
54 | Additional duties of commander on flight for public transport of passengers |
55 | Requirement for radio station in aircraft to be licensed and for operation of same |
56 | Requirement for minimum navigation performance equipment |
57 | Requirement for height keeping performance equipment—aircraft registered in the United Kingdom |
58 | Requirement for height keeping performance equipment—aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom |
59 | Requirement for area navigation equipment and required navigation performance—aircraft registered in the United Kingdom |
60 | Requirement for area navigation equipment and required navigation performance—aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom |
61 | Requirement for an airborne collision avoidance system |
62 | Use of flight recording systems and preservation of records |
63 | Towing of gliders |
65 | Towing, picking up and raising of persons and articles by aircraft |
66 | Dropping of articles and animals from aircraft |
67 | Dropping of persons and requirement for parachuting permission |
68 | Requirement for aerial application certificate |
71 | Carriage of persons in or on any part of an aircraft not designed for that purpose |
72 | Requirement for exits and break-in markings |
76 | Prohibition of smoking in aircraft |
77 | Requirement to obey lawful commands of aircraft commander |
78(a) and (b) | Acting in a disruptive manner |
79 | Prohibition of stowaways |
80 | Flying displays |
82(3) | Operator's obligation to obtain flight time records of flight crew |
83(2) | Flight crew member's obligation to inform operator of flight times |
84 | Flight time limitations for flight crew |
95 | Breach of the Rules of the Air |
96 | Flight in contravention of restriction of flying regulations |
97 | Flight by balloons, kites, airships, gliders and parascending parachutes |
98 | Flight by small aircraft |
99 | Launching of rockets |
101 | Requirement for an approved provider of air traffic services to be satisfied as to competence of air traffic controllers |
103 | Provision of air traffic services |
104 | Requirement to comply with an air traffic direction |
105 | Requirement to comply with an airspace policy direction |
106 | Use of radio call signs at aerodromes |
107 | Requirement for licensing of air traffic controllers |
121 | Requirement for licensing of flight information service officers |
123 | Requirement for flight information service manual |
124 | Use of air traffic service equipment |
125 | Requirement to keep air traffic service equipment records |
126 | Requirement for use of licensed aerodrome |
128(4) | Contravention of conditions of aerodrome licence |
132 | Use of aeronautical lights |
133 | Requirement to light en-route obstacles |
134 | Requirement to light offshore wind turbine generators |
135(1) | Prohibition of dangerous lights |
135(2) | Failure to extinguish or screen dangerous lights |
137(1) and (3) | Management of aviation fuel at aerodromes |
146 | Obstruction of persons performing duties under the Order |
Article of Order | Subject Matter |
---|---|
6 | Flight for the purpose of public transport without an air operator's certificate |
7 | Flight in the service of a police authority without a police air operator's certificate |
8 | Flight without a certificate of airworthiness |
26 | Requirement to hold an appropriate flight crew licence |
69 | Prohibition of carriage of weapons and munitions of war |
70(2) | Requirements for the carriage of dangerous goods |
74 | Endangering safety of persons or property |
75 | Prohibition of drunkenness in aircraft |
78(c) | Intentional interference |
82(1) | Operator's obligation to regulate flight times of crew |
82(2) | Operator's obligation not to allow flight by crew in dangerous state of fatigue |
83(1) | Crew's obligation not to fly in dangerous state of fatigue |
85 | Protection of air crew from cosmic radiation |
87 | Keeping and production of records of exposure to cosmic radiation |
94 (except (3) | Use of false or unauthorised documents and records |
100 | Provision of an air traffic control service without an approval |
115 | Controller's obligation not to act in a dangerous state of fatigue |
116 | Prohibition of acting under the influence of drink or a drug |
137(4) | Use of aviation fuel which is unfit for use in aircraft |
138 | Restriction of carriage for valuable consideration by aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom |
140 | Restriction of flights for aerial photography, aerial survey and aerial work by aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom |
141 | Operators' or commanders' obligations in respect of flights over any foreign country |
142(5), (6) and (7) | Failure to report an occurrence |
142(8) | Making a false occurrence report |
144 | Flight in contravention of direction not to fly |
Article of Order | Subject Matter |
---|---|
73 | Endangering safety of aircraft |
Article 150
1. The following parts of the straits named hereafter are hereby specified for the purposes of article 150(4);—U.K.
(1) in the Straits of Dover, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are—
(a)to the south of a rhumb line joining position 51°08−23' north latitude: 1°23−00' east longitude and position 51°22−41' north latitude: 1°50−06' east longitude; and
(b)to the east of a rhumb line joining position 50°54−33' north latitude: 0°58−05' east longitude and position 50°43−15' north latitude: 0°51−39' east longitude;
(2) in the North Channel, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are—
(a)to the north of a rhumb line joining position 54°13−30' north latitude: 5°39−28' west longitude and position 54°09−02' north latitude: 5°18−07' west longitude;
(b)to the west of a rhumb line joining position 54°26−02' north latitude: 4°51−37' west longitude and position 54°38−01' north latitude: 4°51−16' west longitude; and
(c)to the east of a rhumb line joining—
(i)position 55°40−24' north latitude: 6°30−59' west longitude and position 55°29−24' north latitude: 6°40−31' west longitude;
(ii)position 55°24−54' north latitude: 6°44−33' west longitude and position 55°10−15' north latitude: 6°44−33' west longitude;
(3) in the Fair Isle Channel, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are—
(a)to the north of a rhumb line joining position 59°10−54' north latitude: 2°01−32' west longitude and position 59°33−27' north latitude: 2°38−35' west longitude; and
(b)to the south of a rhumb line joining position 59°51−06' north latitude: 0°52−10' west longitude and position 59°51−06' north latitude: 1°46−36' west longitude.
2. The parts of each of the Straits specified in paragraph 1 are shown hatched on Charts A, B and C respectively.U.K.
CHART A
CHART B
CHART C
Clerk of the Privy Council
A. K. Galloway
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Gwreiddiol (Fel y’i Deddfwyd neu y’i Gwnaed): Mae'r wreiddiol fersiwn y ddeddfwriaeth fel ag yr oedd pan gafodd ei deddfu neu eu gwneud. Ni wnaed unrhyw newidiadau i’r testun.
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Dangos Llinell Amser Newidiadau: See how this legislation has or could change over time. Turning this feature on will show extra navigation options to go to these specific points in time. Return to the latest available version by using the controls above in the What Version box.
Gallwch wneud defnydd o ddogfennau atodol hanfodol a gwybodaeth ar gyfer yr eitem ddeddfwriaeth o’r tab hwn. Yn ddibynnol ar yr eitem ddeddfwriaeth sydd i’w gweld, gallai hyn gynnwys:
This timeline shows the different points in time where a change occurred. The dates will coincide with the earliest date on which the change (e.g an insertion, a repeal or a substitution) that was applied came into force. The first date in the timeline will usually be the earliest date when the provision came into force. In some cases the first date is 01/02/1991 (or for Northern Ireland legislation 01/01/2006). This date is our basedate. No versions before this date are available. For further information see the Editorial Practice Guide and Glossary under Help.
Defnyddiwch y ddewislen hon i agor dogfennau hanfodol sy’n cyd-fynd â’r ddeddfwriaeth a gwybodaeth am yr eitem hon o ddeddfwriaeth. Gan ddibynnu ar yr eitem o ddeddfwriaeth sy’n cael ei gweld gall hyn gynnwys:
liciwch ‘Gweld Mwy’ neu ddewis ‘Rhagor o Adnoddau’ am wybodaeth ychwanegol gan gynnwys