Proceeds of Crime Act 2002

330 Failure to disclose: regulated sector U.K.

(1) A person commits an offence if [F1 the conditions in subsections (2) to (4) are satisfied].

(2) The first condition is that he—

(a) knows or suspects, or

(b) has reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting,

that another person is engaged in money laundering.

(3) The second condition is that the information or other matter—

(a) on which his knowledge or suspicion is based, or

(b) which gives reasonable grounds for such knowledge or suspicion,

came to him in the course of a business in the regulated sector.

[F2 (3A) The third condition is—

(a) that he can identify the other person mentioned in subsection (2) or the whereabouts of any of the laundered property, or

(b) that he believes, or it is reasonable to expect him to believe, that the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) will or may assist in identifying that other person or the whereabouts of any of the laundered property.

(4) The fourth condition is that he does not make the required disclosure to—

(a) a nominated officer, or

(b) a person authorised for the purposes of this Part by [F3 the Director General of the National Crime Agency],

as soon as is practicable after the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) comes to him.

(5) The required disclosure is a disclosure of—

(a) the identity of the other person mentioned in subsection (2), if he knows it,

(b) the whereabouts of the laundered property, so far as he knows it, and

(c) the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3).

(5A) The laundered property is the property forming the subject-matter of the money laundering that he knows or suspects, or has reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting, that other person to be engaged in.

(6) But he does not commit an offence under this section if—

(a) he has a reasonable excuse for not making the required disclosure,

(b) he is a professional legal adviser [F4 or F5 ... relevant professional adviser] and—

(i) if he knows either of the things mentioned in subsection (5)(a) and (b), he knows the thing because of information or other matter that came to him in privileged circumstances, or

(ii) the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) came to him in privileged circumstances, or

(c) subsection (7) [F6 or (7B)] applies to him.]

(7) This subsection applies to a person if—

(a) he does not know or suspect that another person is engaged in money laundering, and

(b) he has not been provided by his employer with such training as is specified by the Secretary of State by order for the purposes of this section.

[F7 (7B) This subsection applies to a person if—

(a) he is employed by, or is in partnership with, a professional legal adviser or a relevant professional adviser to provide the adviser with assistance or support,

(b) the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) comes to the person in connection with the provision of such assistance or support, and

(c) the information or other matter came to the adviser in privileged circumstances.]

[F8 [F9 (7C)] Nor does a person commit an offence under this section if—

(a) he knows, or believes on reasonable grounds, that the money laundering is occurring in a particular country or territory outside the United Kingdom, and

(b) the money laundering—

(i) is not unlawful under the criminal law applying in that country or territory, and

(ii) is not of a description prescribed in an order made by the Secretary of State.]

[F10 (7D) Nor does a person commit an offence under this section if—

(a) the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) consists of or includes information that was obtained only in consequence of the carrying out of a status check under section 40 of the Immigration Act 2014 or an immigration check under section 40A of that Act or both, and

(b) but for the information so obtained the person would not have reasonable grounds for knowing or suspecting that another person is engaged in money laundering.]

(8) In deciding whether a person committed an offence under this section the court must consider whether he followed any relevant guidance which was at the time concerned—

(a) issued by a supervisory authority or any other appropriate body,

(b) approved by the Treasury, and

(c) published in a manner it approved as appropriate in its opinion to bring the guidance to the attention of persons likely to be affected by it.

(9) A disclosure to a nominated officer is a disclosure which—

(a) is made to a person nominated by the alleged offender’s employer to receive disclosures under this section, and

(b) is made in the course of the alleged offender’s employment F11 ....

[F12 (9A) But a disclosure which satisfies paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (9) is not to be taken as a disclosure to a nominated officer if the person making the disclosure—

(a) is a professional legal adviser[F13 or F14 ... relevant professional adviser],

(b) makes it for the purpose of obtaining advice about making a disclosure under this section, and

(c) does not intend it to be a disclosure under this section.]

(10) Information or other matter comes to a professional legal adviser [F15 or F16 ... relevant professional adviser] in privileged circumstances if it is communicated or given to him—

(a) by (or by a representative of) a client of his in connection with the giving by the adviser of legal advice to the client,

(b) by (or by a representative of) a person seeking legal advice from the adviser, or

(c) by a person in connection with legal proceedings or contemplated legal proceedings.

(11) But subsection (10) does not apply to information or other matter which is communicated or given with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose.

(12) Schedule 9 has effect for the purpose of determining what is—

(a) a business in the regulated sector;

(b) a supervisory authority.

(13) An appropriate body is any body which regulates or is representative of any trade, profession, business or employment carried on by the alleged offender.

[F17 (14) A relevant professional adviser is an accountant, auditor or tax adviser who is a member of a professional body which is established for accountants, auditors or tax advisers (as the case may be) and which makes provision for—

(a) testing the competence of those seeking admission to membership of such a body as a condition for such admission; and

(b) imposing and maintaining professional and ethical standards for its members, as well as imposing sanctions for non-compliance with those standards.]

Textual Amendments

F1 Words in s. 330(1) substituted (1.7.2005) by Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (c. 15), ss. 104(2), 178(8); S.I. 2005/1521, art. 3(1)(c)

F2 S. 330(3A)-(6) substituted for s. 330(4)-(6) (1.7.2005) by Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (c. 15), ss. 104(3), 178(8); S.I. 2005/1521, art. 3(1)(c) (with art. 3(4))

F3 Words in s. 330(4)(b) substituted (7.10.2013) by Crime and Courts Act 2013 (c. 22), s. 61(2), Sch. 8 para. 129; S.I. 2013/1682, art. 3(v)

F4 Words in s. 330(6)(b) inserted (21.2.2006) by Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 and Money Laundering Regulations 2003 (Amendment) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/308), arts. 1, 2(2)

F5 Word in s. 330(6)(b) omitted (26.12.2007) by virtue of Terrorism Act 2000 and Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (Amendment) Regulations 2007 (S.I. 2007/3398), reg. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 2

F6 Words in s. 330(6)(c) inserted (21.2.2006) by Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 and Money Laundering Regulations 2003 (Amendment) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/308), arts. 1, 2(3)

F7 S. 330(7B) inserted (21.2.2006) by Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 and Money Laundering Regulations 2003 (Amendment) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/308), arts. 1, 2(4)

F8 S. 330(7A) inserted (15.5.2006) by Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (c. 15), ss. 102(5), 178(8); S.I. 2006/1085, art. 3

F9 S. 330(7A) moved and renumbered as s. 330(7C) (26.10.2023) by Economic Crime and Corporate Transparency Act 2023 (c. 56), ss. 184(2)(a), 219(2)(g)

F10 S. 330(7D) inserted (26.10.2023) by Economic Crime and Corporate Transparency Act 2023 (c. 56), ss. 184(2)(b), 219(2)(g)

F11 Words in s. 330(9)(b) repealed (1.7.2005) by virtue of Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (c. 15), ss. 105(2), 178(8), Sch. 17 Pt. 2; S.I. 2005/1521, art. 3(1)(c)(ee)

F12 S. 330(9A) inserted (1.7.2005) by Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 (c. 15), ss. 106(2), 178(8); S.I. 2005/1521, art. 3(1)(c)

F13 Words in s. 330(9A)(a) inserted (21.2.2006) by Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 and Money Laundering Regulations 2003 (Amendment) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/308), arts. 1, 2(2)

F14 Word in s. 330(9A)(a) omitted (26.12.2007) by virtue of Terrorism Act 2000 and Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (Amendment) Regulations 2007 (S.I. 2007/3398), reg. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 2

F15 Words in s. 330(10) inserted (21.2.2006) by Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 and Money Laundering Regulations 2003 (Amendment) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/308), arts. 1, 2(2)

F16 Word in s. 330(10) omitted (26.12.2007) by virtue of Terrorism Act 2000 and Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (Amendment) Regulations 2007 (S.I. 2007/3398), reg. 1(2), Sch. 2 para. 2

F17 S. 330(14) inserted (21.2.2006) by Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 and Money Laundering Regulations 2003 (Amendment) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/308), arts. 1, 2(5)

Modifications etc. (not altering text)

C1 Pt. 7 applied (24.2.2003) by Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (Crown Servants) Regulations 2003 (S.I. 2003/173), regs. 1, 3

C2 S. 330 restricted (1.3.2004) by The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (Business in the Regulated Sector and Supervisory Authorities) Order 2003 (S.I. 2003/3074), arts. 1, 4

Commencement Information

I1 S. 330 in force at 24.2.2003 by S.I. 2003/120, art. 2, Sch. (with arts. 3, 4) (as amended (20.2.2003) by S.I. 2003/333, art. 14)