The Air Navigation Order 2016

SCHEDULES

Article 2

SCHEDULE 1 U.K. INTERPRETATION

1.  In this Order— U.K.

“the 2015 Regulations” means the International Interests in Aircraft Equipment (Cape Town Convention) Regulations 2015 M1 ;

“A to A commercial air transport aeroplane” means an aeroplane flying, or intended by the operator to fly, on an A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operation;

“A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operation” means an aircraft operation—

(a)

by a performance class B aeroplane;

(b)

for the purpose of transporting passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration; and

(c)

starting and ending at the same place;

F1 ...

“A to A public transport flight” means a flight for the purpose of public transport by an aircraft starting and ending at the same place;

“Accident prevention and flight safety programme” means a programme designed to detect and eliminate or avoid hazards in order to improve the safety of flight operations;

“A Conditions” means the conditions set out in Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Schedule 3;

“ACAS II” means the airborne collision avoidance system II referred to in the Airborne Collision Avoidance Regulation;

[F2 “aerobatic manoeuvres” includes loops, spins, rolls, bunts, stall turns, inverted flying and any other similar manoeuvre intentionally performed by an aircraft;]

“Aerodrome”—

(a)

means any area of land or water designed, equipped, set apart or commonly used for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft; and

(b)

includes any area or space, whether on the ground, on the roof of a building or elsewhere, which is designed, equipped or set apart for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft capable of descending or climbing vertically; but

(c)

does not include any area the use of which for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft has been abandoned and has not been resumed;

“Aerodrome control service” means an air traffic control service to aerodrome traffic;

“Aerodrome operating minima” in relation to the operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome means the cloud ceiling and runway visual range for take-off, and the decision height or minimum descent height, runway visual range and visual reference for landing, which are the minimum for the operation of that aircraft at that aerodrome;

“Aerodrome traffic” means all traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome and includes, but is not limited to, aircraft entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit;

“Aerodrome traffic circuit” means the path to be flown by aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome under provision 3225(b) of SERA;

“Aerodrome traffic zone” has the meaning assigned to it by article 5;

“Aeronautical beacon” means an aeronautical ground light which is visible either continuously or intermittently to designate a particular point on the surface of the earth;

“Aeronautical ground light” means any light specifically provided as an aid to air navigation, other than a light displayed on an aircraft;

“Aeronautical radio station” means a radio station on the surface, which transmits or receives signals for the purpose of assisting aircraft;

“Airborne Collision Avoidance Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) No. 1332/2011 of 16th December 2011 laying down common airspace usage requirements and operating procedures for airborne collision avoidance M2 , as amended from time to time

“Aircraft rating” includes a type rating and a class rating;

“Air/ground communications service” means a service provided from an aerodrome to aerodrome traffic by means of radio signals and “air/ground communications service unit” is to be construed accordingly;

“Air traffic control service” means a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft, and, on the manoeuvring area, between aircraft and obstructions, and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic;

“Air traffic control unit” means a unit of air traffic controllers established by a person appointed by a person maintaining an aerodrome or other place in order to provide an area control service, an aerodrome control service or an approach control service;

“Air traffic service equipment” means ground based equipment, including an aeronautical radio station, used or intended to be used in connection with the provision of a service to an aircraft in flight or on the ground which equipment is not otherwise approved by or under this Order but excluding—

(a)

any public electronic communications network; and

(b)

any equipment concerning which the CAA has made a direction that it is not air traffic service equipment for the purposes of articles 205 and 206;

“Altitude hold and heading mode” mean aircraft autopilot functions which enable the aircraft to maintain an accurate height and an accurate heading;

“annual cost”, in relation to the operation of an aircraft, means the cost (excluding any element of profit) of keeping, maintaining and operating the aircraft over the period of one year;

“Annual flying hours” means the best estimate reasonably practicable at the time of a particular flight by an aircraft of the hours flown or to be flown by the aircraft for the year commencing on the first day of January preceding the date of the flight;

“Approach control service” means an air traffic control service for any aircraft which is not receiving an aerodrome control service, which is flying in, or in the vicinity of the aerodrome traffic zone of the aerodrome for which the service is being provided, whether or not the aircraft is flying by visual reference to the surface;

“Approach to landing” means that portion of the flight of the aircraft, when approaching to land, in which it is descending below a height of 1,000 feet above the relevant specified decision height or minimum descent height;

“Appropriate aeronautical radio station” means in relation to an aircraft an aeronautical radio station serving the area in which the aircraft is for the time being;

“Appropriate air traffic control unit” means, in relation to an aircraft, as the context requires—

(a)

the air traffic control unit serving the area in which the aircraft currently is; or

(b)

the air traffic control unit serving the area which the aircraft intends to enter and with which unit the aircraft is required to communicate before entering that area;

“Apron” means the part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for—

(a)

the embarkation and disembarkation of passengers;

(b)

the loading and unloading of mail or cargo;

(c)

maintenance; and

(d)

parking;

“Area control centre” means an air traffic control unit established to provide an area control service to aircraft flying within a notified flight information region which are not receiving an aerodrome control service or an approach control service;

“Area control service” means an air traffic control service for flights subject to an air traffic control clearance in control areas;

“Area navigation equipment” means equipment carried on board an aircraft which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the limits of that on-board equipment or a combination of the two;

“Authorised person” means—

(a)

any constable;

(b)

in any article other than article 259, any person authorised by the CAA (whether by name or by class or description) either generally or in relation to a particular case or class of cases; and

(c)

in article 259, any person authorised by the Secretary of State (whether by name, or by class or description) either generally or in relation to a particular case or class of cases;

“Automated reservation system” means the central reservation system of the operator of an aircraft which holds data relating to a flight booked by or on behalf of a passenger;

“B Conditions” means the conditions set out in Chapter 2 of Part 1 of Schedule 3;

[F3 “Basic Regulation” means Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 July 2018 on common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a European Union Aviation Safety Agency, and amending Regulations (EC) No 2111/2005, (EC) No 1008/2008, (EU) No 996/2010, (EU) No 376/2014 and Directives 2014/30/EU and 2014/53/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council, and repealing Regulations (EC) No 552/2004 and (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council and Council Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91;]

“Beneficial interest” includes interests arising under contract and other equitable interests;

“British protected person” has the same meaning as in section 50 of the British Nationality Act 1981 M3 ;

“Cabin crew” in relation to an aircraft means those persons on a public transport flight carried for the purpose of performing duties to be assigned by the operator or the pilot in command of the aircraft in the interests of the safety of passengers but who do not act as a member of the flight crew;

“Captive balloon” means a balloon which when in flight is attached by a restraining device to the surface;

“Captive flight” means flight by an uncontrollable balloon during which it is attached to the surface by a restraining device;

“Cargo” includes mail and animals;

“Category II approach and landing” means a landing following a precision approach using an Instrument Landing System or Microwave Landing System with—

(a)

a decision height below 200 feet but not less than 100 feet; and

(b)

a runway visual range of not less than 300 metres;

“Category IIIA approach and landing” means a landing following a precision approach using an Instrument Landing System or Microwave Landing System with—

(a)

a decision height lower than 100 feet; and

(b)

a runway visual range of not less than 200 metres;

“Category IIIB approach and landing” means a landing following a precision approach using an Instrument Landing System or Microwave Landing System with—

(a)

a decision height lower than 50 feet or no decision height; and

(b)

a runway visual range of less than 200 metres but not less than 75 metres;

“Certificate of airworthiness” includes in the case of a national certificate of airworthiness any flight manual, performance schedule or other document, whatever its title, incorporated by reference in that certificate relating to the certificate of airworthiness;

“Certificate of release to service issued under this Order” means a certificate issued in accordance with article 47 by a person specified in article 48;

“Certificate of revalidation” means a certificate issued in accordance with Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Schedule 8 for the purpose of maintaining the privileges of a flight crew licence;

“Certificate of validity” has the meaning assigned to it by article 41(5);

“Certificated for single pilot operation” means in relation to an aircraft one which is not required to carry more than one pilot by virtue of any one or more of the following—

(a)

the certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered or the related flight manual;

(b)

if no certificate of airworthiness is required to be in force, the certificate of airworthiness, if any, last in force for the aircraft or the related flight manual;

(c)

if no certificate of airworthiness is or has previously been in force but the aircraft is identical in design with an aircraft for which such a certificate is or has been in force, the certificate of airworthiness which is or has been in force for such an identical aircraft or the related flight manual; or

(d)

in the case of an aircraft flying in accordance with the conditions of a national permit to fly or [F4 a Part-21] permit to fly, that permit to fly;

“certification” means any form of recognition that a product, part or appliance, organisation or person complies with the applicable requirements including the provisions of this Order or the Basic F5 ... Regulation and its implementing rules, as well as the issue of any certificate attesting to such compliance;

“certification specifications” means technical standards adopted by the [F6 CAA] indicating means to show compliance with [F7 a Safety] Regulation, as amended from time to time, and which can be used by an organisation for the purpose of certification;

“Chicago Convention” means the Convention on International Civil Aviation and its Annexes M4 , signed in Chicago on 7th December 1944, as amended;

“Class A airspace”, “Class B airspace”, “Class C airspace”, “Class D airspace”, “Class E airspace”, “Class F airspace” and “Class G airspace” mean airspace respectively notified as such;

“Class rating” means a rating that entitles the holder of a pilot licence to act as pilot of an aircraft of a specified class that does not require a type rating;

“Cloud ceiling” means the height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 6,000 metres which, when visible from the aerodrome, is sufficient to obscure more than half the sky;

“the Commonwealth” means the United Kingdom, the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man, the countries mentioned in Schedule 3 to the British Nationality Act 1981 and all other territories forming part of Her Majesty's dominions or in which Her Majesty has jurisdiction and “Commonwealth citizen” is to be construed accordingly;

“Commercial air transport aircraft” means an aircraft flying, or intended by the operator to fly, for the purpose of commercial air transport;

“Commercial air transport operation” means an aircraft operation for the purpose of transporting passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration which is required to be conducted under and in accordance with Part-CAT and Part-ORO but which is not an A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operation F8 ...;

[F9 “commercial operation” has the meaning assigned to it by article 7;]

“commercial operation aircraft” means an aircraft (other than a commercial air transport aircraft or a public transport aircraft) flying, or intended by the operator to fly, for the purpose of commercial operation;

“commercial operation flight” means a flight for the purpose of commercial operation;

“commercial operation undertaking” means an undertaking whose business includes the performance of commercial operation;

“Competent authority” means F10 ... in relation to the United Kingdom, the CAA, and in relation to any other country the authority responsible under the law of that country for promoting the safety of civil aviation;

“complex aeroplane” means an aeroplane which is a complex motor-powered aircraft, and non-complex aeroplane is to be construed accordingly;

“complex helicopter” means a helicopter which is a complex motor-powered aircraft, and non-complex helicopter is to be construed accordingly;

“complex motor-powered aircraft” means—

(a)

an aeroplane—

(i)

with a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5,700kg;

(ii)

certificated for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nineteen;

(iii)

certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots; or

(iv)

equipped with a turbojet engines or more than one turboprop engine;

(b)

a helicopter certificated—

(i)

for a maximum take-off mass exceeding 3,175kg;

(ii)

for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nine; or

(iii)

for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots;

(c)

a tilt rotor aircraft,

and “non-complex motor-powered aircraft” is to be construed accordingly;

“Conditional sale agreement” has the same meaning as in section 189 of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 M5 ;

“Congested area” in relation to a city, town or settlement, means any area which is substantially used for residential, industrial, commercial or recreational purposes;

“Contracting State” means any State (including the United Kingdom) which is party to the Chicago Convention;

“Controllable balloon” means a balloon which is not a small balloon and which is capable of free con-trolled flight;

[F11 “Controlled aerodrome” has the same meaning as in Article 2(57) of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012 laying down the common rules of the air and operational provisions regarding services and procedures in air navigation;]

“Controlled airspace” means airspace which has been notified as Class A airspace, Class B airspace, Class C airspace, [F12 Class D airspace or Class E airspace];

[F13 “Controlled flight” has the same meaning as in Article 2(59) of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012 laying down the common rules of the air and operational provisions regarding services and procedures in air navigation;]

“Control area” means controlled airspace which has been further notified as a control area and which extends upwards from a notified altitude or flight level;

“Control zone” means controlled airspace which has been further notified as a control zone and which extends upwards from the surface;

“Co-pilot” means a pilot who in performing duties as such is subject to the direction of another pilot carried in the aircraft;

“Country” includes a territory;

“Crew” means persons carried in an aircraft who are—

(a)

a member of the flight crew;

(b)

a person carried on the flight deck who is appointed by the operator of the aircraft to give or to supervise the training, experience, practice and periodical tests required for the flight crew under article 114(2) F14 ...; or

(c)

a member of the cabin crew;

“Critical power unit” means the power unit whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of an aircraft;

“cross-country flight” means a flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-planned route, using standard navigation procedures;

“day” means the time from half an hour before sunrise until half an hour after sunset (both times exclusive), sunset and sunrise being determined at surface level;

“Danger Area” means airspace which has been notified as such within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may take place or exist at such times as may be notified;

“Decision height” in relation to the operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome means the height in a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue that approach has not been established;

“Declared distance” has the meaning which has been notified;

“Departure control system” means, in relation to an operator of an aircraft, the system used by the operator to check passengers onto a flight;

“destination alternate aerodrome” means an aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome of intended landing;

“direct cost” means the cost (excluding any element of profit) directly incurred in relation to a flight, including—

(a)

the cost of fuel;

(b)

any charges payable in respect of the use of any airfield in connection with the flight; or

(c)

any rental or hire fees for the use of the aircraft;

“Director” has the same meaning as in section 250 of the Companies Act 2006;

F15 ...

“F16 ... aerodrome certificate” means a certificate issued under the F16 ... Aerodromes Regulation;

“F17 ... Aerodromes Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) No 139/2014 of 12th February 2014 laying down requirements and administrative procedures related to aerodromes pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council M6 , as amended from time to time;

“F18 ... Air Operations Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 of 5th October 2012 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to air operations pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council M7 , as amended from time to time;

[F19 “F20 ... Air Traffic Controller Licensing Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) No 2015/340 of 20th February 2015 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures relating to air traffic controllers’ licences and certificates pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council, amending Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012 and repealing Commission Regulation (EU) No 805/2011;]

“[F21 Part-21] aircraft” means an aircraft which is required by the Basic F22 ... Regulation and any implementing rules adopted by the Commission [F23 or the Secretary of State] in accordance with that Regulation to hold [F24 a Part-21] certificate of airworthiness, [F24 a Part-21] restricted certificate of airworthiness or [F24 a Part-21] permit to fly;

“F25 ... Aircraft Certification Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EC) No 748/2012 of 3rd August 2012 laying down implementing rules for the airworthiness and environmental certification of aircraft and related products, parts and appliances, as well as for the certification of design and production organisations M8 , as amended from time to time;

“F26 ... Aircrew Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3rd November 2011, laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation air crew pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council M9 , as amended from time to time;

“[F27 Part-21] certificate of airworthiness” means a certificate of airworthiness issued for [F28 a Part-21] aircraft under and in accordance with subpart H of Part 21;

“F29 ... certified aerodrome” means an aerodrome for which an F29 ... aerodrome certificate is in force;

“F30 ... Continuing Airworthiness Regulation” means Commission Regulation (EC) No 1321/2014 of 26th November 2014 on the continuing airworthiness of aircraft and aeronautical products, parts and appliances, and on the approval of organisations and personnel involved in these tasks M10 , as amended from time to time;

F31 ...

“[F32 Part-21] permit to fly” means a permit to fly issued for [F33 a Part-21] aircraft under and in accordance with subpart P of Part 21;

“[F34 Safety] Regulation” means the Basic F35 ... Regulation and any implementing rule made under that Regulation;

“[F36 Part-21] restricted certificate of airworthiness” means a restricted certificate of airworthiness issued for [F37 a Part-21] aircraft under and in accordance with subpart H of Part 21;

“E Conditions” means the conditions set out in Chapter 3 of Part 1 of Schedule 3;

“E Conditions approved person” has the meaning given in paragraph 5(4) of Chapter 3 of Part 1 of Schedule 3;

“E Conditions competent person” has the meaning given in paragraph 5(1) of Chapter 3 of Part 1 of Schedule 3;

“E Conditions Declaration”' means a declaration specified at paragraph 4 of the E Conditions;

F38 ...

F39 ...

F40 ...

F41 ...

“Flight” and “to fly” have the meanings respectively assigned to them by article 3;

“Flight check” means a check carried out by an aircraft in flight of the accuracy and reliability of signals transmitted by an aeronautical radio station;

“Flight crew” in relation to an aircraft means those members of the crew of the aircraft who respectively undertake to act as pilot, flight navigator, flight engineer and flight radiotelephony operator of the aircraft;

“Flight data monitoring programme” means a programme of analysing recorded flight data in order to improve the safety of flight operations;

“Flight for the purpose of commercial air transport” means a commercial air transport operation or an A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operation;

“Flight information service” means—

(a)

in the case of an aerodrome—

(i)

the giving of advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights by means of radio signals to aircraft flying in or intending to fly within the aerodrome traffic zone of that aerodrome; and

(ii)

the grant or refusal of a permission under provision 8015 of SERA or under rule 12(1)(b) or 13(2) of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015; and

(b)

in the case of an area control centre, the giving of advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights by means of radio signals to aircraft,

and “aerodrome flight information service” is to be construed accordingly;

“Flight information service unit” means a person appointed by the CAA or by any other person maintaining an aerodrome or area control centre to provide a flight information service and “aerodrome flight information service unit” is to be construed accordingly;

“Flight level” means one of a series of levels of equal atmospheric pressure, separated by notified intervals and each expressed as the number of hundreds of feet which would be indicated at that level on a pressure altimeter calibrated in accordance with the International Standard Atmosphere and set to 1013.2 hectopascals;

“Flight manual” means a document provided for an aircraft stating the limitations within which the aircraft is considered airworthy as defined by the appropriate airworthiness requirements, and additional instructions and information necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft;

“Flight simulator” means any type of apparatus by means of which flight conditions in an aircraft are simulated on the ground, including—

(a)

simulators;

(b)

flight training devices;

(c)

flight and navigation procedures trainers; and

(d)

basic instrument training devices;

“Flight visibility” means the visibility forward from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight;

“Flying display” means any flying activity deliberately performed for the purpose of providing an exhibition or entertainment at an advertised event open to the public;

“Flying machine” means an aeroplane, a powered lift tilt rotor aircraft, a SLMG, a helicopter or a gyroplane;

“Free balloon” means a balloon which when in flight is not attached by any form of restraining device to the surface;

“Free controlled flight” means flight during which—

(a)

a balloon is not attached to the surface by any form of restraining device (other than a tether of not more than five metres in length which may be used as part of the take-off procedure); and

(b)

the height of the balloon is controllable by means of a device attached to the balloon and operated by the pilot in command of the balloon or by remote control;

“full flight simulator” means a flight simulator which is a full size replica of a specific type or make, model and series aircraft flight deck, including the assemblage of all equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent the aircraft in ground and flight operations, a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view, and a force cueing motion system;

“General lighthouse authority” has the same meaning as in section 193 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1995 M11 ;

“General medical practitioner” means a person registered in the General Practitioner Register kept by the General Medical Council;

“Glider” means—

(a)

a non-power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight;

(b)

a self-sustaining glider; and

(c)

a self-propelled hang-glider;

“Government aerodrome” means any aerodrome in the United Kingdom which is in the occupation of any Government Department or visiting force;

“Holding” means, in the case of an aircraft approaching an aerodrome to land, a manoeuvre in the air which keeps that aircraft within a specified volume of airspace;

“Hostile environment” means, for the purposes of sub-paragraphs 4(12)(b)(ix) and (xvii) of Part 1 of Schedule 6, an environment in which—

(a)

a safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because the surface is inadequate; or

(b)

the helicopter occupants cannot be adequately protected from the elements; or

(c)

search and rescue response and capability is not provided consistent with anticipated exposure; or

(d)

there is an unacceptable risk of endangering persons or property on the ground;

“Instructor's rating” means a flight instructor certificate, an flight instructor (restricted) certificate, a flight instructor rating (aeroplane), a flight instructor rating (helicopter), a type rating instructor rating (multipilot aeroplane), a type rating instructor rating (helicopter), a class rating instructor rating (single pilot aeroplane), an instrument rating instructor rating (aeroplane) or an instrument rating instructor rating (helicopter) or any instructor certificate issued in accordance with Part-FCL;

“Instrument approach procedure” means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments, with specified protection from obstacles, from a specified point to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or other obstacle clearance criteria apply;

“Instrument flight procedure” means—

(a)

a standard instrument arrival;

(b)

an instrument approach procedure;

(c)

a standard instrument departure; or

(d)

an omnidirectional departure;

“Instrument Flight Rules” means instrument flight rules prescribed by Section 5 of SERA;

“Instrument Landing System” means a ground-based radio system designed to transmit radio signals at very high frequency and ultra high frequency that allow the pilot of an aircraft to accurately determine the aircraft's position relative to a defined approach path whilst carrying out an approach to land;

“Instrument Meteorological Conditions” means weather precluding flight in compliance with the Visual Flight Rules;

“International headquarters” means an international headquarters designated by Order in Council under section 1 of the International Headquarters and Defence Organisations Act 1964 M12 ;

“JAA” means the body that was known as the Joint Aviation Authorities, until its dissolution on 30th June 2009, which was previously an associated body of the European Civil Aviation Conference;

“JAA Full Member State” means a State which was a full member of the JAA on 30th June 2009;

“JAR-FCL 1” means, unless otherwise specified, the Joint Aviation Requirement of the JAA bearing that title including Amendment 5 adopted by the JAA on 1st March 2006;

“JAR-FCL 2” means the Joint Aviation Requirement of the JAA bearing that title including Amendment 3 adopted by the JAA on 1st September 2003;

“kg” means kilogramme;

“km” means kilometre;

“To land” in relation to aircraft includes alighting on the water;

“Large rocket” means a rocket of which the total impulse of the motor or combination of motors is more than 10,240 Newton-seconds;

“Legal personal representative” means the person constituted as the executor, administrator, or other representative, of a deceased person;

“Let-down” means, in the case of an aircraft approaching an aerodrome to land, a defined procedure designed to enable an aircraft to descend safely to a point at which it can continue the approach visually;

[F42 “Level”, of an aerodrome, means the notified elevation of the aerodrome;]

“Licence” includes in relation to a flight crew licence any certificate of competency or certificate of validity or revalidation issued with the licence or required to be held in connection with the licence by the law of the country in which the licence is granted;

“Lifejacket” includes any device designed to support a person individually in or on the water;

“Log book” includes, in the case of an aircraft log book, engine log book, variable pitch propeller log book, or personal flying log book, a record kept either in a book, or by any other means approved by the CAA in the particular case;

“low visibility operations” means a Category II, IIIA or IIIB approach and landing or a take-off when the relevant runway visual range is less than 150 meters;

[F43 “LUC” refers to a light UAS operator certificate, which means a certificate issued to a UAS operator by the CAA under point UAS.LUC.050 of Part C of the Annex to the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation;]

“Maintenance” means in relation to an aircraft any one or combination of overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement, modification or defect rectification of an aircraft or component, with the exception of pre-flight inspection;

“Manoeuvring area” means that part of an aerodrome used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding the apron;

“Maximum approved passenger seating configuration” means—

(a)

in the case of an aircraft to which article 83 applies the maximum approved passenger seating configuration specified in the operations manual of the aircraft; and

(b)

in any other case, the maximum number of passengers which may be carried in the aircraft under and in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness, its flight manual and this Order;

“Maximum operational passenger seating configuration” means the maximum passenger seating capacity of an individual aircraft, excluding crew seats, established for operational purposes and specified in the operations manual;

“Maximum take-off mass” means, in relation to an aircraft, the maximum total mass of the aircraft and its contents at which the aircraft may take off anywhere in the world, in the most favourable circumstances, in accordance with the certificate of airworthiness in force for the aircraft;

“Medical attendant” means a person carried on a flight for the purpose of attending to any person in the aircraft in need of medical attention, or to be available to attend to such a person;

“Medium intensity steady red light” means a red light which complies with the characteristics described for a medium intensity Type C light as specified in Volume 1 (Aerodrome Design and Operations) of Annex 14 (Fourth Edition July 2004) to the Chicago Convention;

[F44 “Microlight aeroplane” has the meaning given in paragraph 4;]

“Microwave Landing System” means a ground-based radio system designed to transmit radio signals at super high frequency that allow the pilot of an aircraft to accurately determine the aircraft's position within a defined volume of airspace whilst carrying out an approach to land;

“Military aircraft” means—

(a)

the naval, military or air force aircraft of any country;

(b)

any aircraft being constructed for the naval, military or air force of any country under a contract entered into by the Secretary of State; and

(c)

any aircraft for which there is in force a certificate issued by the Secretary of State that the aircraft is to be treated for the purposes of this Order as a military aircraft;

“Military rocket” means—

(a)

any rocket being constructed for the naval, military or air force of any country under a contract entered into by the Secretary of State; and

(b)

any rocket for which there is in force a certificate issued by the Secretary of State that the rocket is to be treated for the purposes of this Order as a military rocket;

“Minimum descent height” in relation to the operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome means the height in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be made without the required visual reference;

F45 ...

“Multi-crew co-operation” means the functioning of the flight crew as a team of co-operating members led by the pilot in command;

“munition of war” means any—

(a)

weapon or ammunition; or

(b)

article containing an explosive, noxious liquid or gas,

which is designed or made for use in warfare or against persons, including parts, whether components or accessories, for such weapon, ammunition or article;

“national aerodrome licence” means a licence granted under article 212;

“National air operator's certificate” means an air operator's certificate granted by the CAA under article 101(2);

“National airworthiness review certificate” means a certificate issued in accordance with article 52 or 53;

“National certificate of airworthiness” means either an expiring or a non-expiring certificate of airworthiness issued under article 38;

“national licensed aerodrome” means an aerodrome for which a national aerodrome licence is in force;

“National permit to fly” means a permit to fly issued under article 40;

“Nautical mile” means the International Nautical Mile, that is to say, a distance of 1852 metres;

“Night” means the time from half an hour after sunset until half an hour before sunrise (both times inclusive), sunset and sunrise being determined at surface level;

“non-commercial flight” means a flight which is not a commercial operation flight, a public transport flight or a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport;

F46 ...

“ [F47 non-Part-21] aircraft”, except in Part 5, means an aircraft which is not required by the Basic F48 ... Regulation and any [F49 regulations made] in accordance with that Regulation to hold [F50 a Part-21] certificate of airworthiness, [F50 a Part-21] restricted certificate of airworthiness or [F50 a Part-21] permit to fly; and “[F51 non-Part-21] balloon”, “[F51 non-Part-21] glider” and “[F51 non-Part-21] kite” are to be construed accordingly;

F52 ...

“Non-expiring national certificate of airworthiness” means a national certificate of airworthiness that, subject to articles 39 and 253, remains valid for an unlimited duration provided the aircraft remains registered in the United Kingdom;

“Non-precision approach” means an instrument approach using non-visual aids for guidance in azimuth or elevation but which is not a precision approach;

“North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification airspace” means the airspace prescribed as such;

“North Atlantic Shanwick Oceanic Control Area” means the airspace notified as such;

“Notified” means set out with the authority of the CAA in a document published by or under an arrangement entered into with the CAA and entitled “United Kingdom Notam” or “United Kingdom Aeronautical Information Publication” and for the time being in force;

“Notified aerodrome” means an aerodrome which is notified for the purposes of rule 11 of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015;

“Notified operating hours” means the times notified for an aerodrome during which rule 11 of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015 applies;

“NPPL General Skill test” means a demonstration of skill for issue of a National Private Pilot's Licence and any rating or certificate thereto, including such oral examination as the examiner may require;

“Obstacle limitation surfaces” has the same meaning as in CAA publication CAP 168 entitled “Licensing of aerodromes”F53 ... M13 ;

“Occurrence” means an operational interruption, defect, fault or other irregular circumstance that has or may have influenced flight safety and that has not resulted in an accident or serious incident as those terms are defined in regulation 2 of the Civil Aviation (Investigation of Air Accidents and Incidents) Regulations 1996 M14 ;

“Omnidirectional departure” means a departure procedure that is designed on the basis that an aircraft maintains the runway direction until it reaches such a height that it can make a turn in any direction and maintain the obstacle clearance prescribed by the procedure;

“Occurrence Reporting Regulation” means Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 3rd April 2014 on the reporting, analysis and follow-up of occurrences in civil aviation, amending Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the Council and repealing Directive 2003/42/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council and Commission Regulations (EC) No 1321/2007 and (EC) No 1330/2007 M15 , as amended from time to time;

“Offshore service” means an air traffic control service for any aircraft flying to or from offshore oil and gas installations and for other aircraft operating in the vicinity of these aircraft in airspace specified for this purpose in the manual of air traffic services;

“Operating staff” means the servants and agents employed by an operator of an aircraft, whether or not as members of the crew, to ensure that flights of the aircraft are conducted in a safe manner, and includes an operator who himself performs those functions;

“Operator” has the meaning assigned to it by article 4;

“Parascending parachute” means a parachute which is towed by cable in such a manner as to cause it to ascend;

“Part 21” means the Annex so entitled to the F54 ... Aircraft Certification Regulation, as amended;

“Part 66” means Annex III so entitled to the F54 ... Continuing Airworthiness Regulation;

“Part 145” means Annex II so entitled to the F54 ... Continuing Airworthiness Regulation;

“Part 147” means Annex IV so entitled to the F54 ... Continuing Airworthiness Regulation;

“Part-ARO” means Annex II so entitled to the F54 ... Air Operations Regulation;

“Part-CAT” means Annex IV so entitled to the F54 ... Air Operations Regulation;

“Part-CAT aeroplane” means an aeroplane operated by a Part-CAT operator;

“Part-CAT aircraft” means an aircraft operated by a Part-CAT operator;

“Part-CAT air operator certificate” means an air operator certificate issued under Part-ARO authorising the holder to operate commercial air transport operations;

“Part-CAT helicopter” means a helicopter operated by a Part-CAT operator;

“Part-CAT operator” means an operator that is required to operate under and in accordance with Part-CAT;

“Part-FCL” means Annex I so entitled to the F54 ... Aircrew Regulation;

“Part-FCL licence” means a flight crew licence granted under Part-FCL by [F55 the CAA];

“Part M” means Annex I so entitled to the F56 ... Continuing Airworthiness Regulation as amended;

“Part-MED” means Annex IV so entitled to the F56 ... Aircrew Regulation;

“Part-NCC” means Annex VI so entitled to the F56 ... Air Operations Regulation;

“Part-NCO” means Annex VII so entitled to the F56 ... Air Operations Regulation;

“Part-ORO” means Annex III so entitled to the F56 ... Air Operations Regulation;

“Part-SPA” means Annex V so entitled to the F56 ... Air Operations Regulation;

[F57 “Part-SPO” means Annex VIII so entitled to the F56 ... Air Operations Regulation;]

“parts and appliances” means any—

(a)

instrument;

(b)

equipment;

(c)

mechanism;

(d)

part;

(e)

apparatus;

(f)

appurtenance;

(g)

software or accessory; or

(h)

communications equipment,

that is used or intended to be used in operating or controlling an aircraft in flight, and includes parts of an airframe, engine or propeller, or equipment used to manoeuvre the aircraft from the ground;

“Passenger” means a person other than a member of the crew;

“Passenger A to B commercial air transport” means a flight for the purpose of carriage of passengers by commercial air transport by an aircraft starting and ending at different places;

“Performance Class 1 operations” means flights where, in the event of the failure of a power unit, the helicopter will be able to safely continue the flight and land at an appropriate landing area unless the power unit failure recognition occurs during take-off at or before reaching the take-off decision point in which case the helicopter will be able to safely land back within the area from which it has taken off;

“Performance Class 2 operations” means flights where, in the event of the failure of a power unit, the helicopter will be able to safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area or, where the failure occurs at a point during the take-off manoeuvre or the landing manoeuvre when it cannot do so, the helicopter will be able to carry out a forced landing;

“Performance Class 3 operations” means flights where, in the event of the failure of a power unit at any time during the flight, the helicopter will be required to carry out a forced landing;

“Performance class B aeroplane” means an aeroplane powered by propeller engines with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration of nine or fewer and a maximum take-off mass of 5,700 kg or less;

“Period of duty” means the period between the commencement and end of a shift during which an air traffic controller performs, or could be called on to perform, any of the functions specified in a rating included in the controller's licence;

“pilot in command”, in relation to an aircraft, means the pilot designated by the operator as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of its flight, without being under the direction of any other pilot in the aircraft;

“Police air operator's certificate” means a certificate granted by the CAA under article 134(5);

“Police authority” means a Chief Officer of police for any area of England or Wales, the Chief Constable of Police Scotland and the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland;

“Police officer” means any person who is a member of a police force or of the Police Service of Northern Ireland (including, for the avoidance of doubt, the Police Service of Northern Ireland Reserve), and any special constable;

“Pre-flight inspection” means the inspection carried out before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight;

“Precision approach” means an instrument approach using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation;

“Pressurised aircraft” means an aircraft provided with means of maintaining in any compartment a pressure greater than that of the surrounding atmosphere;

“Private aircraft” means an aircraft which is not a commercial operation aircraft, a public transport aircraft or a commercial air transport aircraft;

“product” means an aircraft, engine or propeller;

“Proficiency check” means a demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew a rating, including such oral examination as the examiner may require;

“Public electronic communications network” has the same meaning as in section 151 of the Communications Act 2003 M16 ;

“Public transport” has the meaning assigned to it by article 6, and the expression “public transport operation” should be construed accordingly;

“Public transport aircraft” means an aircraft flying, or intended by the operator of the aircraft to fly, for the purpose of public transport;

“Public transport flight” means a flight for the purpose of public transport;

“Public use licence” has the meaning assigned to it by article 214(3);

“rating” means a statement entered on a licence setting out privileges, special conditions or limitations pertaining thereto;

“Record” has the same meaning as in section 81(6) of the Transport Act 2000;

“Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace” means any airspace between flight level 290 and flight level 410 inclusive which has been notified, prescribed or otherwise designated by the relevant competent authority as being airspace within which a vertical separation minimum of 1,000 feet or 300 metres must be applied;

“Relevant overseas territory” means any colony and any country or place outside Her Majesty's dominions in which for the time being Her Majesty has jurisdiction;

[F58 remote pilot” means an individual responsible for safely conducting the flight of an unmanned aircraft by operating its flight controls, either manually or, when the unmanned aircraft flies automatically, by monitoring its course and remaining able to intervene and change the course at any time;]

“Replacement” in relation to any part of an aircraft or its equipment—

(a)

includes the removal and replacement of that part whether or not by the same part, and whether or not any work is done on it; but

(b)

does not include the removal and replacement of a part which is designed to be removable solely for the purpose of enabling another part to be inspected, repaired, removed or replaced or cargo to be loaded;

“Required Navigation Performance airspace” means airspace which has been notified, prescribed or otherwise designated by the competent authority for the airspace as requiring specified navigation performance capabilities to be met by aircraft flying within it;

“Rocket” means a device which is propelled by ejecting expanding gases generated in its motor from self contained propellant and which is not dependent on the intake of outside substances and includes any part of the device intended to become separated during operation;

“Runway visual range” in relation to a runway means the distance in the direction of take-off or landing over which the runway lights or surface markings may be seen from the touchdown zone as calculated by either human observation or instruments in—

(a)

the vicinity of the touchdown zone; or

(b)

if this is not reasonably practicable, in the vicinity of the midpoint of the runway,

and the distance, if any, communicated to the pilot in command of an aircraft by or on behalf of the person in charge of the aerodrome as being the runway visual range must be taken to be the runway visual range for the time being;

“Safety management system” means a systematic approach to managing safety including the necessary organisational structure, accountabilities, policies and procedures;

“Scheduled journey” means one of a series of journeys which are undertaken between the same two places and which together amount to a systematic service;

“Seaplane” has the same meaning as in section 97 of the Civil Aviation Act 1982;

“Sector” means a part of a control area or part of a flight information region or upper region;

“Self-launching motor glider” means an aircraft with the characteristics of a non-power-driven glider, which is fitted with one or more power units and which is designed or intended to take off under its own power;

“Self-propelled hang-glider” means an aircraft comprising an aerofoil wing and a mechanical propulsion device which—

(a)

is foot launched;

(b)

has a stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration not exceeding 35 knots calibrated airspeed; and

(c)

has a [F59 maximum unladen weight], including full fuel, of 70 kg;

“Self-sustaining glider” means an aircraft with the characteristics of a non-power-driven glider which is fitted with one or more power units capable of sustaining the aircraft in flight but which is not designed or intended to take off under its own power;

“SERA” means the Annex to the Standardised European Rules of the Air Regulation;

“Service Provision Regulation” means Regulation (EC) No 550/2004 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 10th March 2004 on the provision of air navigation services in the single European sky M17 , as amended from time to time;

[F60 “Single-seat deregulated aeroplane” means a non-Part 21 aircraft, other than an unmanned aircraft, which is designed to carry not more than one person, which has—

(a)

a maximum take-off mass not exceeding—

(i)

300kg for a landplane (or 390kg for a landplane of which at least 51% was built by an amateur, or non-profit making association of amateurs (“the association”), for the amateur or the association’s own purposes and without any commercial objective, in respect of which a permit to fly issued by the CAA was in force prior to 1st January 2003);

(ii)

330kg for an amphibian or floatplane; or

(iii)

315kg for a landplane equipped with an airframe mounted total recovery parachute system; and

(b)

a stalling speed, or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration, at the maximum take-off mass not exceeding 35 knots calibrated airspeed.]

“SLMG” means a self-launching motor glider;

“Small balloon” means a balloon of not more than two metres in any linear dimension at any stage of its flight, including any basket or other equipment attached to the balloon;

“Small rocket” means a rocket of which the total impulse of the motor or combination of motors is not more than 10,240 Newton-seconds;

F61 ...

“solo flight” means a flight during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of an aircraft;

“Special tasks service” means an air traffic control service—

(a)

for any aircraft flying for the purposes of research and development of aircraft, aircraft equipment or aircraft systems which is not flying in accordance with normal aviation practice; and

(b)

for other aircraft in the vicinity of any such aircraft;

“Special VFR flight” means a flight conducted in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules cleared by an air traffic control unit to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below Visual Meteorological Conditions;

“sporting weapon” means any—

(a)

weapon or ammunition; or

(b)

article containing an explosive, noxious liquid or gas,

which is not a munition of war, including parts, whether components or accessories, for such weapon, ammunition or article;

“SSEA” means a simple single engine aeroplane, being a single engine piston aeroplane with a maximum take-off weight authorised of not more than 2,000kg and which is not a microlight aeroplane or a SLMG;;

“Standard instrument arrival” means an arrival route for use by an aircraft flying in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules which links a notified significant point with a point from which an instrument approach procedure may be commenced;

“Standard instrument departure” means a departure route for use by an aircraft flying in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules which links an aerodrome or a specific runway of an aerodrome with a notified significant point from which the flight may safely continue and which is wholly contained within controlled airspace;

“Standardised European Rules of the Air Regulation” means Regulation (EU) No 923/2012 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26th September 2012 laying down the common rules of the air and operational provisions regarding services and procedures in air navigation and amending Implementing Regulation (EU) No 1035/2011 and Regulations (EC) No 1265/2007, (EC) No 1794/2006, (EC) No 730/2006, (EC) No 1033/2006 and (EU) No 255/2010 M18 , as amended from time to time;

“State aircraft” means an aircraft carrying out military, customs, police, search and rescue, fire-fighting, coastguard or similar activities or services;

“State of design” means the State having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible for the type design of an aircraft;

“State of the operator” means the State in which the operator of an aircraft has its principal place of business or, if it has no such place of business, its permanent residence, in circumstances where—

(a)

that aircraft is registered in another Contracting State;

(b)

the operator is operating that aircraft under an agreement for its lease, charter or inter-change or any similar arrangement;

(c)

the State in which that aircraft is registered has, by agreement with the State in which the operator of the aircraft has its principal place of business or, if it has no such place of business, its permanent residence, agreed to transfer to it its functions and duties as State of registry for that aircraft in relation to, in the case of article 33(1), airworthiness, in the case of article 77(1), aircraft radio equipment, in the case of article 148, flight crew licensing or, in the case of article 79, radio licensing; and

(d)

the agreement has been registered with the Council of the International Civil Aviation Organisation or the existence and scope of the agreement have been directly communicated to the CAA;

F62 ...

“Take-off decision point” means the latest point in the take-off at which, following recognition of a power unit failure, the helicopter will be able to carry out a rejected take-off;

“Technical Harmonisation Regulation” means Council Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91 of 16th December 1991 on the harmonisation of technical requirements and administrative procedures in the field of civil aviation, as amended;

“Technical log” means a record containing the information specified in paragraph M.A.306 of Part M;

“Tethered” [F63 , in relation to a balloon,] means flight by a controllable balloon throughout which it is flown within limits imposed by a restraining device which attaches the balloon to the surface;

[F64 “tethered small unmanned aircraft” means an unmanned aircraft—

(a)

having a MTOM, within the meaning of Article 2 of the Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation, of not more than 1kg; and

(b)

which is flown within limits imposed by a restraining device which attaches the aircraft to the surface or to a person on the surface;]

“TMG” means a touring motor glider, being an aircraft with the characteristics of a non-power-driven glider which—

(a)

has one or more integrally mounted, non-retractable power units;

(b)

has one or more non-retractable propellers; and

(c)

is designed or intended to take off under its own power;

“Type rating” means a rating that entitles the holder of a pilot licence to act as pilot of an aircraft of the type specified in the rating and the holder of a flight engineer's licence to act as flight engineer in an aircraft of the type specified in the rating;

[F65 “UAS” refers to an unmanned aircraft system, and means an unmanned aircraft and the equipment to control it remotely;]

[F65 “UAS operator” means any person operating or intending to operate one or more UAS;]

“Uncontrollable balloon” means a balloon which is not a small balloon and which is not capable of free controlled flight;

[F66 “UK military AIP” means the document published by or on behalf of the Secretary of State entitled “United Kingdom Military Aeronautical Information Publication” and for the time being in force;]

“United Kingdom licence” means a licence included in Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Schedule 8;

[F67 “unmanned aircraft” means any aircraft operating or designed to operate autonomously or to be piloted remotely without a pilot on board;]

[F67 “Unmanned Aircraft Delegated Regulation” means Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2019/945 of 12 March 2019 on unmanned aircraft systems and on third-country operators of unmanned aircraft systems;]

[F67 “Unmanned Aircraft Implementing Regulation” means Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/947 of 24 May 2019 on the rules and procedures for the operation of unmanned aircraft;]

[F67 “unmanned aircraft subject to certification” means any unmanned aircraft forming part of a UAS required to be certified under Article 40(1)(a), (b) or (c) of the Unmanned Aircraft Delegated Regulation;]

“Valuable consideration” means any right, interest, profit or benefit, forbearance, detriment, loss or responsibility accruing, given, suffered or undertaken under an agreement, which is of more than a nominal nature;

“Visiting force” means any such body, contingent or detachment of the forces of any country as is a visiting force for the purposes of the Visiting Forces Act 1952 M19 —

(a)

which apply to that country by virtue of paragraph (a) of section 1(1) of that Act; or

(b)

which from time to time apply to that country by virtue of paragraph (b) of section 1(1) and of any Order in Council made or hereafter to be made under section 1 designating that country for the purposes of that Act following section 1(2) of that Act;

“Visual Flight Rules” means visual flight rules prescribed by Section 5 of SERA;

“Visual Meteorological Conditions” means weather permitting flight in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules;

“With the surface in sight” means with the flight crew being able to see sufficient surface features or surface illumination to enable the flight crew to maintain the aircraft in a desired attitude without reference to any flight instrument and “when the surface is not in sight” is to be construed accordingly.

Textual Amendments

F1 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(a)

F2 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(b)

F3 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (13.4.2022) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2022 (S.I. 2022/321), arts. 1(1), 7

F4 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F5 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F6 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(d)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F7 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(d)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F8 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(c)

F9 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(d)

F10 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(e) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F11 Words in Sch. 1 inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 9(a)

F12 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(e)

F13 Words in Sch. 1 inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 9(b)

F14 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(f) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F15 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(g) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F16 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(h) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F17 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F18 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(j) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F19 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(f)

F20 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(k) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F21 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(l)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F22 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(l)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F23 Words in Sch. 1 inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 9(c)

F24 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(l)(iii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F25 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(m) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F26 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(n) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F27 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(o)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F28 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(o)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F29 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(p) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F30 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(q) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F31 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(r) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F32 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(s)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F33 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(s)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F34 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(t)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F35 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(t)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F36 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(u)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F37 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(u)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F38 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(v)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F39 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(v)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F40 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(v)(iii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F41 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(v)(iv) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F42 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (13.3.2019) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2019 (S.I. 2019/261), arts. 1(2), 5(a)

F43 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(a) (with art. 13)

F44 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 10(a)

F45 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(g)

F46 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(v)(v) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F47 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(w)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F48 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(w)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F49 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(w)(iii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F50 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(w)(iv) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F51 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(w)(v) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F52 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(x) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F53 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(h)

F54 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(y) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F55 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(z) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F56 Word in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(2)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F57 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(i)

F58 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(b) (with art. 13)

F59 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 42(j)

F60 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 10(b)

F61 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(c) (with art. 13)

F62 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(d) (with art. 13)

F63 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(e) (with art. 13)

F64 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(f) (with art. 13)

F65 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(g) (with art. 13)

F66 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (13.3.2019) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2019 (S.I. 2019/261), arts. 1(2), 5(b)

F67 Words in Sch. 1 para. 1 inserted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 11(h) (with art. 13)

Marginal Citations

M1 S.I. 2015/912.

M2 O.J. No. L 336, 20.12.2011, p.20.

M3 1981 c.61.

M4 Treaty Series No. 8 (1953); Cmd 8742.

M5 1974 c.39.

M6 O.J. No. L 44, 14.02.2014, p.1.

M7 O.J. No. L 296, 25.10.2012, p.1.

M8 O.J. No. L 224, 21.08.2012, p.1.

M9 O.J. No. L 311, 25.11.2011, p.1.

M10 O.J. No. L 362, 17.12.2014, p.1.

M11 1995 c.21.

M12 1964 c.5.

M13 Issue 10, dated 7th March 2014, was published by The Stationery Office on behalf of the CAA, under ISBN 9780117928619. It is also available online for download at http://www.caa.co.uk/CAP168

M14 S.I. 1996/2798.

M15 O.J. No. L 122, 24.04.2014, p.18.

M16 2003 c.21.

M17 O.J. No. L 96, 31.03.2004, p.10.

M18 O.J. No. L 281, 13.10.2012, p.1.

M19 1952 c.67.

2.  References in this Order to— U.K.

(a) a certificate of airworthiness include both a national certificate of airworthiness and [F68 a Part-21] certificate of airworthiness unless otherwise stated;

(b) an aircraft, aeroplane, powered lift tilt rotor aircraft, SLMG, helicopter, gyroplane, airship, balloon or kite include both [F69 Part-21 and non-Part-21] examples of the same unless otherwise stated.

Textual Amendments

F68 Words in Sch. 1 para. 2(a) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(3)(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F69 Words in Sch. 1 para. 2(b) substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 78(3)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

3.  The expressions appearing in the “Classification of Aircraft” in Part 1 of Schedule 4 have the meanings assigned to them in that Part. U.K.

[F70 4.— (1) “Microlight aeroplane” means an aircraft described in sub-paragraph (2), (3), (4) or (5). U.K.

(2) An aircraft is a microlight aeroplane if it is a non-Part 21 aircraft, other than an unmanned aircraft, that is designed to carry not more than two persons, which—

(a) has a stalling speed, or maximum steady flight speed in the landing configuration, at the maximum take-off mass not exceeding 35 knots calibrated airspeed; and

(b) has a maximum take-off mass not exceeding—

(i) 450kg for a two-seat landplane;

(ii) 495kg for a two-seat amphibian or floatplane; or

(iii) 475kg for a two-seat landplane equipped with an airframe mounted total recovery parachute system.

(3) An aircraft is a microlight aeroplane if it is a non-Part 21 aircraft, other than an unmanned aircraft, that is designed to carry not more than two persons, which—

(a) is of an approved design;

(b) either has, or has been subsequently modified to have, a stalling speed, or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration, at the maximum take-off mass not exceeding 45 knots calibrated airspeed; and

(c) either has, or has been subsequently modified to have, a maximum take-off mass not exceeding—

(i) 600kg for a landplane; or

(ii) 650kg for an amphibian or floatplane.

(4) An aircraft is a microlight aeroplane if it is a single-seat deregulated aeroplane.

(5) An aircraft is a microlight aeroplane if it is being flown, or is intended to be flown, for the purpose of a flight test to establish that it complies with the requirements of sub-paragraph (2), (3) or (4).

(6) For the purposes of sub-paragraph (3)(a), an “approved design” is a design which is approved by the CAA for the purposes of the issue of a permit to fly under article 40.]

Textual Amendments

F70 Sch. 1 para. 4 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 10(c)

Article 18(1)

SCHEDULE 2 U.K. PARTS OF STRAITS SPECIFIED IN CONNECTION WITH THE FLIGHT OF AIRCRAFT IN TRANSIT OVER UNITED KINGDOM TERRITORIAL WATERS

1.  The parts of straits specified in paragraph 2 are specified for the purposes of article 18(1). U.K.

2.—(1) In the Straits of Dover, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are— U.K.

(a) to the south of a rhumb line joining position 51°08'23” north latitude: 1°23'00” east longitude and position 51°22'41” north latitude: 1°50'06” east longitude; and

(b) to the east of a rhumb line joining position 50°54'33” north latitude: 0°58'05” east longitude and position 50°43'15” north latitude: 0°51'39” east longitude.

(2) In the North Channel, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are—

(a) to the north of a rhumb line joining position 54°13'30” north latitude: 5°39'28” west longitude and position 54°09'02” north latitude: 5°18'07” west longitude;

(b) to the west of a rhumb line joining position 54°26'02” north latitude: 4°51'37” west longitude and position 54°38'01” north latitude: 4°51'16” west longitude; and

(c) to the east of a rhumb line joining—

(i) position 55°40'24” north latitude: 6°30'59” west longitude and position 55°29'24” north latitude: 6°40'31” west longitude;

(ii) position 55°24'54” north latitude: 6°44'33” west longitude and position 55°10'15” north latitude: 6°44'33” west longitude.

(3) In the Fair Isle Channel, the territorial waters adjacent to the United Kingdom which are—

(a) to the north of a rhumb line joining position 59°10'54” north latitude: 2°01'32” west longitude and position 59°33'27” north latitude: 2°38'35” west longitude; and

(b) to the south of a rhumb line joining position 59°51'06” north latitude: 0°52'10” west longitude and position 59°51'06” north latitude: 1°46'36” west longitude.

Articles 31(2) and 38(5)

SCHEDULE 3 U.K. A, B AND E CONDITIONS AND CATEGORIES OF CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS

PART 1 U.K. A, B and E Conditions

CHAPTER 1 U.K. A Conditions

1.  A [F71 non-Part-21] aircraft registered in the United Kingdom may fly for a purpose set out in paragraph 2 or 3 subject to the conditions contained in paragraphs 4 to 7 when— U.K.

(a) it does not have a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the United Kingdom;

(b) the certificate of airworthiness issued under article 38 for the aircraft has ceased to be in force by virtue of any of the matters specified in article 39;

(c) it has previously had a permit to fly but that permit has ceased to be in force by virtue of any of the matters specified in article 41; or

(d) is of a design which has previously been approved by the CAA, or by an organisation approved for that purpose by the CAA, as being compliant with a standard accepted by the CAA as appropriate for the issue of a national permit to fly.

Textual Amendments

F71 Word in Sch. 3 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 79(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

2.  The purposes in the case of an aircraft falling within sub-paragraph 1(a) are that the aircraft may fly only so as to enable it to— U.K.

(a) qualify for the issue or renewal of a certificate of airworthiness or a national permit to fly after an application has been made for such issue or renewal, or carry out a functional check of a previously approved modification of the aircraft;

(b) proceed to or from a place at which any inspection, repair, modification, maintenance, approval, test or weighing of, or the installation of equipment in, the aircraft is to take place or has taken place for a purpose referred to in sub-paragraph (a), after any relevant application has been made, or at which the installation of furnishings in, or the painting of, the aircraft is to be undertaken; or

(c) proceed to or from a place at which the aircraft is to be or has been stored.

3.  The purposes in the case of an aircraft falling within sub-paragraph 1(b), (c) or (d) are that the aircraft may fly only so as to enable it to— U.K.

(a) proceed to a place at which any maintenance or inspection required by article 39(1)(b) or article 41(1)(b) is to take place; or

(b) proceed to a place at which any maintenance, inspection or modification required by article 39(1)(c), (d) or (e) or article 41(1)(a) is to take place and for which flight the CAA has given permission in writing; or

(c) carry out a functional check, test or in-flight adjustment in connection with the carrying out in a manner approved by the CAA of any overhaul, repair, previously approved modification, inspection or maintenance required by article 39 or article 41.

4.  The aircraft, including any modifications, must be of a design which previously has been approved by the CAA, or by an organisation approved for that purpose by the CAA, as being compliant with a standard accepted by the CAA as appropriate for the issue of a national certificate of airworthiness. U.K.

5.  The aircraft and its engines must be certified as fit for flight by— U.K.

(a) in the case of an aircraft referred to in paragraph 1(c) or (d), a person authorised by an organisation approved for the purpose by the CAA, and in accordance with that approval; and

(b) in all other cases—

(i) the holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer's licence granted under this Order, being a licence which entitles the holder to issue that certificate; or

(ii) a person approved by the CAA for the purpose of issuing certificates under this condition, and in accordance with that approval.

6.  The aircraft must carry the minimum flight crew specified— U.K.

(a) in the case of an aircraft referred to in paragraph 1(c) or (d), in any relevant document; and

(b) in all other cases, in any certificate of airworthiness or flight manual which has previously been in force under this Order for the aircraft, or is or has previously been in force for any other aircraft of identical design.

7.  The aircraft must not carry any persons or cargo except persons performing duties in the aircraft in connection with the flight or persons who are carried in the aircraft to perform duties in connection with a purpose specified in paragraph 2 or 3. U.K.

8.  For the purpose of this Schedule, “ a previously approved modification” means a modification which has previously been approved by the CAA or by an organisation approved for that purpose by the CAA for that aircraft or another aircraft of the same type. U.K.

CHAPTER 2 U.K. B Conditions

1.  A [F72 non-Part-21] aircraft may fly for a purpose set out in paragraph 2 subject to the conditions set out in paragraphs 3 to 6 whether or not it is registered in accordance with article 24(1) when there is not in force— U.K.

(a) in the case of an aircraft which is so registered, a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered; or

(b) in the case of an aircraft which is not so registered, either a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the United Kingdom or a permit to fly issued by the CAA for that aircraft.

Textual Amendments

F72 Word in Sch. 3 Pt. 1 Ch. 2 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 79(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

2.  The purposes referred to in paragraph 1 are— U.K.

(a) experimenting with or testing the aircraft (including any engines installed on the aircraft) or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft;

(b) enabling the aircraft to qualify for the issue or validation of a certificate of airworthiness or the approval of a modification of the aircraft or the issue of a permit to fly;

(c) demonstrating and displaying the aircraft, any engines installed on the aircraft or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft with a view to its sale or of other similar aircraft, engines or equipment;

(d) demonstrating and displaying the aircraft to employees of the operator;

(e) the giving of flying training to or the testing of flight crew employed by the operator or the training or testing of other persons employed by the operator and who are carried or are intended to be carried under sub-paragraph 6(a);

(f) proceeding to or from a place at which any experiment, inspection, repair, modification, maintenance, approval, test or weighing of the aircraft, the installation of equipment in the aircraft, demonstration, display or training is to take place for a purpose referred to in sub-paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d) or (e); or

(g) proceeding to or from a place at which the installation of furnishings in, or the painting of the aircraft is to be undertaken.

3.  The flight must be operated by a person approved by the CAA for the purposes of these conditions and subject to any additional conditions which may be specified in such an approval. U.K.

4.  If not registered in the United Kingdom— U.K.

(a) the aircraft must be marked in a manner approved by the CAA for the purposes of these conditions; and

(b) articles 67, 79, 226, 229 and 235 must be complied with in relation to the aircraft as if it were registered in the United Kingdom.

5.  No person may act as pilot in command of the aircraft except a person approved for the purpose by the CAA. U.K.

6.  The aircraft must not carry any cargo, or any persons other than the flight crew except the following— U.K.

(a) persons employed by the operator who during the flight carry out duties or are tested or receive training in connection with a purpose specified in paragraph 2;

(b) persons acting on behalf of the manufacturers of component parts of the aircraft (including its engines) or of equipment installed in or carried in the aircraft for carrying out during the flight duties in connection with a purpose so specified;

(c) persons approved by the CAA under article 268 as qualified to supply reports for the purposes of article 38;

(d) persons other than those carried under the preceding provisions of this paragraph who are carried in the aircraft in order to carry out a technical evaluation of the aircraft or its operation;

(e) cargo which comprises equipment carried in connection with a purpose specified in sub-paragraph 2(f); or

(f) persons employed by the operator or persons acting on behalf of the manufacturers of component parts of the aircraft (including its engines) or of equipment installed in or carried in the aircraft in connection with a purpose specified in sub-paragraph 2(f) which persons have duties in connection with that purpose.

CHAPTER 3 U.K. E Conditions

1.  Subject to the conditions set out in paragraph 3, a [F73 non-Part-21] aircraft registered in the United Kingdom of not more than 2,000kg maximum take-off mass and which is designed to be flown by a crew of at least one pilot may fly for a purpose set out in paragraph 2 when there is in force neither— U.K.

(a) a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the United Kingdom; nor

(b) a permit to fly.

Textual Amendments

F73 Word in Sch. 3 Pt. 1 Ch. 3 para. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 79(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

2.  The purposes referred to in paragraph 1 are— U.K.

(a) experimenting with or testing the aircraft (including any engines installed on the aircraft) or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft;

(b) demonstrating the aircraft, any engines installed on the aircraft or any equipment installed or carried in the aircraft in support of their development or of other similar aircraft, engines or equipment.

3.—(1) The aircraft may only fly if any certificate of airworthiness or permit to fly held in respect of the aircraft is suspended. U.K.

(2) The aircraft may only fly in accordance with a test programme, not exceeding a period of 12 months, in respect of which an E Conditions Declaration has been made by an E Conditions competent person and submitted to the CAA.

(3) The aircraft must not fly in accordance with the test programme until the E Conditions competent person has received a written acknowledgement from the CAA of its receipt of the E Conditions Declaration.

(4) Flight of the aircraft may be subject to any additional conditions which may be specified by the E Conditions competent person.

(5) The aircraft must not fly if the E Conditions competent person is not satisfied that all risks in respect of the flight test programme continue to have been mitigated to an acceptable level and that the level of risk to uninvolved third parties is low enough to be acceptable.

(6) No person may act as pilot in command of the aircraft except a person who has been judged by the E Conditions competent person to be appropriately qualified and trained for the purpose.

(7) The aircraft must not carry any cargo, or any persons other than the pilot except any additional person determined by the E Conditions competent person to be necessary to achieve the purpose of the flight as specified in paragraph 2;

(8) The words “UK EXPERIMENTAL” must be displayed on the aircraft near each entrance to the cabin or cockpit in letters not less than 5 centimetres nor more than 15 centimetres in height.

(9) A placard must be affixed to the aircraft and displayed within sight of all occupants of the aircraft which must be worded as follows—

Occupant Warning
This UK registered Experimental Aircraft has not been approved and may only be flown by permission granted under ANO E Conditions.

4.  An E Conditions Declaration must— U.K.

(a) be signed by an E Conditions competent person;

(b) specify the aircraft in respect of which it is issued;

(c) specify the flight test programme in respect of which it is issued, including the start and finish dates of the programme;

(d) set out the specified purposes for which the aircraft may fly;

(e) confirm that the flight test programme will be conducted in accordance with the Conditions of Flight at paragraph 3;

(f) declare that the E Conditions competent person has obtained the consent of the registered owner of the aircraft—

(i) to request the suspension of any certificate of airworthiness or permit to fly granted in respect of the aircraft; and

(ii) for the aircraft to undertake the flight test programme;

(g) request the suspension of any certificate of airworthiness or permit to fly held in respect of the aircraft;

(h) declare that if the ownership of the aircraft changes during the flight test programme, the E Conditions competent person will not permit a flight to take place until the consent of the new aircraft owner for the aircraft to continue the flight test programme has been obtained;

(i) declare that, before the flight test programme commences, the E Conditions competent person will undertake a risk assessment and must be satisfied that—

(i) all risks in respect of the flight test programme have been mitigated to an acceptable level; and

(ii) in particular, the level of risk to uninvolved third parties is low enough to be acceptable;

(j) declare that, throughout the flight test programme, the E Conditions competent person will make such changes to the risk assessment and dossier of information as appear appropriate in light of the information gathered in connection with that programme;

(k) declare that the E Conditions competent person will—

(i) keep under review the risks in respect of the flight test programme; and

(ii) not permit a flight to take place in the event that the E Conditions competent person ceases to be satisfied that—

(aa) all risks in respect of the flight test programme have been mitigated to an acceptable level; and

(bb) in particular, the level of risk to uninvolved third parties is low enough to be acceptable.

5.—(1) An E Conditions competent person means a person who satisfies the requirements of sub-paragraph (2) or (3). U.K.

(2) A person who has been authorised as a competent person by an E Conditions approved person, and whose authorisation has not been withdrawn, satisfies the requirements of this sub-paragraph.

(3) A person who—

(a) is a Member or Fellow of the Royal Aeronautical Society (“the RAeS”) and a Chartered Engineer registered with the Engineering Council via the RAeS; and

(b) has notified the RAeS of that person's intention to act as an E Conditions competent person and has not withdrawn that notification;

satisfies the requirements of this sub-paragraph.

(4) The CAA may approve a person to authorise a competent person for the purposes of E Conditions and in this Order “E Conditions approved person” means a person so approved.

6.—(1) An E Conditions competent person is entitled to make an E Conditions Declaration. U.K.

(2) The E Conditions competent person must—

(a) before the flight test programme commences—

(i) undertake a risk assessment;

(ii) be satisfied that all risks in respect of the flight test programme have been mitigated to an acceptable level;

(iii) in particular be satisfied that the level of risk to uninvolved third parties is acceptable;

(iv) keep a dossier of information about the aircraft and the flight test programme, including a record of the risk assessment, and retain the dossier for three years after final flight under the flight test programme; and

(b) throughout the flight test programme—

(i) make such changes to the risk assessment and dossier of information as appear appropriate in light of the information gathered in connection with that programme;

(ii) not permit a flight to take place unless that person remains satisfied that all risks in respect of the flight test programme have been mitigated to an acceptable level and that the level of risk to uninvolved third parties is low enough to be acceptable.

(3) An E Conditions competent person must produce the dossier of information to an authorised person within a reasonable time after being requested to do so.

7.  The flight test programme is deemed to be completed if the person who has submitted an E Conditions Declaration— U.K.

(a) ceases to be an E Conditions competent person;

(b) notifies the CAA that the flight test programme has been finished or terminated;

(c) is no longer discharging the obligations set out in the E Conditions Declaration; or

(d) the declared finish date of the flight test programme has been reached.

8.  The CAA must issue a written acknowledgement of receipt in respect of an E Conditions Declaration submitted to it unless, in its reasonable opinion, the E Conditions Declaration is repetitive. U.K.

PART 2 U.K. Categories of Certificate of Airworthiness and Purposes for which Aircraft May Fly

Category of certificate of airworthiness	Purposes for which the aircraft may fly
Standard	Any purpose
Special Category	Any purpose, other than commercial air transport, specified in the certificate of airworthiness

Arts. 27(1)(b) & 32(2) & para. 3 of Schedule 1

SCHEDULE 4 U.K. CLASSIFICATION AND MARKING OF AIRCRAFT

PART 1 U.K. Classification of aircraft

1.—(1) Aircraft are to be classified in accordance with the table. U.K.

Table

Column 1	Column 2	Column 3
(1) Lighter than air aircraft	(a) Non-power driven	(i) Free Balloon
		(ii) Captive Balloon
	(b) Power driven	(i) Airship
(2) Heavier than air aircraft	(a) Non-power driven	(i) Glider
		(ii) Kite
	(b) Power driven flying machines	(i) Aeroplane (Landplane)
		(ii) Aeroplane (Seaplane)
		(iii) Aeroplane (Amphibian)
		(iv) Aeroplane (Self-launching Motor Glider)
		(v) Powered Lift (Tilt Rotor)
		(vi) Rotorcraft— (aa) Helicopter; (bb) Gyroplane.

(2) An aircraft which is intended to be operated with no pilot on board is to be further classified as unmanned.

(3) Unmanned aircraft include unmanned free balloons and remotely piloted aircraft.

PART 2 U.K. Marking of aircraft

General U.K.

1.—(1) The nationality mark of the aircraft is the capital letter “G” in Roman character.

(2) The registration mark is a group of four capital letters in Roman character assigned by the CAA on the registration of the aircraft.

(3) The letters must be without ornamentation.

(4) A hyphen must be placed between the nationality mark and the registration mark.

(5) The nationality and registration marks must be displayed to the best advantage, taking into consideration the constructional features of the aircraft and must always be kept clean and visible.

(6) The letters constituting each group of marks must—

(a) be of equal height; and

(b) together with the hyphen, all be of the same single colour which must clearly contrast with the background on which they appear.

(7) The nationality and registration marks must also be inscribed on a fire-proof metal plate affixed in a prominent position—

(a) in the case of a microlight aeroplane, either on the fuselage or car or on the wing;

(b) in the case of a balloon, on the basket or envelope;

(c) in the case of a remotely piloted aircraft, secured in a prominent position near the main entrance or compartment, or affixed conspicuously to the exterior of the aircraft if there is no main entrance or compartment; or

(d) in the case of any other aircraft on the fuselage or car.

(8) The nationality and registration marks must be painted on the aircraft, or affixed to the aircraft by any other means ensuring a similar degree of permanence, in the manner specified in paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 of this Part.

Position and size of marks – heavier than air aircraft U.K.

2.—(1) The position and size of marks on heavier than air aircraft (excluding kites) must be as specified in this paragraph.

(2) On such aircraft having a fixed wing surface—

(a) the marks must appear on the lower horizontal surface of the wing structure and on the port wing unless they extend across the whole surface of both wings;

(b) so far as is possible the marks must be located equidistant from the leading and trailing edges of the wings;

(c) the tops of the letters must be towards the leading edge of the wing;

(d) the height of the letters must be—

(i) subject to sub-paragraph (ii), at least 50 centimetres;

(ii) if the wings are not large enough for the marks to be 50 centimetres in height, marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances.

(3) On the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and vertical tail surfaces of such aircraft—

(a) the marks must also appear either—

(i) on each side of the fuselage (or equivalent structure), and must, in the case of fixed wing aircraft be located between the wings and the horizontal tail surface; or

(ii) on the vertical tail surfaces;

(b) when located on a single vertical tail surface, the marks must appear on both sides;

(c) when located on multi-vertical tail surfaces, the marks must appear on the outboard sides of the outer-surfaces;

(d) subject to sub-paragraphs (f) and (g), the height of the letters constituting each group of marks must be at least 30 centimetres;

(e) if one of the surfaces authorised for displaying the required marks is large enough for those marks to be 30 centimetres in height (whilst complying with sub-paragraph (g)) and the other is not, marks of 30 centimetres in height must be placed on the largest authorised surface;

(f) if neither authorised surface is large enough for marks of 30 centimetres in height (whilst complying with sub-paragraph (g)), marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances must be displayed on the larger of the two authorised surfaces;

(g) marks on the vertical tail surfaces must be such as to leave a margin of at least five centimetres along each side of the vertical tail surface.

(4) On rotary wing aircraft where owing to the structure of the aircraft the greatest height practicable for the marks on the side of the fuselage (or equivalent structure) is less than 30 centimetres—

(a) the marks must also appear on the lower surface of the fuselage as close to the line of symmetry as practicable;

(b) they must be placed with the tops of the letters towards the nose;

(c) the height of the letters constituting each group of marks must be—

(i) subject to sub-paragraph (ii), at least 50 centimetres; or

(ii) if the lower surface of the fuselage is not large enough for the marks to be of 50 centimetres in height, marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances.

(5) Wherever in this paragraph marks of the greatest height practicable in the circumstances are required, that height must be such as is consistent with compliance with paragraph 4 of this Part.

Position and size of marks – airships and free balloons U.K.

3.—(1) The position and size of marks on airships and free balloons must be as specified in this paragraph.

(2) In the case of airships the marks must be—

(a) placed on each side of the airship; and

(b) placed horizontally either on the hull near the maximum cross-section of the airship or on the lower vertical stabiliser.

(3) In the case of free balloons, the marks must be in two places on diametrically opposite sides of the balloon.

(4) In the case of both airships and free balloons—

(a) the side marks must be so placed as to be visible from the sides and from the ground; and

(b) the height of the letters must be at least 50 centimetres.

Width, spacing and thickness of marks U.K.

4.—(1) For the purposes of this paragraph—

(a) “standard letter” means any letter other than the letters I, M and W;

(b) the width of each standard letter and the length of the hyphen between the nationality mark and the registration mark must be two thirds of the height of a letter;

(c) the width of the letters M and W must be neither less than two thirds of their height nor more than their height; and

(d) the width of the letter I must be one sixth of the height of the letter.

(2) The thickness of the lines comprising each letter and hyphen must be one sixth of the height of the letters forming the marks.

(3) Each letter and hyphen must be separated from the letter or hyphen which it immediately precedes or follows by a space equal to—

(a) either one quarter or one half of the width of a standard letter; and

(b) every other such space within the marks.

Articles 44(5) and 77(3)

SCHEDULE 5 U.K. EQUIPMENT FOR [F74 NON-PART-21] AIRCRAFT ON NON-COMMERCIAL AND COMMERCIAL OPERATIONS AND MARKING OF BREAK-IN AREAS

Textual Amendments

F74 Word in Sch. 5 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 80 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Instruments and equipment — general U.K.

1.—(1) Instruments and equipment required by this Schedule must be approved in accordance with the applicable airworthiness requirements if they are—

(a) used by the flight crew to control the flight path;

(b) used to comply with paragraph 15 or 16; or

(c) installed in the [F75 aircraft].

(2) When required by this Schedule, an equipment approval is not needed for—

(a) independent portable lights;

(b) an accurate time piece;

(c) survival and signalling equipment;

[F76 (ca) oxygen supplies;]

(d) sea anchor and equipment for mooring; and

(e) a child restraint device.

(3) As regards instruments and equipment not required by this Schedule, including any equipment that is not otherwise required by this Order but carried on a flight, the failure or malfunction of such instruments and equipment shall not affect the airworthiness of the aircraft.

(4) Instruments and equipment must be readily operable or accessible from the station where the flight crew member that needs to use it is seated.

(5) All required emergency equipment must be easily accessible for immediate use.

Textual Amendments

F75 Word in Sch. 5 para. 1(1)(c) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 43(a)

F76 Sch. 5 para. 1(2)(ca) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 43(b)

Operating lights U.K.

2.  Flying machines operated at night must be equipped with—

(a) an anti-collision light system;

(b) navigation/position lights;

(c) a landing light;

(d) lighting supplied from the aeroplane's electrical system to provide adequate illumination for all instruments and equipment essential to the safe operation of the flying machine; and

(e) an independent portable light for each crew member.

Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices U.K.

3.—(1) Unless sub-paragraph (2) applies, flying machines must be equipped with—

(a) a seat or berth for each person on board who is aged 24 months or more;

(b) a seat belt on each passenger seat and restraining belts for each berth;

(c) a child restraint device for each person on board younger than 24 months; and

(d) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system on each flight crew seat, having a single point release.

(2) The CAA may permit a flying machine not to be equipped with one or more of the items of equipment in sub-paragraph (1).

Supplemental oxygen — pressurised flying machines U.K.

4.—(1) Pressurised flying machines operated at flight altitudes for which an oxygen supply is required in accordance with sub-paragraph (2) must be equipped with oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing the required oxygen supplies.

(2) Pressurised flying machines operated above flight altitudes at which the pressure altitude in the passenger compartments is above 10,000 feet must carry enough breathing oxygen to supply—

(a) all crew members and—

(i) 100% of the passengers for any period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 feet, but in no case less than 10 minutes' supply;

(ii) at least 30% of the passengers, for any period when, in the event of loss of pressurisation and taking into account the circumstances of the flight, the pressure altitude in the passenger compartment will be between 14,000 feet and 15,000 feet; and

(iii) at least 10% of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes when the pressure altitude in the passenger compartment will be between 10,000 feet and 14,000 feet; and

(b) all the occupants of the passenger compartment for no less than 10 minutes, in the case of aeroplanes operated at pressure altitudes above 25,000 feet, or operated below that altitude but under conditions that will not allow them to descend safely to a pressure altitude of 13,000 feet within 4 minutes.

(3) Pressurised flying machines operated at flight altitudes above 25,000 feet must, in addition, be equipped with a device to provide a warning indication to the flight crew of any loss of pressurisation.

Supplemental oxygen — non-pressurised flying machines U.K.

5.—(1) Non-pressurised flying machines operated at flight altitudes for which an oxygen supply is required in accordance with sub-paragraph (2) must be equipped with oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing the required oxygen supplies.

(2) Non-pressurised flying machines operated above flight altitudes at which the pressure altitude in the passenger compartments is above 10,000 feet must carry enough breathing oxygen to supply—

(a) all crew members and at least 10% of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes when the pressure altitude in the passenger compartment will be between 10,000 feet and 13,000 feet; and

(b) all crew members and passengers for any period that the pressure altitude in the passenger compartment will be above 13,000 feet.

Hand fire extinguishers U.K.

6.—(1) Subject to sub-paragraph (2), flying machines must be equipped with at least one hand fire extinguisher—

(a) in the flight crew compartment; and

(b) in each passenger compartment that is separate from the flight crew compartment, except if the compartment is readily accessible to the flight crew.

(2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply to a flying machine with a maximum take-off mass of 1,200kg or less.

Marking of break-in areas U.K.

7.—(1) If areas of the aircraft's fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency are marked, such areas must be marked in accordance with the following diagram.

(2) The colour of the markings must be red or yellow and, if necessary, must be outlined in white to contrast with the background.

(3) If the corner markings are more than 2 metres apart, intermediate lines measuring 9 centimetres by 3 centimetres must be inserted so that there is no more than 2 metres between adjacent markings.

Flight over water U.K.

8.—(1) Where—

(a) a flying machine flies beyond autorotational or gliding distance from land suitable for an emergency landing;

(b) a flying machine takes off or lands at an aerodrome or operating site where, in the opinion of the pilot in command, the take-off or approach path is so disposed over water that there would be a likelihood of a ditching in the event of an emergency; or

(c) a seaplane operates over water,

it must be equipped with a life-jacket for each person on board, or equivalent individual floatation device for each person on board younger than 24 months, which must be worn or stowed in a position that is readily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided.

(2) Seaplanes operated over water must be equipped with—

(a) one anchor;

(b) one sea anchor (drogue), when necessary to assist in manoeuvring; and

(c) where applicable, equipment for making the sound signals prescribed in COLREGS.

(3) In sub-paragraph (2), “COLREGS” means the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea 1972 (as amended from time to time) having effect under article 1 of the Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea 1972 M20 .

Marginal Citations

M20 Treaty Series No. 77 (1977); Cmnd 6962.

Operations under Visual Flight Rules — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment – aeroplanes U.K.

9.—(1) Aeroplanes operated under Visual Flight Rules by day must be equipped with a means of measuring and displaying the—

(a) magnetic heading;

(b) time, in hours, minutes and seconds;

(c) pressure altitude;

(d) indicated airspeed; and

(e) Mach number, whenever speed limitations are expressed in terms of Mach number.

(2) Aeroplanes operated under visual meteorological conditions at night must, in addition to the requirements of sub-paragraph (1), be equipped with—

(a) a means of measuring and displaying—

(i) turn and slip; or

(ii) attitude and stabilised heading; and

(b) where gyroscopic instruments are installed, a means of indicating when the supply of power to those instruments is not adequate.

Operations under Instrument Flight Rules — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment – aeroplanes U.K.

10.  Aeroplanes operated under Instrument Flight Rules must be equipped with a means of—

(a) measuring and displaying the—

(i) magnetic heading;

(ii) time in hours, minutes and seconds;

(iii) pressure altitude;

(iv) indicated airspeed;

(v) vertical speed;

(vi) turn and slip;

(vii) attitude;

(viii) stabilised heading;

(ix) outside air temperature; and

(x) Mach number, whenever speed limitations are expressed in terms of Mach number;

(b) where gyroscopic instruments are installed, indicating when the supply of power to those instruments is not adequate; and

(c) preventing malfunction of the airspeed indicating system required in paragraph (a)(iv) due to condensation or icing.

Operations under Visual Flight Rules — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment – helicopters and gyroplanes U.K.

11.—(1) Helicopters and gyroplanes operated under Visual Flight Rules by day must be equipped with a means of measuring and displaying the—

(a) magnetic heading;

(b) time, in hours, minutes and seconds;

(c) pressure altitude;

(d) indicated airspeed; and

(e) slip.

(2) Helicopters and gyroplanes operated under visual meteorological conditions at night or where flight visibility below cloud is less than 1,500 metres must, in addition to the requirements of sub-paragraph (1), be equipped with—

(a) a means of measuring and displaying attitude and stabilised heading; and

(b) where gyroscopic instruments are installed, a means of indicating when the supply of power to those instruments is not adequate.

Operations under Instrument Flight Rules — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment – helicopters and gyroplanes U.K.

12.  Helicopters and gyroplanes operated under Instrument Flight Rules must be equipped with a means of—

(a) measuring and displaying the—

(i) magnetic heading;

(ii) time in hours, minutes and seconds;

(iii) pressure altitude;

(iv) indicated airspeed;

(v) vertical speed;

(vi) slip;

(vii) attitude;

(viii) stabilised heading; and

(ix) outside air temperature;

(b) where gyroscopic instruments are installed, indicating when the supply of power to those instruments is not adequate;

(c) preventing malfunction of the airspeed indicating system required in paragraph (a)(iv) due to condensation or icing; and

(d) as a standby instrument, an additional means of measuring and displaying attitude.

Additional equipment for single pilot operations under Instrument Flight Rules – helicopters and gyroplanes U.K.

13.  Helicopters and gyroplanes operated under Instrument Flight Rules with a single pilot must be equipped with an autopilot with at least altitude hold and heading mode.

Terrain awareness warning system U.K.

14.—(1) Turbine-powered aeroplanes certified for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nine must be equipped with a terrain awareness warning system that meets the requirements for—

(a) class A equipment, in the case of aeroplanes for which the individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued after 1st January 2011; or

(b) class B equipment, in the case of aeroplanes for which the individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or before 1st January 2011.

(2) In this paragraph—

“class A equipment” means equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including excessive closure rate to terrain, flight into terrain when not in landing configuration, excessive downward deviation from an instrument landing system glideslope, a predictive terrain hazard warning function and a visual display; and

“class B equipment” means equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including a predictive terrain hazard warning function.

Radio communication equipment U.K.

15.—(1) Where required by the notified airspace being flown aircraft must be equipped with radio communication equipment capable of conducting two-way communication with those aeronautical stations and on those frequencies to meet airspace requirements.

(2) The radio communication equipment mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) must provide for communication on the aeronautical emergency frequency 121.5MHz.

(3) When more than one communication equipment unit is required, each must be independent of the others to the extent that a failure in any one will not result in failure of any other.

Navigation equipment U.K.

16.—(1) Aircraft operated over routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks must be equipped with any navigation equipment necessary to enable them to proceed in accordance with—

(a) the air traffic service flight plan, if applicable; and

(b) the applicable notified airspace requirements.

(2) Aircraft must have sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment will allow safe navigation in accordance with sub-paragraph (1), or an appropriate contingency action, to be completed safely.

(3) Aircraft operated on flights in which it is intended to land in instrument meteorological conditions must be equipped with suitable equipment capable of providing—

(a) guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be performed; and

(b) such guidance for each aerodrome at which it is intended to land in instrument meteorological conditions and for any designated destination alternate aerodromes.

Transponder U.K.

17.—(1) Where required by the notified airspace being flown, aircraft must be equipped with a secondary surveillance radar transponder.

(2) In sub-paragraph (1), “secondary surveillance radar transponder” means such type of radio equipment as may be notified as being capable of—

(a) replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface; and

(b) being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the appropriate air traffic control unit.

Airborne collision avoidance system II U.K.

18.  Aeroplanes powered by one or more turbine jets or turbine propeller engines and having either—

(a) a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg; or

(b) a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19,

must be equipped with ACAS II in accordance with the Airborne Collision Avoidance Regulation.

[F77 Maps and charts U.K.

19.   Maps, charts, codes and other documents necessary for the intended flight of the aircraft, including any diversion which may reasonably be expected from the aerodrome of intended landing, must be carried on the aircraft.]

Textual Amendments

F77 Sch. 5 para. 19 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 43(c)

Articles 44(5) and 119(2)

SCHEDULE 6 U.K. EQUIPMENT OF [F78 NON-PART-21] AIRCRAFT ON PUBLIC TRANSPORT OPERATIONS AND MARKING OF BREAK-IN AREAS

Textual Amendments

F78 Word in Sch. 6 heading substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 81(2) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

PART 1 U.K. General equipment

Equipment which must be carried U.K.

1.—(1) Every aircraft of a description specified in the first column of the Table in paragraph 4 which must carry equipment specified in this Part must be provided, if flying in the circumstances specified in the second column of the Table, with adequate equipment.

(2) For the purpose of this paragraph, the expression “adequate equipment” means, subject to sub-paragraphs (3) and (4), the scales of equipment respectively indicated in the third column of that Table.

(3) If the aircraft is flying in a combination of such circumstances, the scales of equipment are not on that account required to be duplicated.

(4) Equipment carried in an aircraft that is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft is to be taken into account in determining whether this Schedule is complied with for that aircraft.

Calculation of flying time U.K.

2.  For the purposes of the Table in paragraph 4, flying time in relation to a helicopter or gyroplane is to be calculated on the assumption that it is flying in still air at the speed specified in the relevant flight manual as the speed for compliance with regulations governing flights over water.

Equipment not requiring type approval U.K.

3.  The following items of equipment are not required to be of a type approved by F79 ... the CAA—

(a) the equipment referred to in Scale A(2);

(b) first aid equipment and handbook, referred to in Scale A(3);

(c) time-pieces, referred to in Scale F;

(d) torches, referred to in Scales G and K;

(e) whistles and survivor locator lights, referred to in Scale H;

(f) sea anchors, referred to in Scales J and K;

(g) rocket signals, referred to in Scale J;

(h) equipment for mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring aircraft on the water, referred to in Scale J;

(i) paddles, referred to in Scale K;

(j) food and water, referred to in Scales K, U and V;

(k) first aid equipment, referred to in Scales K, U and V;

(l) stoves, cooking utensils, snow shovels, ice saws, sleeping bags and Arctic suits, referred to in Scale V;

(m) megaphones, referred to in Scale Y.

Textual Amendments

F79 Words in Sch. 6 para. 3 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 81(3) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Table of required equipment U.K.

4.  The Table is as follows—

Description of Aircraft	Circumstances of Flight	Scale of Equipment Required
(1) Aeroplanes	(a) flying for the purpose of public transport and—	A, B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7), D and F(1)
	(i) flying under Instrument Flight Rules except flights outside controlled airspace in the case of aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of not more than 1,150kg	E with E(4) duplicated and F
	(ii) flying by night—
	(aa) in the case of aeroplanes which have a maximum take-off mass not exceeding 1,150kg	C and G
	(bb) in the case of aeroplanes which have a maximum take-off mass exceeding 1,150kg	C and G, E with E(4) duplicated and F
	(iii) flying over water beyond gliding distance from land	H
	(iv) on all flights on which in the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or during the landing at the intended destination or any likely alternate destination it is reasonably possible that the aeroplane would be forced to land onto water	H
	(v) flying over water—
	(aa) in the case of aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit becoming inoperative, at a greater distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing than that corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles, whichever is the lesser or	H and K
	(bb) in the case of all other aeroplanes, at a greater distance from land suitable for making an emergency landing than that corresponding to 30 minutes at cruising speed or 100 nautical miles, whichever is the lesser	H and K
	(vi) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 2002	KK(1) or (2)
	(vii) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 2002	KK(2)
	(viii) on all flights which involve manoeuvres on water	H, J and K
	(ix) flying at a height of 10,000 feet or more above mean sea level—
	(aa) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 1989	L1 or L2
	(bb) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1989	L2
	(x) on flights when the weather reports or forecasts available at the aerodrome at the time of departure indicate that conditions favouring ice formation are likely to be met	M
	(xi) carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres	B(8) and (9)
	(xii) on all flights on which the aircraft carries a flight crew of more than one person	N
	(xiii) on all flights for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Q and Y(1), (2) and (3)
	(xiv) on all flights by a pressurised aircraft	R
	(xv) flying over substantially uninhabited land areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, tropical conditions are likely to be met	U
	(xvi) flying over substantially uninhabited land or other areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, polar conditions are likely to be met	V
	(xvii) flying at an altitude of more than 49,000 feet	W
(2) Turbine-jet aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg or pressurised aircraft having a maximum take-off mass of more than 11,400kg	flying for the purpose of public transport	O
(3) Turbine-engined aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg and piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 27,000kg except for such aeroplanes falling within paragraphs (4) or (5) which are—
(a) operated by an the holder of a national air operator's certificate; F80 ... or	flying on any public transport flight	P
(b) public transport aeroplanes for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under [F81 a Part-21] permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part 2 of Schedule 3	flying on any public transport flight	P
(4) Public transport aeroplanes for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport aeroplanes for which an application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under [F81 a Part-21] permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part 2 of Schedule 3 except for such aeroplanes falling within paragraph (5) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate—
(a) (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg but of not more than 11,400kg; or	flying on any public transport flight	S(1)
(b) (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 11,400kg but not more than 27,000kg; or	flying on any public transport flight	S(2)
(c) (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 27,000kg but not more than 230,000kg; or	flying on any public transport flight	S(3)
(d) in the United Kingdom on or after 1st January 1970 and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 230,000kg	flying on any public transport flight	S(3)
(5) Public transport aeroplanes for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport aeroplanes for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under [F81 a Part-21] permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part 2 of Schedule 3 for which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st June 1990 and which have a maximum take-off mass of—
(a) not more than 5,700kg, are powered by two or more turbine engines and with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9; or	flying on any public transport flight	S(4)
(b) more than 5,700kg but not more than 27,000kg; or	flying on any public transport flight	S(5)
(c) more than 27,000kg	flying on any public transport flight	S(6)
(6) Public transport aeroplanes—
(a) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st April 1971 and having a maximum take-off mass of more than 27,000kg; or	flying on any public transport flight	T
(b) which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate in the United Kingdom on or after 1st January 1970 and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 230,000kg and for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness; or	flying on any public transport flight	T
(c) having a maximum take-off mass of more than 27,000kg which conform to a type first issued with a type certificate on or after 1st April 1971 (or 1st January 1970 in the case of an aeroplane having a maximum take-off mass of more than 230,000kg) for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under [F81 a Part-21] permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part 2 of Schedule 3	flying on any public transport flight	T
(7) Aeroplanes powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more turbine propeller engines and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 15,000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 30	flying for the purpose of public transport	X(1)
(8) Aeroplanes which are powered by one or more turbine jets or one or more turbine propeller engines and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg but not more than 15,000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 but not more than 30	flying for the purpose of public transport except when flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate	X(1)
(9) Aeroplanes—
(a) powered by one or more turbo-jets and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 22,700kg; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1) and (2)
(b) having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any aeroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to an aeroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1) and (2)
(c) with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1)
(d) having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any aeroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to an aeroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(3)
(e) powered by one or more turbo-jets and which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 22,700kg; or	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(3)
(f) first issued with a type certificate (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1958 and with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(3)
(10) Aeroplanes—
(a) powered by one or more turbine jets	flying for the purpose of the public transport	AA
(b) powered by one or more turbine propeller engines and having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg and first issued with a certificate of airworthiness in the United Kingdom on or after 1st April 1989	flying for the purpose of the public transport	AA
(11) Public transport aeroplanes	flying for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Y(4)
(12) Helicopters and Gyroplanes	flying for the purpose of public transport and—	A, B(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) and F(1) and F(4)
	(i) flying by day under Visual Flight Rules—
	(aa) with the surface in sight	D
	(bb) when the surface is not in sight	E
	(ii) flying by day under Instrument Flight Rules—
	(aa) with the surface in sight	E
	(bb) when the surface is not in sight	E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated, F(2), (3) and (5)
	(iii) flying by night with the surface in sight—
	(aa) in circumstances where one pilot is required	C, E with E(2) duplicated and either E(4) duplicated or a radio altimeter, F(2), (3), (5) and G
	(bb) in circumstances where two pilots are required	C, E, F(2), (3), and (5) and G for each pilot's station
	(iv) flying by night when the surface is not in sight	C, E with both E(2) and E(4) duplicated, F(2), (3), (5) and G
	(v) flying over water—
	(aa) in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 2 or 3 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 or B when beyond auto-rotational gliding distance from land suitable for an emergency landing	E and H
	(bb) on all flights on which in the event of any emergency occurring during the take-off or during the landing at the intended destination or any likely alternate destination it is reasonably possible that the helicopter or gyroplane would be forced to land onto water	H
	(cc) in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 operations or Performance Class 2 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 when beyond 10 minutes flying time from land	E, H, K and T
	(dd) for more than a total of three minutes in any flight	EE
	(ee) in the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 operations or Performance Class 2 operations or a gyroplane classified in its certificate of airworthiness as being of performance group A2 which is intended to fly beyond 10 minutes flying time from land or which actually flies beyond 10 minutes flying time from land, on a flight which is either in support of or in connection with the offshore exploitation or exploration of mineral resources (including gas) or is on a flight under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate, when in either case the weather reports or forecasts available to the pilot in command of the aircraft indicate that the sea temperature will be less than plus 10ºC during the flight or when any part of the flight is at night	I
	(vi) flying on Performance Class 1 operations or Performance Class 2 operations over water beyond 10 minutes flying time from land and not required to comply with sub-paragraph (ix)	KK(2)
	(vii) flying on Performance Class 3 operations beyond auto-rotational or safe forced landing distance from land	KK(2)
	(viii) flying over land areas which have been designated by the State concerned as areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult	KK(2)
	(ix) flying on Performance Class 1 operations or Performance Class 2 operations over water in a hostile environment at a distance from land corresponding to more than ten minutes flying time at normal cruising speed in support of or in connection with the offshore exploitation or exploration of mineral resources (including gas)	KK(3)
	(x) on all flights which involve manoeuvres on water	H, J and K
	(xi) flying at a height of 10,000 feet or more above mean sea level—
	(aa) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) before 1st January 1989	L1 or L2
	(bb) having a certificate of airworthiness first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st January 1989	L2
	(xii) on flights when the weather reports or forecasts available at the aerodrome at the time of departure indicate that conditions favouring ice formation are likely to be met	M
	(xiii) on all flights on which the aircraft carries a flight crew of more than one person	N
	(xiv) on all flights for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Y(1), (2) and (3)
	(xv) flying over substantially uninhabited land areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, tropical conditions are likely to be met	U
	(xvi) flying over substantially uninhabited land or other areas where, in the event of an emergency landing, polar conditions are likely to be met	V
	(xvii) with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than nine and operating in a hostile environment	SS(8)
(13) Helicopters and Gyroplanes—
(a) having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg and which conform to a type for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) after 30th April 1972 but not including any helicopter or gyroplane which in the opinion of the CAA is identical in all matters affecting the provision of emergency evacuation facilities to a helicopter or gyroplane for which a certificate of airworthiness was first applied for before that date; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1) and (2)
(b) with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; or	flying by night for the purpose of the public transport of passengers	Z(1)
(c) which are public transport helicopters or gyroplanes for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness and public transport helicopters or gyroplanes for which application has been made and not withdrawn or refused for a certificate of airworthiness, and which fly under [F81 a Part-21] permit to fly, the A Conditions or under a certificate of airworthiness in the Special Category described in Part 2 of Schedule 3; and—
(i) which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 2,730kg but not more than 7,000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 or both	flying on any public transport flight	SS(1) or SS(3)
(ii) which have a maximum take-off mass of more than 7,000kg	flying on any public transport flight	SS(2) or SS(3)

Textual Amendments

F80 Words in Sch. 6 para. 4 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 81(4)(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F81 Words in Sch. 6 para. 4 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 81(4)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Scales of equipment U.K.

5.  The scales of equipment indicated in the Table at paragraph 4 are as follows—

Scale A

(1) Spare fuses for all electrical circuits the fuses of which can be replaced in flight, consisting of 10% of the number of each rating or three of each rating, whichever is the greater.

(2) Maps, charts, codes and other documents and navigational equipment necessary, in addition to any other equipment required under this Order, for the intended flight of the aircraft including any diversion which may reasonably be expected.

(3) First aid equipment of good quality, sufficient in quantity, having regard to the number of persons on board the aircraft, and including the following—

(a) roller bandages;

(b) triangular bandages;

(c) adhesive plaster;

(d) absorbent gauze or wound dressings;

(e) cotton wool or wound dressings;

(f) burn dressings;

(g) safety pins;

(h) haemostatic bandages or tourniquets;

(i) scissors;

(j) antiseptic;

(k) analgesic and stimulant drugs;

(l) splints, in the case of aeroplanes the maximum take-off mass of which exceeds 5,700kg; and

(m) a handbook on first aid.

(4) In the case of a flying machine used for the public transport of passengers in which, while the flying machine is at rest on the ground, the sill of any external door intended for the disembarkation of passengers, whether normally or in an emergency—

(a) is more than 1.82 metres from the ground when the undercarriage of the machine is in the normal position for taxiing; or

(b) would be more than 1.82 metres from the ground if the whole or any part of the undercarriage should collapse, break or fail to function,

apparatus readily available for use at each such door consisting of a device or devices which will enable passengers to reach the ground safely in an emergency while the flying machine is on the ground, and can be readily fixed in position for use.

(5) A hand fire extinguisher for each enclosed passenger and crew compartment, so installed that at least one extinguisher is conveniently located for use by a member of the flight crew.

Scale AA

(1) Subject to paragraph (2), an altitude alerting system capable of alerting the pilot on approaching a preselected altitude in either ascent or descent, by a sequence of visual and aural signals in sufficient time to establish level flight at that preselected altitude and when deviating above or below that preselected altitude, by a visual and an aural signal.

(2) If the system becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may fly or continue to fly, until it first lands at a place at which it is reasonably practicable for the system to be repaired or replaced.

Scale B

(1) If the maximum take-off mass of the aircraft is 2,730kg or less, for every pilot's seat and for any seat situated alongside a pilot's seat, either a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness, or with the permission of the CAA, a safety belt without a diagonal shoulder strap for which permission may be granted if the CAA is satisfied that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness.

(2) If the maximum take-off mass of the aircraft exceeds 2,730kg, either a safety harness for every pilot's seat and for any seat situated alongside a pilot's seat, or with the permission of the CAA, a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap which permission may be granted if the CAA is satisfied that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety harness.

(3) For every seat in use (not being a seat referred to in paragraphs (1), (2), (5) and (6)) a safety belt with or without one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness.

(4) In addition, and to be attached to or secured by the equipment required in paragraph (3) or (6), a child restraint device for every child under the age of two years on board.

(5) On all flights for the public transport of passengers by aircraft, for each seat for use by cabin crew who are required to be carried under this Order, a safety harness.

(6) On all flights in aeroplanes for which a certificate of airworthiness was first issued (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) on or after 1st February 1989, the maximum take-off mass of which is not more than 5,700kg and with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 9 or less, (otherwise than for seats referred to under paragraph (1) or (2)), a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap or a safety harness for each seat intended for use by a passenger.

(7) If the pilot in command cannot, from the pilot in command's own seat, see all the passenger seats in the aircraft, a means of indicating to the passengers that seat belts should be fastened.

(8) Subject to paragraph (9), a safety harness for every seat in use.

(9) In the case of an aircraft carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres consisting only of erect spinning, the CAA may permit a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap to be fitted if it is satisfied that such restraint is sufficient for the carrying out of erect spinning in that aircraft and that it is not reasonably practicable to fit a safety harness in that aircraft.

Scale C

(1) Equipment for displaying the lights required by provision 3215 of SERA.

(2) Electrical equipment, supplied from the main source of supply in the aircraft, to provide sufficient illumination to enable the flight crew properly to carry out their duties during flight.

(3) Unless the aircraft is equipped with radio, devices for making the visual signal specified in paragraphs 1, 2 and 3 of the Appendix to SERA as indicating a request for permission to land.

Scale D

(1) In the case of a helicopter or gyroplane, a slip indicator.

(2) In the case of any other flying machine either—

(a) a turn indicator and a slip indicator; or

(b) a gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator and a gyroscopic direction indicator.

(3) A sensitive pressure altimeter adjustable for any sea level barometric pressure which the weather report or forecasts available to the pilot in command of the aircraft indicate is likely to be encountered during the intended flight.

Scale E

(1) In the case of—

(a) a helicopter or gyroplane, a slip indicator;

(b) any other flying machine, a slip indicator and either a turn indicator or, at the option of the operator, an additional gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator.

(2) A gyroscopic bank and pitch indicator.

(3) A gyroscopic direction indicator.

(4) A sensitive pressure altimeter adjustable for any sea level barometric pressure which the weather report or forecasts available to the pilot in command of the aircraft indicate is likely to be encountered during the intended flight.

Scale EE

(1) Subject to paragraph (2), a radio altimeter with an audio voice warning operating below a pre-set height and a visual warning capable of operating at a height selectable by the pilot.

(2) A helicopter flying under and in accordance with the terms of a police air operator's certificate may instead be equipped with a radio altimeter with an audio warning and a visual warning each capable of operating at a height selectable by the pilot.

Scale F

(1) A timepiece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds.

(2) A means of indicating whether the power supply to the gyroscopic instrument is adequate.

(3) A rate of climb and descent indicator.

(4) A means of indicating in the flight crew compartment the outside air temperature calibrated in degrees Celsius.

(5) If the maximum take-off mass of the aircraft exceeds 5,700kg, two air speed indicators.

Scale G

(1) In the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter or gyroplane, landing lights consisting of two single filament lamps, or one dual filament lamp with separately energised filaments.

(2) An electrical lighting system to provide illumination in every passenger compartment.

(3) Either—

(a) one electric torch for each member of the crew of the aircraft; or

(b) one electric torch—

(i) for each member of the flight crew of the aircraft; and

(ii) affixed adjacent to each floor level exit intended for the disembarkation of passengers whether normally or in an emergency, provided that such torches must—

(aa) be readily accessible for use by the crew of the aircraft at all times; and

(bb) number in total not less than the minimum number of members of the cabin crew required to be carried with a full passenger complement.

(4) In the case of an aircraft other than a helicopter or gyroplane which has a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5,700kg, means of observing the existence and build-up of ice on the aircraft.

(5) In the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 1 operations or Performance Class 2 operations or a gyroplane for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness designating the gyroplane as being of performance group A, either—

(a) two landing lights both of which are adjustable so as to illuminate the ground in front of and below the helicopter or gyroplane and one of which is adjustable so as to illuminate the ground on either side of the helicopter or gyroplane; or

(b) one landing light or, if the maximum take-off mass of the helicopter or gyroplane exceeds 5,700kg, one dual filament landing light with separately energised filaments, or two single filament lights, each of which is adjustable so as to illuminate the ground in front of and below the helicopter or gyroplane, and two parachute flares.

(6) In the case of a helicopter carrying out Performance Class 3 operations or a gyroplane for which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness designating the gyroplane as being of performance group B—

(a) one landing light and two parachute flares;

(b) if the maximum take-off mass of the helicopter or gyroplane exceeds 5,700kg, either one dual filament landing light with separately energised filaments or two single filament landing lights, and two parachute flares; or

(c) if the maximum take-off mass of the helicopter or gyroplane is 5,700kg or less and the flight is for a purpose other than public transport—

(i) two landing lights, one of which is adjustable in flight so as to illuminate the ground in front of, below and on either side of the helicopter; or

(ii) two landing lights in addition to the helicopter standard equipment, which must be adjusted so as to illuminate the ground in front of the helicopter.

Scale GG

(1) A landing light.

Scale H

(1) Subject to paragraph (2), for each person on board, a lifejacket equipped with a whistle and survivor locator light.

(2) Lifejackets constructed and carried solely for use by children under three years of age need not be equipped with a whistle.

Scale I

(1) A survival suit for each member of the crew.

Scale J

(1) Additional flotation equipment, capable of supporting one-fifth of the number of persons on board, and provided in a place of stowage accessible from outside the flying machine.

(2) Parachute distress rocket signals capable of making, from the surface of the water, the pyrotechnical signal of distress specified in paragraphs 1, 2 and 3 of the Appendix to SERA and complying with paragraph 3.1 of the International Life-Saving Appliance (LSA) Code contained in International Maritime Organisation Resolution MSC.48(66), as amended M21 .

(3) A sea anchor and other equipment necessary to facilitate mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring the flying machine on water, appropriate to its size, weight and handling characteristics.

Scale K

(1) In the case of—

(a) a flying machine, other than a helicopter or gyroplane carrying 20 or more persons, liferafts sufficient to accommodate all persons on board;

(b) a helicopter or gyroplane carrying 20 or more persons, a minimum of two liferafts sufficient together to accommodate all persons on board.

(2) Each liferaft must contain the following equipment—

(a) means of maintaining buoyancy;

(b) a sea anchor;

(c) life-lines, and means of attaching one liferaft to another;

(d) paddles or other means of propulsion;

(e) means of protecting the occupants from the elements;

(f) a waterproof torch;

(g) marine type pyrotechnical distress signals;

(h) means of making sea water drinkable, unless the full quantity of fresh water is carried as specified in sub-paragraph (i);

(i) for each four or proportion of four persons the liferaft is designed to carry, 100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets and—

(i) ½ litre of fresh water in durable containers; or

(ii) in any case in which it is not reasonably practicable to carry ½ litre of fresh water, as large a quantity of fresh water in durable containers as is reasonably practicable in the circumstances,

provided that in no case must the quantity of water carried be less than is sufficient, when added to the amount of fresh water capable of being produced by means of the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (h) to provide ½ litre of water for each four or proportion of four persons the liferaft is designed to carry; and

(j) first aid equipment.

(3) Items (2)(f) to (j) inclusive must be contained in a pack.

(4) The number of survival beacon radio apparatus carried when the aircraft is carrying the number of liferafts specified in Column 1 of the following Table must be not less than the number specified in, or calculated in accordance with, Column 2.

Column 1	Column 2
Not more than 8 liferafts	2 survival beacon radio apparatus
For every additional 4 or proportion of 4 liferafts	1 additional survival beacon radio apparatus

Scale KK

(1) A survival emergency locator transmitter which complies with paragraph (4).

(2) An automatic emergency locator transmitter which complies with paragraph (4).

(3) An automatically deployable emergency locator transmitter which complies with paragraph (4).

(4) The transmitter must be capable of operating in accordance with the relevant provisions of Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention, Volume III (Second Edition July 2007) and transmitting on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz.

Scale L1 Part 1

(1) In every flying machine which is provided with means for maintaining a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals throughout the flight in the flight crew compartment and in the compartments in which the passengers are carried—

(a) in the event of a failure to maintain such pressure occurring in the circumstances specified in columns 1 and 2 of the Table set out in Part 2, a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use during the periods specified in column 3 of the Table, by the persons for whom oxygen is to be provided in accordance with column 4 of the Table; and

(b) in every case where the flying machine flies above flight level 350, a supply of oxygen in a portable container sufficient for the simultaneous first aid treatment of two passengers,

together with suitable and sufficient apparatus to enable such persons to use the oxygen.

(2) In any other flying machine—

(a) a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use by all the crew other than the flight crew and, if passengers are carried, by 10% of the number of passengers, for any period of more than 30 minutes during which the flying machine flies above flight level 100 but not above flight level 130; and the flight crew must be supplied with oxygen sufficient for continuous use for any period during which the flying machine flies above flight level 100; and

(b) a supply of oxygen sufficient for continuous use by all persons on board for the whole time during which the flying machine flies above flight level 130,

together with suitable and sufficient apparatus to enable such persons to use the oxygen.

(3) The quantity of oxygen required for the purpose of complying with paragraphs (1) and (2) of this Part is to be computed in accordance with the information and instructions specified in the operations manual relating to the aircraft under paragraph 1(h) of Part 1 of Schedule 9.

Scale L1 Part 2

1 The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain a pressure greater than 700 hectopascals in the control compartment and in the compartments in which passengers are carried has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 100.
2 The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain such pressure has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 150.
3 The whole period during which, after a failure to maintain such pressure has occurred, the flying machine flies above flight level 100, but not above flight level 150.
4 The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain such pressure occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual, to flight level 150 within six minutes, and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.
5 The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain such pressure occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual, to flight level 150 within four minutes, and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.
Column1Vertical displacement of the flying machine in relation to flight levels	Column 2Capability of flying machine to descend (where relevant)	Column 3Period of supply of oxygen	Column 4Persons for whom oxygen is to be provided
Above flight level 100		30 minutes or the period specified in note 1 to the table, whichever is the greater	In addition to any passengers for whom oxygen is provided as specified below, all the crew
Above flight level 100 but not above flight level 300	Flying machine is either flying at or below flight level 150 or is capable of descending and continuing to destination as specified in note 4 to the table	30 minutes or the period specified in note 1 to the table, whichever is the greater	10% of number of passengers
Above flight level 100 but not above flight level 300	Flying machine is flying above flight level 150 and is not capable of descending and continuing to destination specified in note 4 to the table	10 minutes or the period specified in note 2 to the table, whichever is the greater—	All passengers
		and 30 minutes or the period specified in note 3 to the table, whichever is the greater	10% of number of passengers
Above flight level 300 but not above flight level 350	Flying machine is capable of descending and continuing to destination as specified in note 5 to the table	30 minutes or the period specified in note 1 to the table, whichever is the greater	15% of number of passengers
Above flight level 300 but not above flight level 350	Flying machine is not capable of descending and continuing to destination as specified in note 5 to the table	10 minutes or the period specified in note 2 to the table, whichever is the greater—	All passengers
		and 30 minutes or the period specified in note 3 to the table, whichever is the greater	15% of passengers
Above flight level 350		10 minutes or the period specified in note 2 to the table, whichever is the greater—	All passengers
		and 30 minutes or the period specified in note 3 to the table, whichever is the greater	15% of number of passengers

Scale L2

(1) A supply of oxygen and the associated equipment to meet the requirements set out in Part 1 of this Scale in the case of unpressurised aircraft and Part 2 of this Scale in the case of pressurised aircraft.

(2) The duration for the purposes of this Scale is whichever is the greater of—

(a) that calculated in accordance with the operations manual before the commencement of the flight, being the period or periods which it is reasonably anticipated that the aircraft will be flown in the circumstances of the intended flight at a height where the said requirements apply, and in calculating the duration, account must be taken of—

(i) in the case of pressurised aircraft, the possibility of depressurisation when flying above flight level 100;

(ii) the possibility of failure of one or more of the aircraft engines;

(iii) restrictions due to required minimum safe altitude;

(iv) fuel requirement; and

(v) the performance of the aircraft; or

(b) the period or periods during which the aircraft is actually flown in the circumstances specified in those Parts.

Part 1 Unpressurised aircraft

(3) When flying at or below flight level 100, nil.

(4) When flying above flight level 100 but not above flight level 120—

Supply for	Duration
(a) Members of the flight crew	Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 100
(b) Members of the cabin crew and 10% of passengers	For any continuous period of more than 30 minutes during which the aircraft flies above flight level 100 but not above flight level 120, the duration is the period by which 30 minutes is exceeded

(5) When flying above flight level 120—

Supply for	Duration
(a) Members of the flight crew	Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 120
(b) Members of the cabin crew and all passengers	Any period during which the aircraft flies above flight level 120

Part 2 Pressurised aircraft

(6) When flying at or below flight level 100, nil.

(7) When flying above flight level 100 but not above flight level 250—

1 The flying machine is capable, at the time when a failure to maintain cabin pressurisation occurs, of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual relating to the aircraft, to flight level 120 within five minutes and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.
Supply for	Duration
(a) Members of the flight crew	30 minutes or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet, whichever is the greater
(b) Members of the cabin crew and 10% of passengers	(i) When the aircraft is capable of descending and continuing to its destination as specified in note 1 to the table, 30 minutes or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet, whichever is the greater
	(ii) When the aircraft is not so capable, whenever the cabin pressure altitude is greater than 10,000 feet but is not more than 12,000 feet
(c) Members of the cabin crew and all passengers	(i) When the aircraft is capable of descending and continuing to its destination as specified at A below, no requirement other than that at (2)(b)(i) of this Part of this Scale
	(ii) When the aircraft is not so capable and the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 feet, the duration is the period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 feet or 10 minutes, whichever is the greater

(8) When flying above flight level 250—

Supply for	Duration
(a) Members of the flight crew	2 hours or whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet, whichever is the greater
(b) Members of the cabin crew	Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet, and a portable supply for 15 minutes
(c) 10% of passengers	Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 feet but is not more than 12,000 feet
(d) 30% of passengers	Whenever the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 12,000 feet but is not more than 15,000 feet
(e) All passengers	If the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 feet, the duration is the period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 feet or 10 minutes, whichever is the greater
(e) 2% of passengers or two passengers, whichever is the greater, being a supply of first aid oxygen which must be available for simultaneous first aid treatment of 2% or two passengers wherever they are seated in the aircraft	Whenever, after decompression, the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 8,000 feet

Scale M

(1) Equipment to prevent the impairment through ice formation of the functioning of the controls, means of propulsion, lifting surfaces, windows or equipment of the aircraft so as to endanger the safety of the aircraft.

Scale N

(1) An intercommunication system for use by all members of the flight crew and including microphones, not of a hand-held type, for use by the pilot and flight engineer (if any).

Scale O

(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), a radar set capable of giving warning to the pilot in command of the aircraft and to the co-pilot of the presence of cumulo-nimbus clouds and other potentially hazardous weather conditions.

(2) A flight may commence if the set is unserviceable or continue if the set becomes unserviceable in flight so as to give the warning only to one pilot, if the aircraft is flying only to the place at which it first becomes reasonably practicable for the set to be repaired.

(3) A flight may commence if the set is unserviceable or continue if the set becomes unserviceable in flight if—

(a) the weather report or forecasts available to the pilot in command of the aircraft indicate that cumulo-nimbus clouds or other potentially hazardous weather conditions, which can be detected by the set when in working order, are unlikely to be encountered on the intended route or any planned diversion from the route; or

(b) the pilot in command is satisfied that any such weather conditions will be encountered in daylight and can be seen and avoided; and

(c) the aircraft is operated throughout the flight in accordance with any relevant instructions given in the operations manual.

Scale P

(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (5), a flight data recorder which is capable of recording, by reference to a time-scale, the following data—

(a) indicated airspeed;

(b) indicated altitude;

(c) vertical acceleration;

(d) magnetic heading;

(e) pitch attitude, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded;

(f) engine power, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded;

(g) flap position; and

(h) roll attitude, if the equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this item to be recorded.

(2) Subject to paragraph (5), any aeroplane having a maximum take-off mass of not more than 11,400kg may be provided with—

(a) a flight data recorder capable of recording the data specified in paragraph (1); or

(b) a four channel cockpit voice recorder.

(3) Subject to paragraph (5), in addition, on all flights by turbine-powered aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 11,400kg, a four channel cockpit voice recorder.

(4) The flight data recorder and cockpit voice recorder referred to above must be so constructed that the record would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident to the aeroplane.

(5) An aeroplane is not required to carry the equipment specified in paragraphs (1), (2) and (3) if, before take off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.

Scale R

(1) For aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg—

(a) equipment sufficient to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all members of the flight crew required to be carried by Section 1 of Chapter 2, and Section 2 of Chapter 7, of Part 5 for a period of not less than 15 minutes; and

(b) if under Section 1 of Chapter 2, and Section 2 of Chapter 7, of Part 5 the minimum flight crew required to be carried is more than one and a member of the cabin crew is not required to be carried, portable equipment sufficient to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of one member of the flight crew for a period of not less than 15 minutes.

(2) For aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of not more than 5,700kg—

(a) either the equipment specified in paragraph (1); or

(b) in the case of such aeroplanes which are restricted by virtue of the operator's operations manual to flight at or below flight level 250 and are capable of descending as specified at paragraph (5), such equipment sufficient to protect the eyes only.

(3) For—

(a) aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700kg, portable equipment to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all members of the cabin crew required to be carried by Section 1 of Chapter 2, and Section 2 of Chapter 7, of Part 5 for a period of not less than 15 minutes;

(b) aeroplanes having a maximum take-off mass of not more than 5,700kg, subject to paragraph (4), the equipment specified in sub-paragraph (3)(a).

(4) Sub-paragraph (3)(b) does not apply to such aeroplanes which are restricted by virtue of the operator's operations manual to flight at or below flight level 250 and are capable of descending as specified at paragraph (5).

(5) The aeroplane is capable of descending in accordance with the emergency descent procedure specified in the relevant flight manual and without flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight specified in the operations manual relating to the aeroplane, to flight level 100 within four minutes and of continuing at or below that flight level to its place of intended destination or any other place at which a safe landing can be made.

Scale S

(1) Subject to paragraph (8), either a four channel cockpit voice recorder or a flight data recorder which complies with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—

(a) the flight path;

(b) attitude; and

(c) the basic lift, thrust and drag forces acting on it.

(2) Subject to paragraph (8), a four channel cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—

(a) the information specified in paragraph (1); and

(b) use of VHF transmitters.

(3) Subject to paragraph (8), a four channel cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—

(a) the flight path;

(b) attitude;

(c) the basic lift, thrust and drag forces acting on it;

(d) the selection of high lift devices (if any) and airbrakes (if any);

(e) the position of primary flying control and pitch trim surfaces;

(f) outside air temperature;

(g) instrument landing deviations;

(h) use of automatic flight control systems;

(i) use of VHF transmitters;

(j) radio altitude (if any); and

(k) the level or availability of essential AC electricity supply and cockpit warnings relating to engine fire and engine shut-down, cabin pressurisation, presence of smoke and hydraulic/pneumatic power supply.

(4) Subject to paragraph (8), either a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder or a combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable in either case of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—

(a) the flight path;

(b) speed;

(c) attitude;

(d) engine power;

(e) outside air temperature;

(f) configuration of lift and drag devices;

(g) use of VHF transmitters; and

(h) use of automatic flight control systems.

(5) Subject to paragraph (8), a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—

(a) the flight path;

(b) speed;

(c) attitude;

(d) engine power;

(e) outside air temperature;

(f) configuration of lift and drag devices;

(g) use of VHF transmitters; and

(h) use of automatic flight control systems.

(6) Subject to paragraph (8), a cockpit voice recorder and a flight data recorder which comply with paragraph (7) and capable of recording by reference to a time scale the data required to determine the following matters accurately in respect of the aeroplane—

(a) the flight path;

(b) speed;

(c) attitude;

(d) engine power;

(e) outside air temperature;

(f) instrument landing system deviations;

(g) marker beacon passage;

(h) radio altitude;

(i) configuration of the landing gear and lift and drag devices;

(j) position of primary flying controls;

(k) pitch trim position;

(l) use of automatic flight control systems;

(m) use of VHF transmitters;

(n) ground speed/drift angle or latitude/longitude if the navigational equipment provided in the aeroplane is of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability;

(o) cockpit warnings relating to ground proximity; and

(p) the master warning system.

(7) Any cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder required to be carried by paragraphs (1) to (6) must be so constructed that the record would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident.

(8) An aircraft is not required to carry the equipment specified in paragraphs (1) to (6) if, before take-off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.

Scale SS

(1) A four channel cockpit voice recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of its operation and a flight data recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last eight hours of its operation being the data required to determine by reference to a time scale the following matters accurately in respect of the helicopter or gyroplane—

(a) flight path;

(b) speed;

(c) attitude;

(d) engine power;

(e) main rotor speed;

(f) outside air temperature;

(g) position of pilot's primary flight controls;

(h) use of VHF transmitters;

(i) use of automatic flight controls (if any);

(j) use of stability augmentation system (if any);

(k) cockpit warnings relating to the master warning system; and

(l) selection of hydraulic system and cockpit warnings of failure of essential hydraulic systems.

(2) A—

(a) four channel cockpit voice recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of its operation; and

(b) flight data recorder capable of recording and retaining the data recorded during at least the last 8 hours of its operation, being the data required to accurately determine by reference to a time scale the information specified in paragraph (1) together with the following matters in respect of the helicopter or gyroplane—

(i) landing gear configuration;

(ii) indicated sling load force if an indicator is provided in the helicopter or gyroplane of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability;

(iii) radio altitude;

(iv) instrument landing system deviations;

(v) marker beacon passage;

(vi) ground speed/drift angle or latitude/longitude if the navigational equipment provided in the helicopter or gyroplane is of such a nature as to enable this information to be recorded with reasonable practicability; and

(vii) main gear box oil temperature and pressure.

(3) Subject to paragraphs (4) and (7), a combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder which meets the following requirements—

(a) in the case of a helicopter or gyroplane which is otherwise required to carry a flight data recorder specified at paragraph (1) the flight data recorder must be capable of recording the data specified in paragraph (1) and retaining it for the duration specified in paragraph (1);

(b) in the case of a helicopter or gyroplane which is otherwise required to carry a flight data recorder specified at paragraph (2) the flight data recorder must be capable of recording the data specified in paragraph (2) and retaining it for the duration specified in paragraph (2); and

(c) the cockpit voice recorder must be capable of recording and retaining at least the last hour of cockpit voice recording information on not less than three separate channels.

(4) In any case when a combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder specified at paragraph (3)(a) is required to be carried by or under this Order, the flight data recorder—

(a) must be capable of retaining—

(i) as protected data the data recorded during at least the last five hours of its operation or the maximum duration of the flight, whichever is the greater; and

(ii) additional data as unprotected data for a period which together with the period for which protected data is required to be retained amounts to a total of eight hours; and

(b) need not be capable of retaining the additional data specified in paragraph (a)(ii) if—

(i) other additional data is retained which relates to the period immediately preceding the period to which the required protected data relates or for such other period or periods as the CAA may permit under article 234(4)(b); and

(ii) the other additional data is retained in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.

(5) With the exception of flight data which it is expressly stated above may be unprotected, the cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder required to be carried on the helicopter or gyroplane must be so constructed and installed that the data recorded (in this Scale referred to as “protected data”) would be likely to be preserved in the event of an accident.

(6) Each cockpit voice recorder, flight data recorder or combined cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder required to be carried on the helicopter or gyroplane must have attached an automatically activated underwater sonar location device or an emergency locator radio transmitter.

(7) A helicopter or gyroplane is not required to carry the equipment specified in paragraphs (1) to (3) if, before take-off, the equipment is found to be unserviceable and the aircraft flies in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.

(8) A vibration health monitoring system capable of monitoring the vibration of critical helicopter rotor and rotor drive system components.

Scale T

(1) An underwater sonar location device except for those helicopters or gyroplanes which are required to carry equipment in accordance with Scale SS.

Scale U

(1) One survival beacon radio apparatus.

(2) Marine type pyrotechnical distress signals.

(3) For each four or proportion of four persons on board, 100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets.

(4) For each four or proportion of four persons on board, ½ litre of fresh water in durable containers.

(5) First aid equipment.

Scale V

(1) One survival beacon radio apparatus.

(2) Marine type pyrotechnical distress signals.

(3) For each four or proportion of four persons on board, 100 grammes of glucose toffee tablets.

(4) For each four or proportion of four persons on board, ½ litre of fresh water in durable containers.

(5) First aid equipment.

(6) For every 75 or proportion of 75 persons on board, 1 stove suitable for use with aircraft fuel.

(7) One cooking utensil, in which snow or ice can be melted.

(8) Two snow shovels.

(9) Two ice saws.

(10) Single or multiple sleeping-bags, sufficient for the use of one-third of all persons on board.

(11) One arctic suit for each member of the crew of the aircraft.

Scale W

(1) Subject to paragraph (2), cosmic radiation detection equipment calibrated in millirems per hour and capable of indicating the action and alert levels of radiation dose rate.

(2) An aircraft is not required to carry the equipment if—

(a) before take-off the equipment is found to be unserviceable and it is not reasonably practicable to repair or replace it at the aerodrome of departure; and

(b) the radiation forecast available to the pilot in command of the aircraft indicates that hazardous radiation conditions are unlikely to be encountered by the aircraft on its intended route or any planned diversion from that route.

Scale X

(1) Subject to paragraph (3), a Terrain Awareness and Warning System known as Class A, being equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including excessive closure rate to terrain, flight into terrain when not in landing configuration, excessive downward deviation from an instrument landing system glideslope, a predictive terrain hazard warning function and a visual display.

(2) Subject to paragraph (3), a Terrain Awareness and Warning System known as Class B, being equipment capable of giving warning to the pilot of the potentially hazardous proximity of ground or water, including a predictive terrain hazard warning function.

(3) If the equipment becomes unserviceable, the aircraft may fly or continue to fly until it first lands at a place at which it is reasonably practicable for the equipment to be repaired or replaced.

Scale Y

(1) If the aircraft may carry more than 19 and less than 100 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness, one portable battery-powered megaphone capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and readily available for use by a member of the crew.

(2) If the aircraft may carry more than 99 and less than 200 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness, two portable battery-powered megaphones together capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and each readily available for use by a member of the crew.

(3) If the aircraft may carry more than 199 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness, three portable battery-powered megaphones together capable of conveying instructions to all persons in the passenger compartment and each readily available for use by a member of the crew.

(4) If the aircraft may carry more than 19 passengers in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness—

(a) a public address system; and

(b) an interphone system of communication between members of the flight crew and the cabin crew.

Scale Z

(1) An emergency lighting system to provide illumination in the passenger compartment sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft notwithstanding the failure of the lighting systems specified in paragraph (2) of Scale G.

(2) An emergency lighting system to provide illumination outside the aircraft sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft.

(3) Subject to paragraph (4), an emergency floor path lighting system in the passenger compartment sufficient to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft notwithstanding the failure of the lighting systems specified in paragraph (2) of Scale G.

(4) If the equipment specified in paragraph (3) becomes unserviceable the aircraft may fly or continue to fly in accordance with arrangements approved by the CAA.

Marginal Citations

M21 Treaty Series No. 44 (1998); Cm 4063.

Marking of break-in areas U.K.

6.—(1) If areas of the aircraft's fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency are marked, such areas must be marked in accordance with the following diagram.

(2) The colour of the markings must be red or yellow and, if necessary, must be outlined in white to contrast with the background.

(3) If the corner markings are more than 2 metres apart, intermediate lines measuring 9 centimetres by 3 centimetres must be inserted so that there is no more than 2 metres between adjacent markings.

PART 2 U.K. Radio communication and radio navigation equipment

1.  Subject to paragraph 2, every aircraft which must carry equipment specified in this Schedule must be provided, when flying in the circumstances specified in the first column of the Table in paragraph 3 of this Schedule, with the scales of equipment respectively indicated in the second column of that Table. U.K.

2.—(1) In the case of sub-paragraphs (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (8)(d) and (9) of the Table in paragraph 3, the specified equipment need not be carried if the appropriate air traffic control unit permits flight to commence without that equipment and the aircraft complies with any instructions which the air traffic control unit may give in the particular case. U.K.

(2) If an aircraft is flying in a combination of circumstances specified in the first column of the Table in paragraph 3 the scales of equipment are not on that account required to be duplicated.

3.  The Table is as follows— U.K.

Aircraft and Circumstances of Flight	Scale of Equipment Required
	A	B	C	D	E	F	G	H	J
(1) All aircraft (other than gliders and SLMGs) within the United Kingdom—
(a) flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace	A				E2	F
(b) flying within controlled airspace	A
(c) making an approach to landing at an aerodrome notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph							G
(d) flying within Class A airspace, Class B airspace or Class C airspace					E2
(2) All aircraft within the United Kingdom—
(a) flying at or above flight level 195	A
(b) flying within airspace notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph	A
(3) All aircraft (other than gliders, SLMGs and balloons) within the United Kingdom flying for the purpose of public transport					E2
(4) All gliders and SLMGs within the United Kingdom—
(a) flying at or above flight level 100 except when flying within airspace notified for the purposes of this sub-paragraph					E2
(b) flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace					E2
(c) flying within Class A airspace, Class B airspace or Class C airspace, except when flying within airspace notified as a Temporary Reserved Area (Gliding)					E2
(d) flying within airspace notified for the purposes of this sub-paragraph					E2
(5) All aircraft (other than gliders and SLMGs) within the United Kingdom—
(a) flying at or above flight level 245					E2	F
(b) flying within airspace notified for the purpose of this sub-paragraph					E2
(c) flying at or above flight level 100					E2
(6) When flying under Instrument Flight Rules within airspace notified for the purposes of this paragraph—
(a) all aeroplanes having a maximum take-off weight authorised of not more than 5,700kg and a maximum cruising true airspeed capability of not more than 250 knots					E2
(b) all rotorcraft					E2
(c) all aeroplanes having either a maximum take-off weight authorised of more than 5,700kg or a maximum cruising true airspeed capability of more than 250 knots					E3
(7) All aircraft required to carry Scale E2 or E3					EE
(9) All aircraft (other than gliders and SLMGs) registered in the United Kingdom, wherever they may be—
(a) flying for the purpose of public transport under Instrument Flight Rules—
(i) while making an approach to landing	A		C	D				H
(ii) on all other occasions	A		C					H
(b) multi-engined aircraft when flying for the purpose of public transport under Visual Flight Rules	A							H
(c) single-engined aircraft when flying for the purpose of public transport under Visual Flight Rules—
(i) over a route on which navigation is effected solely by visual reference to landmarks	A
(ii) on all other occasions	A	B
(d) flying under Instrument Flight Rules and not required to comply with paragraph (9)(a)	A
(9) All aircraft (other than gliders, SLMGs and balloons) registered in the United Kingdom, wherever they may be when flying for the purpose of public transport					E2
(10) All aeroplanes registered in the United Kingdom, wherever they may be, and all aeroplanes wherever registered when flying in the United Kingdom, powered by one or more turbine jets or turbine propeller engines and either having a maximum take-off weight of more than 15,000kg or with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 30									J
(11) All aeroplanes powered by one or more turbine jets or turbine propeller engines and either having a maximum take-off weight of more than 5,700kg or a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19; and which are—
(a) registered in the United Kingdom and flying for the purpose of public transport; or									J
(b) registered in the United Kingdom and flying within the airspace of the member states of the European Civil Aviation Conference; or									J
(c) flying in the United Kingdom									J

4.  The scales of radio communication and radio navigation equipment indicated in the Table at paragraph 3 are as follows— U.K.

Scale A

Radio communication equipment capable of maintaining direct two-way communication with the appropriate air traffic control units on the intended route using the frequencies notified or otherwise designated by the competent authority for that purpose.

Scale B

Radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated on the intended route including such equipment as may be prescribed.

Scale C

Radio communication equipment capable of receiving from the appropriate aeronautical radio stations meteorological broadcasts relevant to the intended flight.

Scale D

Radio navigation equipment capable of receiving signals from one or more aeronautical radio stations on the surface to enable the aircraft to be guided to a point from which a visual landing can be made at the aerodrome at which the aircraft is to land.

Scale E2

Secondary surveillance radar equipment which includes a pressure altitude reporting transponder capable of operating in Mode A and Mode C and has the capability and functionality prescribed for Mode S Elementary Surveillance and is capable of being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the air traffic control unit.

Scale E3

Secondary surveillance radar equipment which includes a pressure altitude reporting transponder capable of operating in Mode A and Mode C and has the capability and functionality prescribed for Mode S Enhanced Surveillance and is capable of being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the air traffic control unit.

Scale EE

The aircraft must, in the circumstances specified in paragraph 2.1.5.3 of Volume IV (Fourth Edition July 2007) of Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention, comply with the requirements for antenna diversity set out in that paragraph.

Scale F

Radio communication and radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated along the intended route including—

(a) automatic direction finding equipment;

(b) distance measuring equipment; and

(c) VHF omni-range equipment.

Scale G

Radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to make an approach to landing using the Instrument Landing System.

Scale H

(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), radio navigation equipment capable of enabling the aircraft to be navigated on the intended route including—

(a) automatic direction finding equipment;

(b) distance measuring equipment;

(c) duplicated VHF omni-range equipment; and

(d) a 75 MHz marker beacon receiver.

(2) An aircraft may fly notwithstanding that it does not carry the equipment specified in this Scale if it carries alternative radio navigation equipment or navigational equipment approved in accordance with article 119(3).

(3) Where only one item of equipment specified in this Scale is unserviceable when the aircraft is about to begin a flight, the aircraft may nevertheless take off on that flight if—

(a) it is not reasonably practicable for the repair or replacement of that item to be carried out before the beginning of the flight;

(b) the aircraft has not made more than one flight since the item was last serviceable; and

(c) the pilot in command of the aircraft is satisfied that the flight can be made safely and in accordance with any relevant requirements of the appropriate air traffic control unit, taking into account the latest information available as to the route and aerodrome to be used (including any planned diversion) and the weather conditions likely to be encountered.

Scale J

An airborne collision avoidance system.

5.  In this Part— U.K.

“Airborne collision avoidance system” means an aeroplane system which—

(a)

conforms to requirements prescribed for the purpose;

(b)

is based on secondary surveillance radar equipment transponder signals;

(c)

operates independently of ground based equipment; and

(d)

is designed to provide advice and appropriate avoidance manoeuvres to the pilot in relation to other aeroplanes which are equipped with secondary surveillance radar and are in undue proximity;

“Automatic direction finding equipment” means radio navigation equipment which automatically indicates the bearing of any radio station transmitting the signals received by such equipment;

“Distance measuring equipment” means radio equipment capable of providing a continuous indication of the aircraft's distance from the appropriate aeronautical radio stations;

“Mode A” means replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface to elicit transponder replies for identity and surveillance with identity provided in the form of a four digit identity code;

“Mode C” means replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface to elicit transponder replies for automatic pressure-altitude transmission and surveillance;

“Secondary surveillance radar equipment” means such type of radio equipment as may be notified as being capable of—

(a)

replying to an interrogation from secondary surveillance radar units on the surface; and

(b)

being operated in accordance with such instructions as may be given to the aircraft by the appropriate air traffic control unit;

“VHF omni-range equipment” means radio navigation equipment capable of giving visual indications of bearings of the aircraft by means of signals received from very high frequency omni-directional radio ranges.

Article 226

SCHEDULE 7 U.K. AIRCRAFT CONTINUING AIRWORTHINESS RECORDS

Aircraft continuing airworthiness records U.K.

1.  Aircraft continuing airworthiness records must contain the current—

(a) status of airworthiness directives and measures mandated by the CAA in immediate reaction to a safety problem;

(b) status of modifications and repairs;

(c) status of compliance with maintenance programme;

(d) status of service life limited components;

(e) mass and balance report;

(f) certificate of release to service required by article 44 at the completion of any maintenance; and

(g) list of deferred maintenance.

Aircraft log book U.K.

2.  The following entries must be included in the aircraft log book—

(a) the aircraft type;

(b) the aircraft registration mark;

(c) the date, together with the aircraft's accumulated total flight time, flight cycles and landings, as appropriate.

Engine, propeller and component logs U.K.

3.  In addition to the authorised release document, [F82 CAA] Form 1 or equivalent, the following information relevant to any engine, propeller, engine module or service life limited component must be entered in the appropriate engine or propeller logbook, engine module or service life limited component log card—

(a) identification of the component;

(b) the type, serial number and registration, as appropriate, of the aircraft, engine, propeller, engine module or service life limited component to which the particular component has been fitted, along with the reference to the installation and removal of the component;

(c) the date, together with the component's accumulated total flight time, and flight cycles, landings and calendar time, as appropriate; and

(d) the information in paragraph 1 applicable to the component.

Textual Amendments

F82 Word in Sch. 7 para. 3 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 82 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Retention of records U.K.

4.  The owner or operator of an aircraft must ensure that a system has been established to keep the records specified in column 1 of the table for the corresponding periods specified in column 2 of that table.

Column 1 - Record	Column 2 - Period
all detailed maintenance records in respect of the aircraft and any service life limited component fitted thereto	until such time as the information contained therein is superseded by new information equivalent in scope and detail but not less than 36 months after the aircraft or component has been released to service
the total time in service (hours, calendar time, cycles and landings) of the aircraft and all service life limited components	at least 12 months after the aircraft or component has been permanently withdrawn from service
the time in service (hours, calendar time, cycles and landings) as appropriate, since last scheduled maintenance of the component subjected to a service life limit	at least until the component scheduled maintenance has been superseded by another scheduled maintenance of equivalent work scope and detail
the current status of compliance with maintenance programme such that compliance with the aircraft maintenance programme can be established	at least until the aircraft or component scheduled maintenance has been superseded by other scheduled maintenance of equivalent work scope and detail
the current status of airworthiness directives issued pursuant to article 41(1)(a) applicable to the aircraft and components	at least 12 months after the aircraft or component has been permanently withdrawn from service
details of current modifications and repairs to the aircraft, engines, propellers and any other component vital to flight safety	at least 12 months after they have been permanently withdrawn from service

Operator's technical log U.K.

5.—(1) An operator's technical log must contain the following information for each aircraft—

(a) information about each flight, necessary to ensure continued flight safety;

(b) the current aircraft certificate of release to service;

(c) the current maintenance statement giving the aircraft maintenance status of what scheduled and out of phase maintenance is next due, except where the CAA has given permission for the maintenance statement being kept elsewhere;

(d) all outstanding deferred defects rectifications that affect the operation of the aircraft; and

(e) any necessary guidance instructions on maintenance support arrangements.

F83 (2) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

(3) An operator must ensure that the aircraft technical log is retained for 36 months after the date of the last entry.

Textual Amendments

F83 Sch. 7 para. 5(2) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 44

Articles 152 to 159

SCHEDULE 8 U.K. FLIGHT CREW OF AIRCRAFT – LICENCES, RATINGS, QUALIFICATIONS AND MAINTENANCE OF LICENCE PRIVILEGES

PART 1 U.K. Flight Crew Licences

CHAPTER 1 U.K. General conditions

Recent experience condition U.K.

1.—(1) In this Part, a reference to the “ recent experience condition” in the privileges for aeroplane, helicopter and gyroplane licences is to the condition set out in this paragraph.

(2) The condition is that the holder of a licence must not operate an aircraft carrying passengers—

(a) as pilot in command or co-pilot unless the holder has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least three take-offs, approaches and landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft of the same type or class or a full flight simulator representing that type or class; and

(b) as pilot in command at night unless the holder—

(i) has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least one take-off, approach and landing at night as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft of the same type or class or a full flight simulator representing that type or class; or

(ii) holds an instrument rating.

Exception to the recent experience condition U.K.

2.—(1) In this Part, a reference to the “ recent experience exception” in the privileges for aeroplane and helicopter private pilot's licences is to the condition set out in this paragraph.

(2) The condition is that—

(a) the intended flight will carry a single passenger who is also qualified to act as pilot in command on that flight; and

(b) the holder of the licence has informed the intended passenger that the holder does not meet the recent experience condition.

Excepted flights condition U.K.

3.—(1) In this Part, a reference to the “ excepted flights condition” in the privileges for aeroplane, helicopter, gyroplane and balloon and airship private pilot's licences is to the condition set out in this paragraph.

(2) The condition is that the holder of a private pilot's licence may only fly on a public transport or commercial operations flight if it is a flight of the type mentioned in article 6(4a) of the F84 ... Air Operations Regulation.

Textual Amendments

F84 Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 para. 3(2) omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 83(2) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Remuneration condition U.K.

4.—(1) In this Part, a reference to the “ remuneration condition” in the privileges for aeroplane, helicopter, gyroplane and balloon and airship private pilot's licences is to the condition set out in this paragraph.

(2) The condition is that—

(a) in the case of—

(i) instruction, the holder's licence includes an appropriate instructor certificate;

(ii) flying examinations, the holder is authorised to conduct such examinations by the CAA; and

(b) remuneration or other valuable consideration is received for—

(i) the provision of flight instruction for the same type of licence;

(ii) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for such a licence;

(iii) the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to such a licence.

CHAPTER 2 U.K. United Kingdom Licences

SECTION 1 U.K. Aeroplane pilots

Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled—

(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly for the purposes of non-commercial operations as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane of any of the types or classes specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);

(b) to fly such an aeroplane for the purpose of commercial operation—

(i) which consists of instruction or flying examinations, provided that—

(aa) in the case of instruction, the licence includes an appropriate instructor certificate; and

(bb) in the case of flying examinations, the holder is authorised to conduct such examinations by the CAA; or

(ii) where the excepted flights condition is met;

(c) to fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane carrying passengers if—

(i) the recent experience condition is met; or

(ii) the recent experience exception is met;

(d) to fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane under Instrument Flight Rules where the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes);

(e) to fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane at night where the licence includes a night rating (aeroplanes);

(f) to receive remuneration or other valuable consideration for services as a pilot on a flight if the remuneration condition is met.

(2) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) may not fly an aeroplane mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)—

(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation (other than commercial operation permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(b));

(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration (other than remuneration or other valuable consideration permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(f)); or

(c) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),

unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled—

(a) to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) which includes an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) and a night rating (aeroplanes) or night qualification (aeroplane);

(b) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane of any of the types or classes specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aircraft is flying for the purposes of—

(i) commercial operation; or

(ii) public transport operation,

unless prohibited by paragraph (2);

(c) to fly as pilot in command of such an aeroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport until the age of 60 years only where it is certificated for single pilot operation;

(d) to fly such an aeroplane on any flight for the purpose of public transport after attaining the age of 60 years where the aeroplane is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling the second pilot to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that aeroplane;

(e) to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such an aeroplane flying in Class A airspace where the licence includes an instrument rating (aeroplane);

(f) to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane carrying passengers for the purpose of public transport where the recent experience condition is met.

(2) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) may not fly an aeroplane mentioned in paragraph (1)(b)—

(a) at any time after attaining the age of 65 years as pilot in command or co-pilot for the purpose of public transport; or

(b) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),

unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age:

21 years

Privileges:

The holder of an Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) except that, in paragraph (1)(c) of the privileges of that licence, the words “where it is certificated for single pilot operation” do not apply.

SECTION 2 U.K. Helicopter and gyroplane pilots

Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) is entitled—

(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any helicopter of a type specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);

(b) to fly such a helicopter for the purpose of commercial operation—

(i) which consists of instruction or flying examinations, provided that—

(aa) in the case of instruction, the licence includes an appropriate instructor certificate; and

(bb) in the case of flying examinations, the holder is authorised to conduct such examinations by the CAA; or

(ii) where the excepted flights condition is met;

(c) to fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter carrying passengers if—

(i) the recent experience condition is met; or

(ii) the recent experience exception is met;

(d) to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such a helicopter under Instrument Flight Rules where the licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter);

(e) to fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter at night if the licence includes a night rating (helicopters);

(f) to receive remuneration or other valuable consideration for services as a pilot on a flight if the remuneration condition is met.

(2) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) may not fly a helicopter mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)—

(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation (other than commercial operation permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(b));

(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration (other than remuneration or other valuable consideration permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(f)); or

(c) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),

unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) is entitled—

(a) to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) which includes a night rating (helicopters);

(b) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of a helicopter of any of the types or classes specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aircraft is flying for the purposes of—

(i) commercial operation; or

(ii) public transport operation,

unless prohibited by paragraph (2);

(c) to fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter on a flight for the purpose of public transport until the age of 60 years only where it is certificated for single pilot operation;

(d) to fly such a helicopter for the purpose of public transport after attaining the age of 60 years where the helicopter is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling the second pilot to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that helicopter;

(e) to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of such a helicopter under Instrument Flight Rules where the licence includes an instrument rating (helicopter);

(f) to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of a helicopter carrying passengers for the purpose of public transport where the recent experience condition is met.

(2) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) may not fly a helicopter mentioned in paragraph (1)(b)—

(a) at any time after attaining the age of 65 years as pilot in command or co-pilot for the purpose of public transport; or

(b) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),

unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters)

Minimum age:

21 years

Privileges:

The holder of an Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) except that, in paragraph (1)(c) of the privileges of that licence, the words “only where it is certificated for single pilot operation” do not apply.

Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) is entitled—

(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any gyroplane of a type or a class specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);

(b) to fly such a gyroplane for the purpose of commercial operation—

(i) which consists of instruction or flying examinations, provided that—

(aa) in the case of instruction, the licence includes an appropriate instructor certificate; and

(bb) in the case of flying examinations, the holder is authorised to conduct such examinations by the CAA; or

(ii) where the excepted flights condition is met;

(c) to fly as pilot in command of such a gyroplane carrying passengers if the recent experience condition is met;

(d) to fly as pilot in command of such a gyroplane at night if the licence includes a night rating (gyroplanes);

(e) to receive remuneration or other valuable consideration for services as a pilot on a flight if the remuneration condition is met.

(2) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) may not fly a gyroplane mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)—

(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation (other than commercial operation permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(b));

(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration (other than remuneration or other valuable consideration permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(e));

(c) under Instrument Flight Rules; or

(d) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),

unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) is entitled—

(a) to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) which includes a night rating (gyroplanes);

(b) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of a gyroplane of any of the types or classes specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the aircraft is flying for the purposes of—

(i) commercial operation; or

(ii) public transport operation,

unless prohibited by paragraph (2);

(c) to fly as pilot in command of such a gyroplane on a flight for the purpose of public transport until the age of 60 years only where it is certificated for single pilot operation;

(d) to fly such a gyroplane on any flight for the purpose of public transport after attaining the age of 60 years where the gyroplane is fitted with dual controls and carries a second pilot who holds an appropriate licence under this Order entitling the second pilot to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of that gyroplane;

(e) to fly as pilot in command of such a gyroplane carrying passengers if the recent experience condition is met.

(2) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) may not fly a gyroplane mentioned in paragraph (1)(b)—

(a) at any time after attaining the age of 65 years as pilot in command or co-pilot for the purpose of public transport;

(b) under Instrument Flight Rules; or

(c) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),

unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) is entitled—

(a) to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) which includes a night rating (helicopters) or a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) which includes a night rating (gyroplanes);

(b) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) and a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes), unless prohibited by paragraph (2);

(c) only where the holder has undertaken such training and passed such flight examinations as the CAA may require, to fly a gyroplane for the purposes of commercial operations or public transport.

(2) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) may not fly a helicopter or gyroplane mentioned in the licences referred to in paragraph (1)(b)—

(a) at any time after attaining the age of 65 years as pilot in command or co-pilot for the purpose of public transport; or

(b) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),

unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes)

Minimum age:

21 years

Privileges:

The holder of an Airline Transport Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) is entitled to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters and Gyroplanes) except that in paragraph (1)(c) of the privileges of the United Kingdom Commercial Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) referred to in paragraph (1)(b) of that licence, the words “where it is certificated for single pilot operation” do not apply.

SECTION 3 U.K. Balloon and airship pilots

Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships) is entitled—

(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any type of balloon or airship on which the holder is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating in the licence, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);

(b) to fly such a balloon or airship for the purpose of commercial operation—

(i) which consists of instruction or flying examinations, provided that—

(aa) in the case of instruction, the licence includes an appropriate instructor certificate; and

(bb) in the case of flying examinations, the holder is authorised to conduct such examinations by the CAA; or

(ii) where the excepted flights condition is met;

(c) to fly as pilot in command of such a balloon or airship at night if the licence includes a night rating (balloons and airships);

(d) to receive remuneration or other valuable consideration for services as a pilot on a flight if the remuneration condition is met.

(2) The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships) may not fly a balloon or airship mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)—

(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation (other than commercial operation permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(c));

(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration (other than remuneration or other valuable consideration permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(e)); or

(c) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),

unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:

(1) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) is entitled—

(a) to exercise the privileges of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships);

(b) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any type of balloon specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence when the balloon is flying for the purpose of commercial operations, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);

(c) to fly as pilot in command of any type of balloon specified in the aircraft rating included in the licence for the purpose of the public transport of passengers where the holder has within the immediately preceding 90 days carried out as pilot in command in a free balloon at least three flights each of not less than five minutes duration.

(2) The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons) may not fly a balloon mentioned in paragraph (1)(b) or (c) other than as authorised by paragraph (1) unless permitted to do so by the CAA.

Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships)

Minimum age:

18 years

Privileges:

The holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships) is entitled to fly as pilot in command or co-pilot of any type of airship on which the holder is so qualified and which is specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence when the airship is flying for any purpose whatsoever.

SECTION 4 U.K. Other flight crew

Flight Navigator's Licence

Minimum age:

21 years

Privileges:

The holder of a Flight Navigator's Licence is entitled to act as flight navigator in any [F85 non-Part-21] aircraft.

Textual Amendments

F85 Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 1 Ch. 2 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 83(3) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Flight Engineer's Licence

Minimum age:

21 years

Privileges:

The holder of a Flight Engineer's Licence is entitled to act as flight engineer in any type of [F85 non-Part-21] aircraft specified in an aircraft rating included in the licence.

Textual Amendments

F85 Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 1 Ch. 2 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 83(3) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Flight Radiotelephony Operator's Licence

Minimum age:

14 years

Privileges:

The holder of a Flight Radiotelephony Operator's Licence is entitled to operate radiotelephony apparatus in any aircraft if the stability of the frequency radiated by the transmitter is maintained automatically but is not entitled to operate the transmitter, or to adjust its frequency, except by the use of external switching devices.

CHAPTER 3 U.K. National Private Pilot's Licence

National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges and conditions:

(1) The holder of a National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) is entitled—

(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly for the purposes of non-commercial operations as pilot in command of any SSEA, microlight aeroplane or SLMG for which a class rating is included in the licence provided that the total number of persons carried (including the pilot) does not exceed four, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);

(b) with the permission of the competent authority for the airspace in which the aircraft is being flown, to fly such a SSEA, microlight aeroplane or SLMG outside the United Kingdom;

(c) to fly such a microlight aeroplane or SLMG for the purpose of commercial operation—

(i) which consists of instruction or flying examinations, provided that—

(aa) in the case of instruction, the licence includes an appropriate instructor certificate; and

(bb) in the case of flying examinations, the holder is authorised to conduct such examinations by the CAA; or

(ii) where the excepted flights condition is met;

(d) to fly such a SSEA for the purpose of commercial operation where the excepted flights condition is met;

(e) to fly as pilot in command of such an SSEA, microlight aeroplane or SLMG carrying passengers if—

(i) the recent experience condition is met; or

(ii) the recent experience exception is met;

(f) to fly as pilot in command of any such SSEA or SLMG at night where the licence includes a night rating (aeroplanes);

(g) to receive remuneration or other valuable consideration for services as a pilot on a flight if the remuneration condition is met.

(2) The holder of a National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) may not fly an SSEA, microlight aeroplane or SLMG mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)—

(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation (other than commercial operation permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(c) or (d));

(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration (other than remuneration or other valuable consideration permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(g));

(c) under Instrument Flight Rules; or

(d) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),

unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

National Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters)

Minimum age:

17 years

Privileges and conditions:

(1) The holder of a National Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) is entitled—

(a) in accordance with the remainder of this paragraph, to fly for the purposes of non-commercial operations as pilot in command of a single-engine helicopter with a maximum take-off mass of 2,000 kg or less for which a class rating is included in the licence provided that the total number of persons carried (including the pilot) does not exceed four, unless prohibited by paragraph (2);

(b) with the permission of the competent authority for the airspace in which the aircraft is being flown, to fly such a helicopter outside the United Kingdom;

(c) to fly such a helicopter for the purpose of commercial operation where the excepted flights condition is met;

(d) to fly as pilot in command of such a helicopter carrying passengers if—

(i) the recent experience condition is met; or

(ii) the recent experience exception is met.

(2) The holder of a National Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) may not fly a helicopter mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)—

(a) for the purpose of public transport or commercial operation (other than commercial operation permitted by sub-paragraph (1)(c));

(b) for remuneration or other valuable consideration;

(c) under Instrument Flight Rules;

(d) at night; or

(e) other than as authorised by paragraph (1),

unless authorised to do so by the CAA.

PART 2 U.K. Ratings, certificates and qualifications

CHAPTER 1 U.K. Ratings, certificates and qualifications which may be included in United Kingdom licences but not in National Private Pilot's Licences

SECTION 1 U.K. Aircraft ratings

1.  When included in a pilot licence an aircraft rating entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot of aircraft of the types and classes specified in the aircraft rating and different types and classes of aircraft may be specified in respect of different privileges of a licence. U.K.

2.  When included in a Flight Engineer's Licence an aircraft rating entitles the holder of the licence to act as flight engineer only of aircraft of a type specified in the aircraft rating. U.K.

SECTION 2 U.K. Other ratings

Instrument rating (aeroplane) U.K.

An instrument rating (aeroplane) entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane flying under the Instrument Flight Rules.

Instrument rating (helicopter) U.K.

An instrument rating (helicopter) entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of a helicopter flying under the Instrument Flight Rules.

Instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) U.K.

An instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes) entitles the holder of the licence to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of an aeroplane flying under the Instrument Flight Rules except—

(a) in Class A airspace; or

(b) when the aeroplane is taking off or landing at any place if the flight visibility below cloud is less than 1,500 metres.

Night rating (helicopters) U.K.

A night rating (helicopters) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) to act as pilot in command of a helicopter at night.

Night rating (gyroplanes) U.K.

A night rating (gyroplanes) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Gyroplanes) to act as pilot in command of a gyroplane at night.

Night rating (balloons and airships) U.K.

A night rating (balloons and airships) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships) to act as pilot in command of a balloon or an airship at night.

SECTION 3 U.K. Instructor certificates

Flight instructor certificate (aeroplane) U.K.

A flight instructor certificate (aeroplane) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying aircraft of such types and classes as may be specified in the certificate for that purpose subject to the restrictions specified below.

Restrictions – restricted period

(1) Until the holder of a flight instructor certificate (aeroplane) has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and, in addition, has supervised at least 25 solo flights by students, the privileges of the certificate are restricted.

(2) The restrictions will be removed from the certificate when the requirements specified in paragraph (1) have been met F86 ... .

Restrictions – restricted privileges

(1) The privileges are restricted to carrying out under the supervision of the holder of a flight instructor certificate (aeroplane) approved for this purpose—

(a) flight instruction for—

(i) the issue of a National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) and a United Kingdom Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes); and

(ii) class and type ratings for single-engine aeroplanes,

other than for the approval of first solo flights by day or by night and first solo cross country flights by day or by night; and

(b) night flying instruction.

Textual Amendments

F86 Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 45(a)

Flight instructor certificate (helicopter) U.K.

A flight instructor certificate (helicopter) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying helicopters of such types as may be specified in the certificate for that purpose subject to the restrictions specified below.

Restrictions – restricted period

(1) Until the holder of a flight instructor certificate (helicopter) has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and, in addition, has supervised at least [F87 25 student pilot solo flight exercises], the privileges of the certificate are restricted.

(2) The restrictions will be removed from the certificate when the requirements specified in paragraph (1) have been met F88 ... .

Restrictions – restricted privileges

(1) The privileges are restricted to carrying out under the supervision of the holder of a flight instructor certificate (helicopter) approved for this purpose—

(a) flight instruction for—

(i) the issue of a National Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) and a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters); and

(ii) type ratings for single-engine helicopters,

other than for the approval of first solo flights by day or by night and first solo cross country flights by day or by night; and

(b) night flying instruction, provided the holder has undergone such training as the CAA may require.

Textual Amendments

F87 Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 45(b)(i)

F88 Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 45(b)(ii)

Flight instructor certificate (gyroplanes) U.K.

A flight instructor certificate (gyroplanes) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying gyroplanes of such types as may be specified in the rating for that purpose.

Flight instructor certificate (restricted) (gyroplanes) U.K.

A flight instructor certificate (restricted) (gyroplanes) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying gyroplanes of such types as may be specified in the rating for that purpose, but—

(a) such instruction must only be given—

(i) under the supervision of a person present during the take-off and landing at the aerodrome at which the instruction is to begin and end; and

(ii) who holds a pilot's licence endorsed with a flight instructor certificate entitling the holder to instruct on an aircraft of the same type or class as the aircraft on which instruction is being given;

(b) does not entitle the holder of the licence to give directions to a person undergoing instruction in respect of the performance of that person's first—

(i) solo flight;

(ii) solo flight by night;

(iii) solo cross-country flight otherwise than by night; or

(iv) solo cross-country flight by night.

Type rating instructor certificate (multi-pilot aeroplane) U.K.

A type rating instructor certificate (multi-pilot aeroplane) entitles the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating, including the instruction required for multi-crew co-operation.

Type rating instructor certificate (helicopter) U.K.

A type rating instructor certificate (helicopter) entitles the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a helicopter type rating, including the instruction required for multi-crew co-operation.

Class rating instructor certificate (single-pilot aeroplane) U.K.

A class rating instructor certificate (single-pilot aeroplane) entitles the holder to instruct licence holders for the issue of a type or class rating for single-pilot aeroplanes.

Instrument rating instructor certificate (aeroplane) U.K.

An instrument rating instructor certificate (aeroplane) entitles the holder to conduct flight instruction for the issue of an instrument rating (aeroplane) or an instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes).

Instrument rating instructor certificate (helicopter) U.K.

An instrument rating instructor certificate (helicopter) entitles the holder to conduct flight instruction for the issue of an instrument rating (helicopter) for a United Kingdom licence.

CHAPTER 2 U.K. Aircraft and instructor ratings and certificates which may be included in United Kingdom aeroplane pilot licences and in National Private Pilot's Licences (Aeroplanes)

Night rating (aeroplanes) U.K.

A night rating (aeroplanes) entitles the holder of a United Kingdom Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) or a National Private Pilot's Licence (Aeroplanes) to act as pilot in command of an aeroplane at night.

Microlight class rating

(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) to (6) and to the conditions of the licence in which it is included, a microlight class rating entitles the holder to act as pilot in command of any microlight aeroplane.

(2) If the current certificate of revalidation for the rating is endorsed “single seat only” the holder is only entitled to act as pilot in command of any single seat microlight aeroplane.

(3) If the aeroplane F89 ...—

(a) [F90 has] three axis controls and the holder's previous training and experience has only been in an aeroplane with flexwing or weightshift controls;

(b) [F91 has] flexwing or weightshift controls and the holder's previous training and experience has only been in an aeroplane with three axis controls; F92 ...

[F93 (c) has a maximum take-off mass of more than 475kg (or more than 495kg if the aeroplane is an amphibian or floatplane) and the holder’s previous training and experience has only been in a microlight aeroplane with a maximum take-off mass of 475kg or less (or 495kg or less if the aeroplane is an amphibian or floatplane);]

[F94 (d) has a maximum take-off mass of 600kg or less (or 650kg or less if the aeroplane is an amphibian or floatplane) and the holder’s previous training and experience has only been in aeroplanes with a maximum take-off mass of more than 600kg (or more than 650kg if the aeroplane is an amphibian or floatplane);

(e) is fitted with—

(i) a tricycle undercarriage;

(ii) a tailwheel;

(iii) a supercharger or turbo-charger;

(iv) a variable pitch propeller;

(v) one or more Electronic Flight Information Systems;

(vi) an autopilot system;

(vii) more than one engine; or

(viii) an electric engine,

and the holder does not have training or experience in aeroplanes with such fitted features; or

(f) has a maximum continuous cruising speed in excess of 140 knots indicated airspeed and the holder does not have experience in aeroplanes capable of that speed,]

before exercising the privileges of the rating the holder must complete appropriate differences training.

(4) The differences training mentioned in paragraph (3) must be given by a flight instructor entitled to instruct on the aeroplane on which the training is being given, recorded in the holder's personal flying logbook and endorsed and signed by the instructor conducting the training.

(5) Where the aeroplane is to be operated from water during take-off and landing, before exercising the privileges of the rating the holder must—

(a) complete appropriate differences training; and

(b) attain a pass in the Private or Professional Seamanship examination.

(6) The differences training mentioned in paragraph (5) must be given by a flight instructor entitled to instruct on the aeroplane on which the training is being given, recorded in the holder's personal flying logbook and endorsed and signed by the instructor conducting the training.

Textual Amendments

F89 Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 omitted (19.8.2021) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(2)

F90 Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(3)

F91 Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(4)

F92 Word in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 omitted (19.8.2021) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(5)

F93 Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 substituted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(6)

F94 Words in Sch. 8 Pt. 2 Ch. 2 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 11(7)

SSEA class rating

(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) to (6) and to the conditions of the licence in which it is included, a SSEA class rating entitles the holder to act as pilot in command of any SSEA with a maximum take-off mass of not more than 2,000kg excluding any such aeroplane which is a SLMG or a microlight aeroplane.

(2) If the current certificate of revalidation for the rating is endorsed “single seat only” the holder is only entitled to act as pilot in command of a single seat SSEA.

(3) If the aeroplane—

(a) is fitted with a tricycle undercarriage;

(b) is fitted with a tailwheel;

(c) is fitted with a supercharger or turbo-charger;

(d) is fitted with a variable pitch propeller;

(e) is fitted with retractable landing gear;

(f) is fitted with a cabin pressurisation system; or

(g) has a maximum continuous cruising speed in excess of 140 knots indicated airspeed,

before exercising the privileges of the rating, the holder must complete appropriate differences training.

(4) The differences training mentioned in paragraph (3) must be given by a flight instructor entitled to instruct on the aeroplane on which the training is being given, recorded in the holder's personal flying logbook and endorsed and signed by the instructor conducting the training.

(5) If the aeroplane is to be operated from water during take-off and landing, before exercising the privileges of the rating the holder must—

(a) complete appropriate differences training; and

(b) attain a pass in the Private or Professional Seamanship examination.

(6) The differences training mentioned in paragraph (5) must be given by a flight instructor entitled to instruct on the aero-plane on which the training is being given, recorded in the holder's personal flying logbook and endorsed and signed by the instructor conducting the training.

SLMG class rating

(1) Subject to paragraph (2) and to the conditions of the licence in which it is included, a SLMG class rating entitles the holder to act as pilot in command of any SLMG.

(2) If the current certificate of revalidation for the rating is endorsed “single seat only” the holder is only entitled to act as pilot in command of a single seat SLMG.

Flight instructor's certificate (microlight) U.K.

A flight instructor's certificate (microlight) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying microlight aeroplanes with the same type of control system for which the holder's licence is endorsed with a flight instructor's certificate.

Flight instructor's certificate (restricted) (microlight)

(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), a flight instructor's certificate (restricted) (microlight) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying microlight aeroplanes with the same type of control system for which the holder's licence is endorsed with a flight instructor's certificate.

(2) Such instruction must only be given under the supervision of a person present during the take-off and landing at the aerodrome at which the instruction is to begin and end and holding a pilot's licence endorsed with a flight instructor's certificate entitling that person to instruct on a microlight aeroplane with the same type of control system on which instruction is being given.

(3) A flight instructor's certificate (restricted) (microlight) does not entitle the holder of the licence to authorise the person undergoing instruction to perform a first solo flight or first solo cross-country flight.

Flight instructor's certificate (SLMG) U.K.

A flight instructor's certificate (SLMG) entitles the holder of the licence to give instruction in flying SLMGs.

CHAPTER 3 U.K. Ratings which may be included in National Private Pilot's Licences (Helicopters)

Helicopter type rating U.K.

A helicopter type rating for a single engine helicopter with a maximum total weight authorised of 2,000kg or less may be included in a National Private Pilot's Licence (Helicopters) granted under Part 6.

PART 3 U.K. Maintenance of Licence Privileges

CHAPTER 1 U.K. Requirement for revalidation and renewal

Validity, revalidation and renewal of certificates and ratings U.K.

1.—(1) The ratings and certificates listed in column 1 of the following tables—

(a) have the validity listed in the corresponding entry in column 2;

(b) are revalidated in accordance with the corresponding entry in column 3; and

(c) are renewed in accordance with the corresponding entry in column 4.

(2) For the purposes of paragraph 1(1)(a)—

(a) ratings and certificates are valid from the date of issue until the end of the period specified in column 2 after the end of the month in which the rating or certificate was issued;

[F95 (b) as regards revalidation the rating and certificate are valid from the end of the period in paragraph (a) for the period specified in column 2—

(i) in relation to any rating or certificate that may be revalidated by meeting flight or instruction experience requirements, provided those experience requirements have been met; or

(ii) subject to sub-paragraph (2A), in relation to any other rating or certificate, provided that the rating or certificate is revalidated within the period of three months preceding the end of the period in paragraph (a); and]

(c) as regards renewal, the new rating or certificate is valid from the date of issue until the end of the period specified in column 2 after the end of the month in which the rating or certificate was renewed.

[F96 (2A) Where a rating or certificate is revalidated by a proficiency check prior to the last 3 months of the period specified in column 2, the period specified in column 2 commences from the end of the month in which the revalidation occurred.]

(3) For the purposes of paragraphs 1(1)(b) and (c), a reference in the following tables to—

(a) a paragraph of Part-FCL is a reference to the applicant needing to complete the requirements specified in that paragraph; and

(b) completing training or passing a proficiency check are references to the applicant needing to take the specified action.

Table 1

Ratings for Aeroplanes

Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Single-engine piston (SEP) class rating (land), TMG and SLMG rating	24 months	FCL.740.A (b)(1) and (4) of Part-FCL, provided a SEP aeroplane with three axis control system is used. Where both a SEP (land) and a TMG or SLMG rating are held, the requirements may be completed in either class and achieve revalidation of both ratings.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.
Single-engine piston (SEP) class rating (sea)	24 months	FCL.740.A (b)(1) and (4) of Part-FCL, provided a SEP aeroplane with three axis control system is used.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.
Single-engine turbo-prop (SET) aeroplanes class rating	24 months	FCL.740.A (b)(3) of Part-FCL.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.
Multi-engine piston (MEP) class rating	12 months	FCL.740.A (a) of Part-FCL.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.
Any type rating	12 months	FCL.740.A (a) of Part-FCL.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.

Table 2

Ratings for Helicopters

Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Any type rating	12 months	FCL 740.H (a) of Part-FCL.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.

Table 3

Ratings for Gyroplanes

Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Any single engine class rating	24 months	(a) 12 hours flight time in the relevant class within the 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including— (i) 6 hours as pilot in command; (ii) 12 take-offs and landings; and (iii) a one-hour flight with the holder of a Flight Instructor certificate (Gyroplanes); or (b) complete such proficiency check as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.

Table 4

Ratings for Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships)

Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Any rating	Valid provided that, within the 13 months preceding the date of the flight, the holder has flown as pilot in command of at least five flights, each of not less than five minutes in duration, in any type of balloon or airship for which the holder is qualified.	None	(a) complete such flights in accordance with article 142 so as to meet the requirement in column 2; or (b) complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.

Table 5

Ratings for Commercial Pilot's Licence (Balloons)

Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Any rating, where used in connection with public transport	13 months	Pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.
Any rating, where used in connection with commercial operation	13 months	Have such flight experience as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.

Table 6

Ratings for Commercial Pilot's Licence (Airships)

Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Any rating	12 months	FCL.740.As (a) of Part-FCL.	(a) complete such training as the CAA may require; and (b) pass the appropriate proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part-FCL.

Table 7

Ratings for Flight Engineers and Flight Navigator's Licence

Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Any rating for Flight Navigator's Licence	13 months	(a) complete the appropriate proficiency check; and (b) have such experience as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.
Flight engineer type rating	12 months	Pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.

Table 8

Instrument and instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) ratings

Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Instrument rating (aeroplane)	12 months	FCL.625.A of Part-FCL.	FCL.625 (c) and (d) of Part-FCL.
Instrument rating (helicopter)	12 months	FCL.625.H of Part-FCL.	FCL.625 (c) and (d) of Part-FCL.
Instrument meteorological conditions rating (aeroplanes)	25 months	Pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.

Table 9

Instructor certificates

Column 1Rating	Column 2Validity	Column 3Revalidation	Column 4Renewal
Fight instructor certificate (aeroplanes)	36 months	FCL.940.FI (a) and (b) of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.FI (c) of Part-FCL.
Flight instructor certificate (helicopters)	36 months	FCL.940.FI (a) and (b) of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.FI (c) of Part-FCL.
Flight instructor certificate (gyroplanes)	36 months	Pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.	Complete such training and pass such proficiency check as the CAA may require.
Type rating instructor certificate (multi-pilot aeroplane)	36 months	FCL.940.TRI (a) of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.TRI (b) of Part-FCL.
Type rating instructor certificate (helicopter)	36 months	FCL.940.TRI (a) of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.TRI (b) of Part-FCL.
Class rating instructor certificate (single-pilot aeroplane)	36 months	FCL.940.CRI (a) and (b) of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.CRI (c) of Part-FCL.
Instrument rating instructor certificate (aeroplane)	36 months	FCL.940.IRI of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.IRI of Part-FCL.
Instrument rating instructor certificate (helicopter)	36 months	FCL.940.IRI of Part-FCL.	FCL.940.IRI of Part-FCL.

Textual Amendments

F95 Sch. 8 Pt. 3 para. 1(2)(b) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 46(1)(a)

F96 Sch. 8 Pt. 3 para. 1(2A) inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 46(1)(b)

Issue of certificate of revalidation U.K.

2.  Except in the case of holders of a Private Pilot's Licence (Balloons and Airships), a certificate of revalidation must be issued where any of the requirements for revalidation or renewal in the tables in paragraph 1 have been met.

Form of certificate of revalidation U.K.

3.  A certificate of revalidation must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and certify—

(a) the functions to which the certificate relates;

(b) the date on which it was signed;

(c) that on the date on which the certificate was signed the relevant requirements for revalidation or renewal in the tables in paragraph 1 have been met;

(d) where the relevant requirements for revalidation or renewal in the tables in paragraph 1 involve—

(i) the gaining of experience, the type or types of aircraft in which the experience was gained;

(ii) the taking of a test or proficiency check, the type of aircraft or flight simulator in or by means of which the test was conducted.

CHAPTER 2 U.K. Requirement for a Certificate of Revalidation to maintain the validity of, or renew, a rating specified in Chapter 2 or 3 of Part 2

4.—(1) A certificate of revalidation required by article 157 for a SSEA class rating, a microlight class rating or a SLMG class rating must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and certify— U.K.

(a) the rating to which the certificate relates;

(b) that on a specified date the holder has satisfied the relevant requirements for issue in accordance with Table A and Table B;

(c) the specified date; and

(d) the date on which the period of validity of the certificate expires in accordance with sub-paragraph (3).

Table A – Requirements for issue of a certificate of revalidation for an aeroplane class rating included in Chapter 2 of Part 2

	Circumstances	Requirements
1	On initial issue by the CAA	The holder of the licence has passed a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the licence application form in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought
2	There is a current valid certificate of revalidation for the rating	The holder of the licence has— (a) passed a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the certificate in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought; or (b) produced their personal flying log book to the authorised person signing the certificate and satisfied the authorised person that the holder satisfied the experience requirements specified in Table B
3	The last previous certificate of revalidation for the rating expired less than five years before the date on which the new certificate is to be signed	The holder of the licence has passed a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the certificate in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought
4	The last previous certificate of revalidation for the rating expired five years or more before the date on which the new certificate is to be signed	The holder of the licence has passed— (a) a NPPL General Skill Test with the authorised examiner signing the certificate in an aeroplane of the class for which the certificate of revalidation is sought; and (b) an oral theoretical knowledge examination conducted by the authorised examiner as part of the NPPL General Skill Test

Table B – Experience requirements for issue of certificate of revalidation in accordance with paragraph 2(b) of Table A

	Circumstances	Requirements
1	Where one aeroplane class rating is held	(a) The holder has, as a pilot, in an aeroplane specified in the aeroplane class rating and within the period of validity of the current certificate of revalidation for the rating—
			(i) flown at least 12 hours which includes at least 8 hours as pilot in command;
			(ii) completed at least 12 take-offs and 12 landings;
			(iii) subject to sub-paragraph (b), undertaken at least one hour of flying training with an instructor entitled to give instruction on aeroplanes of that class; and
			(iv) flown at least six hours in the 12 months preceding the specified date.
		(b) If the holder has not undertaken the flying training specified in paragraph 1(a)(iii) a certificate of revalidation may be issued but must be endorsed “single seat only”.
2	Where two or three aeroplane class ratings are held	(a) The holder has, as a pilot, within the period of validity of the current certificate of revalidation for each rating—
			(i) flown a total of at least 12 hours in an aeroplane coming within any of the aeroplane class ratings which are held which includes at least a total of eight hours as pilot in command;
			(ii) completed not less than 12 take-offs and 12 landings in an aeroplane coming within any of the aeroplane class ratings which are held;
			(iii) subject to sub-paragraph (b), in an aeroplane coming within each of the aeroplane class ratings which are to be revalidated, either—
				(aa) flown at least one hour as pilot in command; or
				(bb) undertaken at least one hour of flying training with an instructor entitled to give instruction on aeroplanes of that class;
			(iv) subject to sub-paragraph (b), undertaken at least one hour of flying training in aeroplanes coming within any of the aeroplane class ratings which are held, with instructors entitled to give instruction on aeroplanes of those classes; and
			(v) flown at least six hours in the 12 months preceding the specified date in an aeroplane coming within any of the aeroplane class ratings which are held.
		(b) If the holder has flown at least one hour as pilot in command as specified in paragraph 2(a)(iii)(aa) but has not undertaken the flying training specified in paragraph 2(a)(iv) a certificate of revalidation may be issued but must be endorsed “single seat only”.

(2) In the case of a certificate of revalidation for a class rating which is being issued on the basis of paragraph 1(b) of Table B, so that the holder of the licence has satisfied the experience requirements but without having had a flight with an instructor as part of that experience, the person signing the certificate must endorse the certificate “single seat only”.

(3) If the rating—

[F97 (a) has not expired, the new certificate is valid for 24 months from the end of the month which includes the expiry date of the existing certificate, except where the certificate is validated by a NPPL General Skill Test more than 3 months before the expiry date of the existing certificate, in which case the new certificate is valid for 24 months from the end of the month in which the test was taken;]

(b) has expired, the new certificate is valid for 24 months in addition to the remainder of the month in which the date of test falls.

Textual Amendments

F97 Sch. 8 Pt. 3 para. 4(3)(a) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 46(2)(a)

5.—(1) A certificate of revalidation required by article 157 for a flight instructor's certificate (SLMG), a flight instructor's certificate (microlight), or an flight instructor's certificate (restricted) (microlight) must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and certify— U.K.

(a) the certificate to which the certificate of revalidation relates;

(b) that on a specified date the holder has passed an appropriate test of the holder's ability to exercise the privileges of the certificate;

(c) the specified date; and

(d) the date on which the period of validity of the certificate expires in accordance with sub-paragraph (2).

(2) If the rating—

[F98 (a) has not expired, the new certificate is valid for 36 months from the end of the month which includes the expiry date of the existing certificate, except where the test is taken more than 3 months before the expiry date of the existing certificate, in which case the new certificate is valid for 36 months from the end of the month in which the test was taken;]

(b) has expired, the new certificate is valid for 36 months in addition to the remainder of the month in which the date of test falls.

Textual Amendments

F98 Sch. 8 Pt. 3 para. 5(2)(a) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 46(2)(b)

6.—(1) A certificate of revalidation required by article 157 for a helicopter type rating must be signed by a person authorised by the CAA to sign certificates of this kind and certify— U.K.

(a) the rating to which the certificate relates;

(b) that on a specified date the holder has satisfied the requirements of paragraphs FCL.740 and FCL.740.H of Part-FCL;

(c) the specified date; and

(d) the date on which the period of validity of the certificate expires in accordance with sub-paragraph (2).

(2) If the rating—

[F99 (a) has not expired, the new certificate is valid for 12 months from the end of the month which includes the expiry date of the existing certificate, except where the test is taken more than 3 months before the expiry date of the existing certificate, in which case the new certificate is valid for 12 months from the end of the month in which the test was taken;]

(b) has expired, the new certificate is valid for 12 months in addition to the remainder of the month in which the date of test falls.

Textual Amendments

F99 Sch. 8 Pt. 3 para. 6(2)(a) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 46(2)(c)

Articles 114(2) and (3), 116(5) and 117(4)

SCHEDULE 9 U.K. PUBLIC TRANSPORT – OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS

PART 1 U.K. Information and Instructions which must be included in an Operations Manual

1.  Information and instructions relating to the following matters must be included in an operations manual— U.K.

(a) The number of the crew to be carried in the aircraft, on each stage of any route to be flown.

(b) The respective capacities in which the crew members are to act.

(c) Instructions as to the order and circumstances in which command is to be assumed by members of the crew.

(d) The respective duties of each member of the crew and the other members of the operating staff.

(e) The scheme referred to in article 175(1).

(f) Such technical detailed information concerning the aircraft, its engines and equipment and concerning the performance of the aircraft as may be necessary to enable the flight crew of the aircraft to perform their respective duties.

(g) The manner in which the quantities of fuel and oil to be carried by the aircraft are to be computed and records of fuel and oil carried and consumed on each stage of the route to be flown are to be maintained (and the instructions must take account of all circumstances likely to be encountered on the flight, including the possibility of failure of one or more of the aircraft engines).

(h) The manner in which the quantity, if any, of oxygen and oxygen equipment to be carried in the aircraft for the purpose of complying with Scale L1 or L2 in Part 1 of Schedule 6 is to be computed.

(i) The check system to be followed by the crew of the aircraft before and on take-off, on landing and in an emergency, so as to ensure that the operating procedures contained in the operations manual and in the flight manual or performance schedule for the aircraft are complied with.

(j) The circumstances in which a radio watch is to be maintained.

(k) The circumstances in which oxygen is to be used by the crew of the aircraft, and by passengers.

(l) Subject to paragraph 2, communication, navigational aids, aerodromes, local regulations, in-flight procedures, approach and landing procedures and such other information as the operator considers necessary for the proper conduct of flight operations (which must be contained in a route guide, which may be in the form of a separate volume).

(m) The reporting in flight to the notified authorities of meteorological observations.

(n) Subject to paragraph 2, the minimum altitudes for safe flight on each stages of the route to be flown (which must not be lower than any which may be applicable under the law of the United Kingdom or of the countries whose territory is to be flown over) and any planned diversion from that route.

(o) The required information referred to in article 131(2).

(p) Emergency flight procedures, including procedures for the instruction of passengers in the position and use of emergency equipment and procedures to be adopted when the pilot in command of the aircraft becomes aware that another aircraft or a vessel is in distress and needs assistance.

(q) In the case of aircraft intended to fly at an altitude of more than 49,000 feet the procedures for the use of cosmic radiation detection equipment.

(r) The labelling and marking of dangerous goods, the manner in which the dangerous goods must be loaded on or suspended beneath an aircraft, the responsibilities of members of the crew for the carriage of dangerous goods and the action to be taken in the event of emergencies arising involving dangerous goods.

(s) Such detailed information about any permission granted to the operator under article [F100 78A(2)] as may be necessary to enable the pilot in command of the aircraft to determine whether article 69(8)(b) can be complied with.

(t) Procedures for the operation of any airborne collision avoidance system carried on the aircraft.

(u) The establishment and maintenance of an accident prevention and flight safety programme.

(v) In the case of a helicopter, the maximum approved passenger seating configuration.

Textual Amendments

F100 Word in Sch. 9 Pt. 1 para. 1(s) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 47

2.  In relation to any flight which is not one of a series of flights between the same two places and to the extent that it is not practicable to comply with sub-paragraphs 1(l) and 1(n), it is sufficient if the manual contains such information and instructions as will enable the equivalent data to be ascertained before take-off. U.K.

PART 2 U.K. Information and Instructions which must be included in a Training Manual

1.  The following information and instructions must be included in a training manual— U.K.

(a) The manner in which the training, practice and periodical tests required under article 114(2) and specified in Part 3 of this Schedule are to be carried out.

(b) The minimum qualifications and experience which an operator requires of persons appointed by the operator to give or to supervise the training, practice and periodical tests.

(c) The type of training, practice and periodical tests which each such person is appointed to give or to supervise.

(d) The type of aircraft for which each such person is appointed to give or to supervise the said training, practice and periodical tests.

(e) The minimum qualifications and experience required for each member of the crew undergoing the required training, practice and periodical tests.

(f) The current syllabus for, and specimen forms for recording, the required training, practice and periodical tests.

(g) The manner in which instrument flight conditions and engine failure are to be simulated in the aircraft in flight.

(h) The extent to which the required training and testing is permitted in the course of flights for the purpose of public transport.

(i) The use to be made in the required training and testing of apparatus approved for the purpose by the CAA.

PART 3 U.K. Required Crew Training, Experience, Practice and Periodical Tests

Crew U.K.

1.—(1) The training, experience, practice and periodical tests required under article 114(2) for members of the crew of an aircraft to which that paragraph applies must be as follows.

(2) Every member of the crew must have—

(a) been tested by or on behalf of the operator as to the crew member's knowledge of the use of the emergency and life saving equipment required to be carried in the aircraft on the flight and have a valid test result;

(b) practised under the supervision of the operator or of a person appointed by the operator for the purpose, within the test validity period, the carrying out of the duties required of the crew member in case of an emergency occurring to the aircraft—

(i) in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight; or

(ii) in apparatus approved by the CAA for the purpose and controlled by a person so approved by the CAA.

Pilots U.K.

2.—(1) Every pilot included in the flight crew who is intended by the operator to fly as pilot in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator—

(a) as to the pilot's competence to perform the pilot's duties while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures in flight; and

(b) as to the pilot's competence to perform the pilot's duties in instrument flight conditions while executing emergency manoeuvres and procedures in flight,

in each case in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight and including the use of the instruments and equipment provided in the aircraft, and have a valid test result.

(2) A pilot's ability to execute normal manoeuvres and procedures must be tested in the aircraft in flight.

(3) The other tests required by sub-paragraph (1) may be conducted either in the aircraft in flight, or under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.

(4) The tests specified in sub-paragraph (1)(b) when conducted in the aircraft in flight must be carried out either in actual instrument flight conditions or in instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the CAA.

(5) Every pilot included in the flight crew whose licence does not include an instrument rating or who is not intended by the operator to fly in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules, even though the licence includes such a rating, must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator in flight in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight—

(a) as to the pilot's competence to act as pilot of that aircraft, while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures; and

(b) as to the pilot's competence to act as pilot of that aircraft while executing emergency manoeuvres and procedures,

and have a valid test result.

(6) In relation to every pilot included in the flight crew who is seated at the flying controls during the take-off or landing and who is intended by the operator to fly as pilot in circumstances requiring compliance with the Instrument Flight Rules—

(a) the pilot must have been tested as to the pilot's proficiency in using instrument approach-to-land systems of the type in use at the aerodrome of intended landing and any destination alternate aerodromes and have a valid test result; and

(b) the test required by sub-paragraph (a) must have been carried out—

(i) in flight in instrument flight conditions; or

(ii) in instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the CAA; or

(iii) under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.

(7) In the case of a helicopter, every pilot included in the flight crew whose licence does not include an instrument rating but who is intended to fly at night under visual flight conditions, must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator, in a helicopter of the type to be used on the flight, as to the pilot's competence to act as pilot of that helicopter—

(a) while executing normal manoeuvres and procedures; and

(b) while executing specified manoeuvres and procedures in flight in instrument flight conditions simulated by means approved by the CAA,

and have a valid test result.

(8) Every pilot included in the flight crew and who is seated at the flying controls during take-off or landing must have carried out within the test validity period, at least three take-offs and three landings in aircraft of the type to be used on the flight when seated at the flying controls.

Flight engineers U.K.

3.—(1) Every flight engineer included in the flight crew must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator—

(a) as to the engineer's competence to perform the engineer's duties while executing normal procedures in flight, in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight; and

(b) as to the engineer's competence to perform the engineer's duties while executing emergency procedures in flight, in an aircraft of the type to be used on the flight,

and have a valid test result.

(2) A flight engineer's ability to carry out normal procedures must be tested in an aircraft in flight and the other tests required by this paragraph may be conducted—

(a) in the aircraft in flight; or

(b) under the supervision of a person approved by the CAA for the purpose by means of a flight simulator approved by the CAA.

Flight radiotelephony operators and flight navigators U.K.

4.  Every flight radiotelephony operator and flight navigator whose inclusion in the flight crew is required under article 111(1)(a) must have been tested by or on behalf of the operator as to their competence to perform their duties in conditions corresponding to those likely to be encountered on the flight—

(a) in the case of a flight radiotelephony operator using radio equipment of the type installed in the aircraft to be used on the flight, and including a test of the operator's ability to carry out emergency procedures; and

(b) in the case of a flight navigator, using equipment of the type to be used in the aircraft on the flight for purposes of navigation,

and have a valid test result.

Pilot in Command of Aircraft U.K.

5.—(1) The pilot designated as pilot in command of the aircraft for the flight must have demonstrated to the satisfaction of the operator within the test validity period that the pilot has adequate knowledge of the route to be taken, the aerodromes of take-off and landing, and any destination alternate aerodromes, including in particular the pilot's knowledge of the following which are relevant to the route—

(a) the terrain;

(b) the seasonal meteorological conditions;

(c) the meteorological, communications and air traffic facilities, services and procedures;

(d) the search and rescue procedures; and

(e) the navigational facilities.

(2) In determining whether a pilot's knowledge of the matters referred to in sub-paragraph (1) is sufficient to render the pilot competent to perform the duties of pilot in command on the flight, the operator must take into account the pilot's flying experience in conjunction with the following—

(a) the experience of other members of the intended flight crew;

(b) the influence of terrain and obstructions on departure and approach procedures at the aerodromes of take-off and intended landing and at destination alternate aerodromes;

(c) the similarity of the instrument approach procedures and let-down aids to those with which the pilot is familiar;

(d) the dimensions of runways which may be used in the course of the flight in relation to the performance limits of aircraft of the type to be used on the flight;

(e) the reliability of meteorological forecasts and the probability of difficult meteorological conditions in the areas to be traversed;

(f) the adequacy of the information available regarding the aerodrome of intended landing and any destination alternate aerodromes;

(g) the nature of air traffic control procedures and the familiarity of the pilot with such procedures;

(h) the influence of terrain on route conditions and the extent of the assistance obtainable en-route from navigational aids and air-to-ground communication facilities; and

(i) the extent to which it is possible for the pilot to become familiar with unusual aerodrome procedures and features of the route by means of ground instruction and training devices.

Deemed compliance U.K.

6.—(1) For the purposes of paragraph 2(1), 2(5) or 3(1) a pilot or flight engineer is deemed to have complied with the specified requirements in paragraphs 2(1)(b), 2(5)(b) or 3(1)(b) within the test validity period if—

(a) they have qualified in accordance with the specified requirements on at least two occasions within the period of 13 months immediately preceding the flight; and

(b) such occasions are separated by an interval of not less than four months.

(2) For the purposes of paragraph 5(1) a pilot is deemed to have complied with the specified requirements if, having become qualified to act as pilot in command on flights between the same places over the same route more than 13 months before commencement of the flight, the pilot has within the period of 13 months immediately preceding the flight flown as pilot of an aircraft between those places over that route.

Contents of records U.K.

7.  The records required to be maintained by an operator under article 114(3) must be accurate and up-to-date records kept so as to show, on any date, in relation to each person who has during the period of two years immediately preceding that date flown as a member of the crew of any public transport aircraft operated by that operator—

(a) the date and detailed information about each test required by this Part and undergone by that person during the period, including the name and qualifications of the examiner;

(b) the date on which that person last practised the carrying out of duties referred to in paragraph 1(2);

(c) the operator's conclusions, based on each such test and practice as to that person's competence to perform that person's duties; and

(d) the date and detailed information about any decision taken by the operator during the period in accordance with paragraph 5(1), including detailed information about the evidence on which that decision was based.

Production of records to authorised person U.K.

8.  The operator must, whenever called on to do so by any authorised person—

(a) produce for the inspection of any such person all records referred to in paragraph 7;

(b) supply to any such person all such information that person may require in connection with any such records; and

(c) produce for inspection by any such person all log books, certificates, papers and other documents, whatsoever which may reasonably be required to be seen for the purpose of determining whether such records are complete or of verifying the accuracy of their contents.

Supply of records to crew member U.K.

9.  At the request of any person for whom the operator is required to keep records under this Part, the operator must supply to that person, or to any other operator of aircraft for the purpose of commercial or public transport by whom that person may subsequently be employed, detailed information about any qualifications in accordance with this Schedule obtained by such person whilst in the operator's service.

Definitions and validity periods U.K.

10.  For the purposes of this Part—

(a) “visual flight conditions” means weather conditions such that the pilot is able to fly by visual reference to objects outside the aircraft;

(b) “instrument flight conditions” means weather conditions such that the pilot is unable to fly by visual reference to objects outside the aircraft;

(c) a “valid test result” is a test result—

(i) where the person tested met the minimum standard set in relation to the test; and

(ii) the test validity period has not expired in relation to that test;

(d) “test validity period”, subject to paragraph 6, means a period commencing with the date of test and ending—

(i) in the case of paragraph 2(8), three months;

(ii) in the case of paragraphs 2(1)(b), 2(5)(b), 2(6)(a), 2(7)(b) and 3(1)(b), six months; and

(iii) in the case of paragraphs 1, 2(1)(a), 2(5)(a), 2(7)(a), 3(1)(a), 4 and 5(1), 13 months,

after the end of the month in which the test was taken.

Articles 229(2) and 235(3)

SCHEDULE 10 U.K. DOCUMENTS TO BE CARRIED

Circumstances in which documents are to be carried U.K.

1.  Subject to paragraph 3, the following documents must be carried—

(a) on a public transport flight—

(i) Document A;

(ii) Document B;

(iii) Document C;

(iv) Document D;

(v) Document E;

(vi) Document F;

(vii) Document H; and

(viii) if the flight is international air navigation, Document G and Document I;

(b) on a non-commercial flight or commercial operation flight which is international air navigation—

(i) Document A;

(ii) Document B;

(iii) Document C;

(iv) Document E;

(v) Document F;

(vi) Document G; and

(vii) Document I;

(c) on a flight made in accordance with the terms of a permission granted to the operator under article [F101 78A(2)], Document J.

Textual Amendments

F101 Word in Sch. 10 para. 1(c) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 48(a)

Description of documents U.K.

2.  For the purposes of this Schedule—

“Document A” means the licence in force under the Wireless Telegraphy Act 2006 M22 for the aircraft radio station installed in the aircraft;

“Document B” means, in the case of a [F102 non-Part-21] aircraft, the national certificate of airworthiness in force for the aircraft;

“Document C” means the licences of the members of the flight crew of the aircraft;

“Document D” means one copy of the load sheet, if any, required by article 124 for the flight;

“Document E” means one copy of each national airworthiness review certificate required by article 49, if any, in force for the aircraft;

“Document F” means the technical log or approved record, if any, in which entries are required to be made under article 227;

“Document G” means the certificate of registration in force for the aircraft;

“Document H” means those parts of the operations manual, if any, required by article 116(4)(c) to be carried on the flight;

“Document I” means a copy of the notified procedures to be followed by the pilot in command of an intercepted aircraft, and the notified visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft;

“Document J” means the permission, if any, granted for the aircraft under article [F103 78A(2)].

Textual Amendments

F102 Word in Sch. 10 para. 2 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 84 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F103 Word in Sch. 10 para. 2 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 48(b)

Marginal Citations

M22 2006 c.36.

Exceptions U.K.

3.—(1) If the certificate of airworthiness includes the flight manual for the aircraft, F104 ... with the permission of the CAA, an aircraft to which article 116 applies need not carry the flight manual as part of Document B.

(2) With the permission of the CAA, an aircraft to which article 116 applies need not carry Document J if it carries an operations manual which includes the detailed information specified at paragraph 1(s) of Part 1 of Schedule 9.

[F105 (3) If a public transport flight is intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome and does not include passage over the territory of any country other than the United Kingdom, the documents required under paragraph 1(a) may be kept at that aerodrome instead of being carried in the aircraft.]

Textual Amendments

F104 Word in Sch. 10 para. 3(1) omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 48(c)

F105 Sch. 10 para. 3(3) substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 48(d)

[F106 Meaning of “international air navigation” U.K.

4.   For the purposes of this Schedule—

“international air navigation” means any flight which includes passage over the territory of any country other than the United Kingdom, but does not include passage over any relevant overseas territory to which there is power to extend the Civil Aviation Act 1982 under section 108(1) of that Act.]

Textual Amendments

F106 Sch. 10 para. 4 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 48(e)

Article 206

SCHEDULE 11 U.K. AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE EQUIPMENT – RECORDS REQUIRED AND MATTERS TO WHICH THE CAA MAY HAVE REGARD

PART 1 U.K. Records to be kept in accordance with Article 206(1)(a)

1.  A record of any functional tests, flight checks and detailed information about any maintenance, repair, overhaul, replacement or modification. U.K.

2.  Subject to paragraph 3, the record must be kept in a legible or a non-legible form. If the record is kept in a non-legible form it must be capable of being reproduced in a legible form and it must be so reproduced by the person required to keep the record if requested by an authorised person. U.K.

3.  In any particular case the CAA may direct that the record is kept or be capable of being reproduced in such a form as it may specify. U.K.

PART 2 U.K. Records required in accordance with Article 206(5)(b)

1.  Each record made by the apparatus provided in compliance with article 206(2) or (3) must be adequately identified and in particular must include— U.K.

(a) the identification of the aeronautical radio station;

(b) the date or dates on which the record was made;

(c) a means of determining the time at which each message or signal was transmitted or received;

(d) the identity of the aircraft to or from which and the radio frequency on which the message or signal was transmitted or received; and

(e) the time at which the record started and finished.

PART 3 U.K. Matters to which the CAA may have regard in granting an approval if apparatus in accordance with Article 206(6)

1.  The purpose for which the apparatus is to be used. U.K.

2.  The manner in which the apparatus has been specified and produced in relation to the purpose for which it is to be used. U.K.

3.  The adequacy, in relation to the purpose for which the apparatus is to be used, of the operating parameters of the apparatus (if any). U.K.

4.  The manner in which the apparatus has been or will be operated, installed, modified, maintained, repaired and overhauled. U.K.

5.  The manner in which the apparatus has been or will be inspected. U.K.

Article 212(9)

SCHEDULE 12 U.K. INFORMATION AND INSTRUCTIONS WHICH MUST BE INCLUDED IN AN AERODROME MANUAL

1.  The name and status of the accountable manager having corporate authority for ensuring that all operations activities can be financed and carried out to the standard required. U.K.

2.  The names and status of other senior aerodrome operating staff and instructions as to the order and circumstances in which they may be required to act. U.K.

3.  Details of the safety management system. U.K.

4.  The system of aeronautical information service available. U.K.

5.  Procedures for promulgating information concerning the aerodrome's state. U.K.

6.  Procedures for the control of access, vehicles and work in relation to the aerodrome manoeuvring area and apron. U.K.

7.  Procedures for the removal of disabled aircraft. U.K.

8.  In the case of an aerodrome which has facilities for fuel storage, procedures for complying with article 220. U.K.

9.—(1) Subject to sub-paragraph (2), plans to an appropriate scale which clearly depict the layout of runways, taxiways and aprons, aerodrome markings, aerodrome lighting if such lighting is provided, and the siting of any navigational aids within the runway strip. U.K.

(2) In the case of copies or extracts of the manual provided or made available to a member of the aerodrome operating staff, the plans must be of a scale reasonably appropriate for the purposes of article 212(9).

10.  For an aerodrome in relation to which there is a notified instrument approach procedure, survey information sufficient to provide data for the production of aeronautical charts relating to that aerodrome. U.K.

11.  Description, height and location of obstacles which infringe standard obstacle limitation surfaces, and whether they are lit. U.K.

12.  Data for and method of calculation of declared distances and elevations at the beginning and end of each declared distance. U.K.

13.  Method of calculating reduced declared distances and the procedure for their promulgation. U.K.

14.  Details of surfaces and bearing strengths of runways, taxiways and aprons. U.K.

15.  The system of the management of air traffic in the airspace associated with the aerodrome, including procedures for the co-ordination of traffic with adjacent aerodromes, except any such information or procedures already published in any manual of air traffic services. U.K.

16.  Operational procedures for the routine and special inspection of the aerodrome manoeuvring area and aprons. U.K.

17.  If operations are permitted during periods of low visibility, procedures for the protection of the runways during such periods. U.K.

18.  Procedures for the safe integration of all aviation activities undertaken at the aerodrome. U.K.

19.  Details of or reference to the bird control management plan. U.K.

20.  Procedures for the use and inspection of the aeronautical ground lighting system, if such a system is provided. U.K.

21.  The scale of rescue, first aid and fire service facilities, the aerodrome emergency procedures and procedures to be adopted in the event of temporary depletion of the rescue and fire service facilities. U.K.

Article 265

SCHEDULE 13 U.K. PENALTIES

PART 1 U.K. Provisions Referred to in Article 265(5)

CHAPTER 1 U.K.

Article of Order	Subject matter
26(3)	Unqualified person not to cause or permit aircraft to be used for commercial air transportF107 ...
28(1)	Registered owner to inform the CAA of specified events
28(2)	Person who becomes the owner of aircraft registered in the United Kingdom must inform the CAA
42(1)(b)(ii)	Requirement to fly by day and in accordance with Visual Flight Rules
42(2)	Requirement for placard
[F108 63(1)	Copy of national airworthiness review certificate issued or extended to be sent to the CAA within 10 days
63(2)	A person to inform the CAA should the airworthiness review be inconclusive and not to issue or extend the certificate]
70(1)(a)	Pilot to be secured in seat
70(4)	Operator not to permit helicopter rotor to be turned unless pilot at controls
F109 . . .	F109 . . .
F109 . . .	F109 . . .
113(1) and (2)	Requirements for accident prevention and flight safety programme
118(2)	Requirement to wear a survival suit
124(1)	Person supervising loading to prepare and sign load sheet and submit it for examination by pilot in command
124(2)	Carriage and preservation of load sheet
125(1)	Carriage of baggage
171	Minimum age for glider pilot
F110 . . .	F110 . . .
F110 . . .	F110 . . .
F110 . . .	F110 . . .
202	Unauthorised operation of aeronautical radio station
205(3)	Requirement to notify aeronautical radio station service
206(1)	Requirement to keep air traffic service equipment records
206(4)	Capability of recording apparatus
206(5)	Operation of recording apparatus
206(8) and (9)	Requirements where apparatus ceases to be capable of recording or becomes unserviceable
[F111 206(10) to (15)	Air traffic service equipment records]
212(5)	Requirement to supply information
214(4)	Requirement for holder of public use licence to notify
215	Requirement for holder of public use licence to supply information to Secretary of State
216	Requirement to make air navigation facilities available
217(3)	Obstruction of or interference with aerodrome firefighter
226(6)	Preservation of airworthiness records
227(8)	Carriage and keeping of technical log or approved record
227(10)	Preservation of technical log or approved record
228	Requirement to keep personal flying log book
229(1), (2) and (4)	Documents to be carried
235(1), (2), (4) and (5)	Production of documents and records
236	Production of air traffic service equipment documents and records
238	Preservation of documents
249(5)	Requirement to inform CAA of departure from SERA or Rules of the Air
251(1)	Filing and approval of tariffs
253(3)	Requirement to surrender document to CAA

Textual Amendments

F107 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 49(a)

F108 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 49(b)

F109 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 12(a) (with art. 13)

F110 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 49(c)

F111 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 49(d)

CHAPTER 2 U.K.

Provision of Part 21, Part M, Part 145, Part 66 or Part 147	Subject matter
21A.61	Instructions for the continued airworthiness by the holder of type certificate or restricted type certificate
21A.107	Variations to instructions for continued airworthiness by the holder of a minor change approval to type design
21A.120	Instructions for continued airworthiness by supplemental type certificate holder
21A.130	Requirement for statement of conformity
21A.147	Approval of changes to the approved production organisation
21A.180	Inspections to be permitted by holder of airworthiness certificate
21A.439	Production of repair parts
21A.441	Repair embodiment
21A.449	Instructions for continued airworthiness by holder of repair design approval
21A.721	Inspections to be allowed by holder of, or applicant for, a permit to fly
21A.729	Record keeping by the holder of the approval of the flight conditions
21A.805	Identification of critical parts
M.A.307	Transfer of aircraft continuing airworthiness records
M.A.401	Use of current maintenance data
M.A.402	Performance of maintenance
M.A.501	Installation of components
M.A.502	Component maintenance
M.A.504 (b),(c) and (d)	Control of unserviceable components
M.A.611	Maintenance standards
M.A.614	Maintenance records to be kept by approved maintenance organisation
M.A.617	Notification of changes to the approved maintenance organisation
M.A.713	Notification of changes to the approved continuing airworthiness organisation
M.A.714	Record keeping by continuing airworthiness management organisation
M.A.902(c)	Airworthiness review certificate to be returned
145.A.85	Notification of changes to the organisation
147.A.110	Records of instructors, examiners and assessors
147.A.125	Records
147.A.150	Notification of changes to the maintenance training organisation

F112 CHAPTER 3 U.K.

Textual Amendments

F112 Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 3 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(2)(a) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

CHAPTER 4 U.K.

Provision of Part-FCL	Subject matter
ORA.GEN.130	Changes to organisations
ORA.ATO.120	Record keeping

CHAPTER 5 U.K.

Provision of F113 ... Air Operations Regulation	Subject matter
CAT.GEN.MPA.100(b)	Crew members' reporting and compliance responsibilities
CAT.GEN.MPA.100(b)(4) and (5)	Flight duty, duty and rest period records
CAT.GEN.MPA.190	Provision of documentation and records
CAT.OP.MPA.245	Meteorological conditions
CAT.OP.MPA.250(b)	Pilot in command not to take off unless external surfaces are clear
CAT.OP.MPA.260	Fuel and oil supply
CAT.OP.MPA.265	Take-off conditions
CAT.OP.MPA.285	Use of supplemental oxygen
CAT.OP.MPA.300	Approach and landing conditions
CAT.OP.MPA.305(b)	Commencement and continuation of approach
ORO.MLR.110	Requirement for journey log
SPA.LVO.125(b)	Low visibility operations – operating procedures
SPA.LVO.130(b)	Low visibility operations – minimum equipment

Textual Amendments

F113 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 5 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(2)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 6 U.K.

Provision of F114 ... Aerodromes Regulation	Subject matter
ADR.OR.B.035(b)	Failure to return certificate after revocation or surrender
ADR.OR.B.060(a)	Failure to provide information, to notify changes or to comply with requirements or with provisions of aerodrome manual
ADR.OR.D.035	Failure to establish an adequate system of record keeping or to keep records

Textual Amendments

F114 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 6 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(2)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 7 U.K.

Provision of Part-NCC	Subject matter
NCC.GEN.120	Taxiing of aeroplanes
NCC.GEN.125	Rotor engagement — helicopters
NCC.GEN.130	Portable electronic devices
NCC.GEN.135	Information on emergency and survival equipment carried
NCC.GEN.140	Documents, manuals and information to be carried
NCC.OP.160	Use of headset
NCC.OP.205(a)	In-flight fuel management

CHAPTER 8 U.K.

Provision of Part-NCO	Subject matter
NCO.GEN.115	Taxiing of aeroplanes
NCO.GEN.120	Rotor engagement — helicopters
NCO.GEN.125	Portable electronic devices
NCO.GEN.130	Information on emergency and survival equipment carried
NCO.GEN.135	Documents, manuals and information to be carried
NCO.GEN.150	Journey log
[F115 NCO.SPEC.120	Task specialist’s responsibilities]

Textual Amendments

F115 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 8 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 50

[F116 CHAPTER 9 U.K.

Textual Amendments

F116 Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 9 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 51

Provision of Part-SPO	Subject matter
SPO.GEN.106	Task specialist’s responsibilities
SPO.GEN.115	Common language
SPO.GEN.120	Taxiing of aeroplanes
SPO.GEN.125	Rotor engagement
SPO.GEN.135	Information of emergency and survival equipment carried
SPO.GEN.140	Documents, manuals and information to be carried
SPO.OP.190	In-flight fuel management
SPO.OP.225	Operational limitations – hot air balloons
SPO.SPEC.HESLO.100	Standard operating procedures
SPO.SPEC.HESLO.105	Specific HESLO equipment
SPO.SPEC.HEC.100	Standard operating procedures
SPO.SPEC.HEC.105	Specific HEC equipment
SPO.SPEC.PAR.100	Standard operating procedures
SPO.SPEC.PAR.120	Flight over water
SPO.SPEC.ABF.100	Standard operating procedures]

[F117 CHAPTER 10 U.K.

Textual Amendments

F117 Sch. 13 Pt. 1 Ch. 10 inserted (5.12.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/1160), arts. 1, 6

Provision of Part-ORO	Subject matter
ORO.GEN.135(b)	Continued validity of an AOC
ORO.GEN.215	Facility requirements
ORO.MLR.110	Journey log
ORO.MLR.115	Record-keeping
ORO.FTL.240	Nutrition
ORO.FTL.245	Records of home base, flight times, duty and rest periods]

PART 2 U.K. Provisions Referred to in Article 265(6)

CHAPTER 1 U.K.

Article of Order	Subject matter
24(1)	Aircraft to be registered
32(1)	Aircraft not to fly unless it has nationality and registration marks
32(3)	Aircraft not to bear misleading marks
34(1)	Compliance with airworthiness directives
35	Requirement for certificate of release to service for [F118 Part-21] aircraft
36(8)	Holder of maintenance licence not to exercise privileges when unfit
42(1) [F119 (other than sub-paragraph (b)(ii))]	Restrictions on purposes of flight by aircraft with national permit to fly
43(2)	Requirement for weighing and determining centre of gravity
43(3)	Requirement for weight schedule
43(4)	Preservation of weight schedule
44(2)	Requirement for certificate of release to service for [F120 non-Part-21] aircraft
[F121 44(5)	Requirement for certificate of release to service for equipment installed on or in a [F120 non-Part-21] aircraft after its overhaul, repair, modification or inspection]
49	Aircraft not to fly without valid national airworthiness review certificate
51	Aircraft not to fly in specified circumstances
[F122 54(1)	Aircraft maintenance programme
55	Aircraft to be managed by approved continuing airworthiness management organisation and maintained by approved maintenance organisation]
66	Required flight crew
67	Flight crew required by aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
68	Pilot in command to be satisfied that flight can be safely completed
69	Pre-flight action by pilot in command of aircraft
70(1)(b), (2) and (3)	Pilots to remain at controls
71	Passengers to be seated and properly secured
72	Pilot in command to be satisfied that additional survival equipment carried
73	Passenger briefing by pilot in command
74	Pilot in command to demonstrate use of oxygen on commercial operation and non-commercial flights
75	Take-off and landing conditions
76	Aerodrome operating minima requirements for commercial operation and private aircraft
[F123 77(1) and (3) to (7)	Requirements for aircraft to carry equipment]
[F124 78A(3)	Carriage of equipment]
79	Operation of radio in aircraft
[F125 80	Requirement for— a) operation of airborne collision avoidance system b) training in operation of airborne collision avoidance system]
81	Requirements concerning equipment when flying in North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification airspace
82	Requirements concerning equipment when aircraft registered in United Kingdom flying in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace
83	Requirements concerning equipment when aircraft registered elsewhere than in United Kingdom flying in United Kingdom Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum airspace
84	Requirements concerning equipment for aircraft registered in the United Kingdom flying in Required Navigation Performance airspace
85	Requirements concerning equipment for aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom flying in United Kingdom Required Navigation Performance airspace
86(1) to (5), (17) and (19)	Requirements for flying displays
87	Towing of gliders
88	Towing and picking up persons and articles other than gliders
89	Dropping of articles and animals
90(1) and (4) to (8)	Requirements for parachuting
90(2)	Person not to be dropped so as to endanger persons or property
91(1) and (4) to (7)	Requirements for aerial application
92	Requirements for balloons, gliders, kites and parascending parachutes and airships
93	Release of small balloons
F126 . . .	F126 . . .
[F127 94A(1)	[F128 Permission for unmanned aircraft flights over or near aerodromes]]
[F129 94BA(2)	Permission for unmanned aircraft flights over or near space sites]
F130 . . .	F130 . . .
96	Requirements for rockets
105	Pilot in command to ensure demonstration of life jackets
106	Pilot in command to ensure crew, passengers and baggage secure
107	Pilot in command to ensure demonstration of use of oxygen on public transport flights
108	Pilots required on public transport flights by flying machines
109(1)	Pilots required on public transport flights by aeroplanes
110(1)	Pilots required on public transport flights by helicopters
111	Flight navigators or navigational equipment required on public transport flights
112(2) and (3)	Requirement to carry cabin crew
114	Operator's responsibilities in relation to crew
115	Operator's responsibilities in relation to routes and aerodromes
116	Operations manual requirements
117	Training manual requirements
[F131 119	Carriage and use of equipment Vibration health monitoring system to be operated in accordance with approved procedures]
120(2)	Exits to be in working order
120(3)	Exits to be kept free of obstruction
121(2)	Operator to ensure marking of exits
122	Operator's duty concerning loading of public transport aircraft
127(1)	Requirement to comply with section 1 of Subpart C of Part-CAT
127(6) and (9)	Requirements for aeroplanes flying over water for public transport
128(2)	Public transport operating conditions and performance requirements for helicopters
128(6)	Requirements for helicopter on public transport flights flying over water
129	Requirements for helicopters carrying out a performance class 3 operation
130(1)(a)	Helicopter flying over water for public transport under national air operator's certificate on performance class 1 operation or performance class 2 operation
130(1)(b)	Helicopter flying over water under police air operator's certificate on a performance class 1 operation or performance class 2 operation
131	Aerodrome operating minima requirements for public transport aircraft registered in United Kingdom
132	Aerodrome operating minima requirements for public transport aircraft registered elsewhere than in United Kingdom
133	Prohibition on A to A commercial air transport aeroplane operations and public transport flights at night and in specified meteorological conditions by aeroplane with one power unit registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
135	Police operations manual requirements
151(2) and (3)	Holder of licence which does not meet minimum standards of Chicago Convention to obtain permission of competent authority and not to fly in the United Kingdom without permission of the CAA
166(1)	Person not to act as member of flight crew when unfit
166(2)	Requirement to inform CAA of injury, illness or pregnancy
170(2)	Requirements for giving of flying instruction
175(3)	Operator's obligation to obtain flight time records of flight crew
176(2)	Flight crew member's obligation to inform operator of flight times
177	Flight times – responsibilities of flight crew
181	Duty of person in charge to be satisfied as to competence of controllers
182	Requirement for Manual of Air Traffic Services
183	Requirement to provide air traffic services
184(5)	Requirement to comply with air traffic direction
184(7)	Requirement to comply with provisional air traffic direction
185(4)	Requirement to comply with direction for airspace policy purposes
186	Use of radio callsigns at aerodromes
199(1)(a)	Requirement for flight information service officer's licence
199(1)(b)	Requirement to identify as flight information service officer
201	Requirement for flight information service manual
205(1)	Requirement for approval for air traffic service equipment
206(2)	Provision of recording apparatus
207	Requirement to use licensed or Government aerodrome
209(1)	Aerodrome operator permitting flying training or testing at aerodrome without adequate facilities
209(2)	Pilot in command conducting flying training or testing at aerodrome without adequate facilities
210	Lighting for helicopters flying for public transport at night
212(6)	Requirement to comply with aerodrome licence conditions
212(7)	Requirement to take reasonable steps to secure airspace safe for use by aircraft
212(8) to (12)	Requirements for aerodrome manual
220(1) and (2)	Obligations of person having management of fuel installation on an aerodrome
220(4) and (5)	Requirements to keep and produce records for fuel installation
221(1) and (3)	Requirements for aeronautical lights
222(2) to (5)	Requirements for lighting of en-route obstacles
223(2), (4) to (7) and (9)	Requirements for lighting of wind turbine generators in United Kingdom territorial waters
224(1) and (2)	Lights liable to endanger not to be exhibited
225	Lights which dazzle or distract not to be shone
[F132 225A(1), (3) and (6)	Permission for unmanned aircraft flights over or near space sites]
226(1), (2), (3) and (5)	Requirements for log books for [F120 non-Part-21] aircraft
227(2)	Requirement for technical log
227(4)	Entries in technical log
227(7)	Certificate to be entered in technical log
231	Use of flight recording systems
232	Preservation of records of aeroplane flight data recorder
233	Preservation of records of helicopter flight data recorder
234	Preservation of records of helicopter cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder
239(4)	Requirement to comply with Restriction of Flying Regulations
239(5)	Requirement to leave restricted area
239(6)	Requirement to comply with instructions in restricted area or danger area
243	Smoking in aircraft
244	Requirement to comply with lawful commands of pilot in command of aircraft
245(a) and (b)	Acting in a disruptive manner
246	Stowaways
249(2)	Requirement to comply with Rules of the Air
260	Compliance with direction to make data available
263	Person not to obstruct or impede

Textual Amendments

F118 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(a)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F119 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(a)

F120 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(a)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F121 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(b)

F122 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(c)

F123 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(d)

F124 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(e)

F125 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(f)

F126 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 12(b)(i) (with art. 13)

F127 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (13.3.2019) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2019 (S.I. 2019/261), arts. 1(2), 6

F128 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 12(b)(ii) (with art. 13)

F129 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 inserted (19.8.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(1), 12(a)

F130 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2020 (S.I. 2020/1555), arts. 1(2), 12(b)(iii) (with art. 13)

F131 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 52(g)

F132 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 1 inserted (6.9.2021) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2021 (S.I. 2021/879), arts. 1(2), 12(b)

CHAPTER 2 U.K.

Provision of Part 21, Part M, Part 145, Part 66 or Part 147	Subject matter
21A.3(b) and (c)	Reporting of investigation of failures, malfunctions and defects
21A.3B(c)	Airworthiness directives – obligation to propose and make available corrective action
21A.129	Obligations of manufacturer
21A.165	Obligations of a production organisation approval holder
21A.727	Obligations of the holder of a permit to fly
M.A.202	Occurrence reporting
M.A.303	Carrying out airworthiness directives
M.A.305	Aircraft continuing airworthiness record system
M.A.306	Operator's technical log system
M.A.708	Continuing airworthiness management
M.A.710	Conduct of airworthiness review
145.A.50	Certification of release to service for maintenance
145.A.55	Maintenance records to be kept by organisation approved under Part 145
145.A.60	Occurrence reporting

F133 CHAPTER 3 U.K.

Textual Amendments

F133 Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 3 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

CHAPTER 4 U.K.

Provision of F134 ... Air Operations Regulation	Subject matter
CAT.GEN.MPA.105(a) (7), (8), (10) and (12)	Responsibilities of pilot in command
CAT.GEN.MPA.195(a) to (e)	Preservation, production and use of flight recorder recordings
CAT.GEN.MPA.200(e)	Reporting of dangerous goods incidents and accidents
CAT.OP.MPA.175(b)	Flight preparation by pilot in command
CAT.OP.MPA.210(a)(1) and (2)	Flight crew to remain at station
CAT.OP.MPA.225	Crew and passengers to be secured
SPA.PBN.100	Requirement for Performance Based Navigation approval
SPA.MNPS.100	Requirement for Minimum Navigation Performance Specification approval
SPA.RVSM.100	Requirement for Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum approval
SPA.LVO.100	Requirement for low visibility operations approval
SPA.ETOPS.100	Requirement for extended range operations approval
SPA.NVIS.100	Requirement for night vision imaging systems approval for helicopter operations
SPA.HHO.100	Requirement for helicopter hoist operations approval
SPA.HEMS.100	Requirement for helicopter emergency medical service operations approval
[F135 SPA.HOFO.105	Approval for helicopter offshore operations]

Textual Amendments

F134 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 4 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F135 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 4 inserted (5.12.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/1160), arts. 1, 7

CHAPTER 5 U.K.

Provision of F136 ...Aerodromes Regulation	Subject matter
ADR.OR.B.005	Uncertificated operation of an F137 ... aerodrome
ADR.OR.B.025(a)(1)	Failure to perform and document all required actions, inspections, tests, safety assessments or exercises
ADR.OR.B.030	Failure to comply with the scope and privileges defined in the terms attached to the aerodrome certificate
ADR.OR.B.040(c)	Failure to obtain prior approval for a change affecting the certificate or safety-critical aerodrome equipment or significantly affecting the aerodrome operator's management system, failure to operate under the conditions prescribed during such changes
ADR.OR.C 015	Failure to grant access to any facility, document or other material relevant to the activity subject to certification or declaration
ADR.OR.C 025	Failure to implement mandated safety measures
ADR.OR.E.005	Failure to establish and maintain an aerodrome manual
ADR.OPS.B.055	Failure to verify that organisations involved in storing and dispensing of fuel to aircraft have required procedures

Textual Amendments

F136 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 5 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(d)(i) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F137 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 5 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(d)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 6 U.K.

Provision of SERA	Subject matter
2005	Flight to be in accordance with rules of the air
2010(a)	Pilot in command to be responsible for the operation of the aircraft
3105	Aircraft not to be flown below minimum heights
3110	Aircraft to be flown at cruising levels
3135	Aircraft not to be flown in formation flights except under pre-arrangements made between the pilots in command
3140	Unmanned free balloons to be operated so as to minimise hazards
3145	Aircraft not to be flown in prohibited and restricted areas
3201	Pilot in command to be responsible for taking action to avoid collisions
3205	Aircraft not to be flown in such proximity as to cause a collision hazard
3210 (other than (d)(4)(i) and (ii))	Aircraft to comply with rules as to right of way
3215	Aircraft flying at night to display lights
3220	Aircraft not to be flown in simulated instrument flight unless fully functioning dual controls installed and a safety pilot carried on board
3225	Aircraft operating on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome to observe other aerodrome traffic and conform to the pattern of traffic at the aerodrome
3230	Aircraft conducting water operations to comply with rules for avoiding collisions
3301	Aircraft to comply with signals
4001	A flight plan to be submitted before specified categories of flight
4020	An arrival report to be made to the appropriate air traffic services unit after landing
[F138 5005 (other than (g) and (i))]	Aircraft operated under Visual Flight Rules to be operated according to the specified Visual Flight Rules
5010	Additional conditions to be observed by aircraft when flying under special Visual Flight Rules in control zones
5015	Instrument Flight Rules – Rules to be complied with by aircraft when flying under Instrument Flight Rules
5020	Instrument Flight Rules – Rules to be complied with by aircraft when flying under Instrument Flight Rules within controlled airspace
5025	Instrument Flight Rules – Rules to be complied with by aircraft when flying under Instrument Flight Rules outside controlled airspace
6005	Aircraft operating in Class E airspace, Class F airspace or Class G airspace

Textual Amendments

F138 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 6 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 53

CHAPTER 7 U.K.

Provision of F139 ... Aircrew Regulation	Subject matter
MED.A.020 (a) and (b)	Decrease in medical fitness

Textual Amendments

F139 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 7 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(3)(e) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 8 U.K.

Provision of Part-NCC	Subject matter
NCC.GEN.105	Crew responsibilities
NCC.GEN.106	Pilot in command responsibilities and authority
NCC.GEN.145	Preservation, production and use of flight recorder recordings
NCC.OP.100	Use of aerodromes and operating sites
NCC.OP.110	Aerodrome operating minima — general
NCC.OP.111	Aerodrome operating minima — NPA, APV, CAT I operations
NCC.OP.112	Aerodrome operating minima — circling operations with aeroplanes
NCC.OP.115	Departure and approach procedures
NCC.OP.116	Performance-based navigation — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCC.OP.125	Minimum obstacle clearance altitudes — IFR flights
NCC.OP.130	Fuel and oil supply — aeroplanes
NCC.OP.131	Fuel and oil supply — helicopters
NCC.OP.135	Stowage of baggage and cargo
NCC.OP.140	Passenger briefing
NCC.OP.145	Flight preparation
NCC.OP.150	Take-off alternate aerodromes — aeroplanes
NCC.OP.151	Destination alternate aerodromes — aeroplanes
NCC.OP.152	Destination alternate aerodromes — helicopters
NCC.OP.153	Destination alternate aerodromes — instrument approach procedures relying on GNSS
NCC.OP.155	Refuelling with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking
NCC.OP.165	Carriage of passengers
NCC.OP.170	Securing of passenger compartment and galley(s)
NCC.OP.175	Smoking on board
NCC.OP.180	Meteorological conditions
NCC.OP.185	Ice and other contaminants — ground procedures
NCC.OP.190	Ice and other contaminants — flight procedures
NCC.OP.195	Take-off conditions
NCC.OP.200	Simulated situations in flight
NCC.OP.210	Use of supplemental oxygen
NCC.OP.220	Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS)
NCC.OP.225	Approach and landing conditions
NCC.OP.230	Commencement and continuation of approach
NCC.POL.100	Operating limitations — all aircraft
NCC.POL.105	Mass and balance, loading
NCC.POL.110	Mass and balance data and documentation
NCC.POL.115	Performance — general
NCC.POL.120	Take-off mass limitations — aeroplanes
NCC.POL.125	Take-off — aeroplanes
NCC.POL.130	En-route — one engine inoperative — aeroplanes
NCC.POL.135	Landing — aeroplanes
NCC.IDE.A.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCC.IDE.A.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCC.IDE.A.110	Spare electrical fuses
NCC.IDE.A.115	Operating lights
NCC.IDE.A.120	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCC.IDE.A.125	Operations under IFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCC.IDE.A.130	Additional equipment for single-pilot operations under IFR
NCC.IDE.A.135	Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS)
NCC.IDE.A.140	Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS)
NCC.IDE.A.145	Airborne weather detecting equipment
NCC.IDE.A.150	Additional equipment for operations in icing conditions at night
NCC.IDE.A.155	Flight crew interphone system
NCC.IDE.A.160	Cockpit voice recorder
NCC.IDE.A.165	Flight data recorder
NCC.IDE.A.170	Data link recording
NCC.IDE.A.175	Flight data and cockpit voice combination recorder
NCC.IDE.A.180	Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices
NCC.IDE.A.185	Fasten seat belt and no smoking signs
NCC.IDE.A.190	First-aid kit
NCC.IDE.A.195	Supplemental oxygen — pressurised aeroplanes
NCC.IDE.A.200	Supplemental oxygen — non-pressurised aeroplanes
NCC.IDE.A.205	Hand fire extinguishers
NCC.IDE.A.206	Crash axe and crowbar
NCC.IDE.A.210	Marking of break-in points
NCC.IDE.A.215	Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
NCC.IDE.A.220	Flight over water
NCC.IDE.A.230	Survival equipment
NCC.IDE.A.240	Headset
NCC.IDE.A.245	Radio communication equipment
NCC.IDE.A.250	Navigation equipment
NCC.IDE.A.255	Transponder
NCC.IDE.A.260	Management of aeronautical databases
NCC.IDE.H.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCC.IDE.H.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCC.IDE.H.115	Operating lights
NCC.IDE.H.120	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCC.IDE.H.125	Operations under IFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCC.IDE.H.130	Additional equipment for single-pilot operations under IFR
NCC.IDE.H.145	Airborne weather detecting equipment
NCC.IDE.H.150	Additional equipment for operations in icing conditions at night
NCC.IDE.H.155	Flight crew interphone system
NCC.IDE.H.160	Cockpit voice recorder
NCC.IDE.H.165	Flight data recorder
NCC.IDE.H.170	Data link recording
NCC.IDE.H.175	Flight data and cockpit voice combination recorder
NCC.IDE.H.180	Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices
NCC.IDE.H.185	Fasten seat belt and no smoking signs
NCC.IDE.H.190	First-aid kit
NCC.IDE.H.200	Supplemental oxygen — non-pressurised helicopters
NCC.IDE.H.205	Hand fire extinguishers
NCC.IDE.H.210	Marking of break-in points
NCC.IDE.H.215	Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
NCC.IDE.H.225	Life-jackets
NCC.IDE.H.226	Crew survival suits
NCC.IDE.H.227	Life-rafts, survival ELTs and survival equipment on extended overwater flights
NCC.IDE.H.230	Survival equipment
NCC.IDE.H.232	Helicopters certified for operating on water — miscellaneous equipment
NCC.IDE.H.235	All helicopters on flights over water — ditching
NCC.IDE.H.240	Headset
NCC.IDE.H.245	Radio communication equipment
NCC.IDE.H.250	Navigation equipment
NCC.IDE.H.255	Transponder
NCC.IDE.H.260	Management of aeronautical databases

CHAPTER 9 U.K.

Provision of Part-NCO	Subject matter
NCO.GEN.105 (except paragraph (a)(5))	Pilot in command responsibilities and authority
NCO.GEN.106	Pilot in command responsibilities and authority — balloons
NCO.OP.100	Use of aerodromes and operating sites
NCO.OP.110	Aerodrome operating minima — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.111	Aerodrome operating minima — NPA, APV, CAT I operations
NCO.OP.112	Aerodrome operating minima — circling operations with aeroplanes
NCO.OP.115	Departure and approach procedures — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.116	Performance-based navigation — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.125	Fuel and oil supply — aeroplanes
NCO.OP.126	Fuel and oil supply — helicopters
NCO.OP.127	Fuel and ballast supply and planning — balloons
NCO.OP.130	Passenger briefing
NCO.OP.135	Flight preparation
NCO.OP.140	Destination alternate aerodromes — aeroplanes
NCO.OP.141	Destination alternate aerodromes — helicopters
NCO.OP.142	Destination alternate aerodromes — instrument approach procedure relying on GNSS
NCO.OP.145	Refuelling with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking
NCO.OP.150	Carriage of passengers
NCO.OP.155	Smoking on board — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.156	Smoking on board — sailplanes and balloons
NCO.OP.160	Meteorological conditions
NCO.OP.165	Ice and other contaminants — ground procedures
NCO.OP.170	Ice and other contaminants — flight procedures
NCO.OP.175	Take-off conditions — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.176	Take-off conditions — balloons
NCO.OP.180	Simulated situations in flight
NCO.OP.190	Use of supplemental oxygen
NCO.OP.200	Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II)
NCO.OP.205	Approach and landing conditions — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.210	Commencement and continuation of approach — aeroplanes and helicopters
NCO.OP.215	Operational limitations — hot-air balloons
NCO.OP.220	Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II)
NCO.POL.100	Operating limitations — all aircraft
NCO.POL.105	Weighing
NCO.POL.110	Performance — general
NCO.IDE.A.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCO.IDE.A.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCO.IDE.A.110	Spare electrical fuses
NCO.IDE.A.115	Operating lights
NCO.IDE.A.120	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCO.IDE.A.125	Operations under IFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCO.IDE.A.130	Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS)
NCO.IDE.A.135	Flight crew interphone system
NCO.IDE.A.140	Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices
NCO.IDE.A.145	First-aid kit
NCO.IDE.A.150	Supplemental oxygen — pressurised aeroplanes
NCO.IDE.A.155	Supplemental oxygen — non-pressurised aeroplanes
NCO.IDE.A.160	Hand fire extinguishers
NCO.IDE.A.165	Marking of break-in points
NCO.IDE.A.170	Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
NCO.IDE.A.175	Flight over water
NCO.IDE.A.180	Survival equipment
NCO.IDE.A.190	Radio communication equipment
NCO.IDE.A.195	Navigation equipment
NCO.IDE.A.200	Transponder
NCO.IDE.A.205	Management of aeronautical databases
NCO.IDE.H.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCO.IDE.H.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCO.IDE.H.115	Operating lights
NCO.IDE.H.120	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCO.IDE.H.125	Operations under IFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCO.IDE.H.126	Additional equipment for single pilot operations under IFR
NCO.IDE.H.135	Flight crew interphone system
NCO.IDE.H.140	Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices
NCO.IDE.H.145	First-aid kit
NCO.IDE.H.155	Supplemental oxygen — non-pressurised helicopters
NCO.IDE.H.160	Hand fire extinguishers
NCO.IDE.H.165	Marking of break-in points
NCO.IDE.H.170	Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
NCO.IDE.H.175	Flight over water
NCO.IDE.H.180	Survival equipment
NCO.IDE.H.185	All helicopters on flights over water — ditching
NCO.IDE.H.190	Radio communication equipment
NCO.IDE.H.195	Navigation equipment
NCO.IDE.H.200	Transponder
NCO.IDE.H.205	Management of aeronautical databases
NCO.IDE.S.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCO.IDE.S.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCO.IDE.S.115	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments
NCO.IDE.S.120	Cloud flying — flight and navigational instruments
NCO.IDE.S.125	Seats and restraint systems
NCO.IDE.S.130	Supplemental oxygen
NCO.IDE.S.135	Flight over water
NCO.IDE.S.140	Survival equipment
NCO.IDE.S.145	Radio communication equipment
NCO.IDE.S.150	Navigation equipment
NCO.IDE.S.155	Transponder
NCO.IDE.B.100	Instruments and equipment — general
NCO.IDE.B.105	Minimum equipment for flight
NCO.IDE.B.110	Operating lights
NCO.IDE.B.115	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
NCO.IDE.B.120	First-aid kit
NCO.IDE.B.121	Supplemental oxygen
NCO.IDE.B.125	Hand fire extinguishers
NCO.IDE.B.130	Flight over water
NCO.IDE.B.135	Survival equipment
NCO.IDE.B.140	Miscellaneous equipment
NCO.IDE.B.145	Radio communication equipment
NCO.IDE.B.150	Transponder
[F140 NCO.SPEC.105	Checklist
NCO.SPEC.110	Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority
NCO.SPEC.115	Crew responsibilities
NCO.SPEC.125	Safety briefing
NCO.SPEC.130	Minimum obstacle clearance altitude – IFR flights
NCO.SPEC.135	Fuel and oil supply – aeroplanes
NCO.SPEC.140	Fuel and oil supply – helicopters
NCO.SPEC155	Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS II)
NCO.SPEC.170	Performance and operating criteria – aeroplanes
NCO.SPEC.175	Performance and operating criteria – helicopters
NCO.SPEC.HESLO.100	Checklist
NCO.SPEC.HESLO.105	Specific HESLO equipment
NCO.SPEC.HEC.100	Checklist
NCO.SPEC.PAR.100	Checklist
NCO.SPEC.ABF.100	Checklist]

Textual Amendments

F140 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 9 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 54

[F141 CHAPTER 10 U.K.

Textual Amendments

F141 Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 10 added (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 55

Provision of Part-SPO		Subject matter
SPO.GEN.102		Touring motor gliders, powered sailplanes and mixed balloons
SPO.GEN.105		Crew responsibilities
SPO.GEN.107		Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority
SPO.GEN.108		Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority – balloons
SPO.GEN.119		Taxiing of aircraft
SPO.GEN.130		Portable electronic devices
SPO.GEN.145		Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use – operations with complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.OP.100		Use of aerodromes and operating sites
SPO.OP.110		Aerodrome operating minima – aeroplanes and helicopters
SPO.OP.111		Aerodrome operating minima – NPA, APV, CAT I operations
SPO.OP.125		Minimum obstacle clearance altitudes – IFR flights
SPO.OP.130		Fuel and oil supply – aeroplanes
SPO.OP.131		Fuel and oil supply – helicopters
SPO.OP.132		Fuel and ballast supply and planning - balloons
SPO.OP.135		Safety briefing
SPO.OP.140		Flight preparation
SPO.OP.145		Take-off alternate aerodromes – complex motor-powered aeroplanes
SPO.OP.150		Destination alternate aerodromes – aeroplanes
SPO.OP.151		Destination alternate aerodromes – helicopters
SPO.OP.155		Refuelling with persons embarking, on board or disembarking
SPO.OP.160		Use of headset
SPO.OP.165		Smoking
SPO.OP.170		Meteorological conditions
SPO.OP.175		Ice and other contaminants – ground procedures
SPO.OP.176		Ice and other contaminants – flight procedures
SPO.OP.180		Take-off conditions – aeroplanes and helicopters
SPO.OP.181		Take-off conditions – balloons
SPO.OP.195		Use of supplemental oxygen
SPO.OP.205		Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS)
SPO.OP.210		Approach and landing conditions – aeroplanes and helicopters
SPO.OP.215		Commencement and continuation of approach – aeroplanes and helicopters
SPO.OP.230		Standard operating procedures
SPO.POL.100		Operating limitations – all aircraft
SPO.POL.105		Mass and balance
SPO.POL.110		Mass and balance system – commercial operations with aeroplanes and helicopters and non-commercial operations with complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.POL.115		Mass and balance data and documentation – commercial operations with aeroplanes and helicopters and non-commercial operations with complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.POL.120		Performance – general
SPO.POL.125		Take-off mass limitations – complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.POL.130		Take-off – complex motor-powered aeroplanes
SPO.POL.135		En route – one engine inoperative – complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.POL.140		Landing – complex motor-powered aircraft
SPO.POL.145		Performance and operating criteria – aeroplanes
SPO.POL.146		Performance and operating criteria – helicopters
SPO.IDE.A.100	Instruments and equipment — general
SPO.IDE.A.105	Minimum equipment for flight
SPO.IDE.A.110	Spare electrical fuses
SPO.IDE.A.115	Operating lights
SPO.IDE.A.120	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
SPO.IDE.A.125	Operations under IFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
SPO.IDE.A.126	Additional equipment for single-pilot operations under IFR
SPO.IDE.A.130	Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS)
SPO.IDE.A.131	Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II)
SPO.IDE.A.132	Airborne weather detecting equipment – complex motor-powered aeroplanes
SPO.IDE.A.133	Additional equipment for operations in icing conditions at night - complex motor-powered aeroplanes
SPO.IDE.A.140	Cockpit voice recorder
SPO.IDE.A.145	Flight data recorder
SPO.IDE.A.150	Data link recording
SPO.IDE.A.155	Flight data and cockpit voice combination recorder
SPO.IDE.A.160	Seats, seat safety belts and restraint systems
SPO.IDE.A.165	First-aid kit
SPO.IDE.A.170	Supplemental oxygen – pressurised aeroplanes
SPO.IDE.A.175	Supplemental oxygen – non-pressurised aeroplanes
SPO.IDE.A.180	Hand fire extinguishers
SPO.IDE.A.181	Crash axe and crowbar
SPO.IDE.A.185	Marking of break-in points
SPO.IDE.A.190	Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
SPO.IDE.A.195	Flight over water
SPO.IDE.A.200	Survival equipment
SPO.IDE.A.205	Individual protective equipment
SPO.IDE.H.197	Life-jackets – complex motor-powered helicopters
SPO.IDE.H.198	Survival suits – complex motor-powered helicopters
SPO.IDE.H.199	Life-rafts, survival ELTs and survival equipment on extended overwater flights – complex motor-powered helicopters
SPO.IDE.H.200	Survival equipment
SPO.IDE.H.201	Additional requirements for helicopters conducting offshore operations in a hostile sea area – complex motor-powered helicopters
SPO.IDE.H.202	Helicopters certified for operating on water – miscellaneous equipment
SPO.IDE.H.203	All helicopters on flights over water - ditching
SPO.IDE.H.205	Individual protective equipment
SPO.IDE.H.210	Headset
SPO.IDE.H.215	Radio communication equipment
SPO.IDE.H.220	Navigation equipment
SPO.IDE.H.225	Transponder
SPO.IDE.S.100	Instruments and equipment — general
SPO.IDE.S.105	Minimum equipment for flight
SPO.IDE.S.115	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments
SPO.IDE.S.120	Cloud flying — flight and navigational instruments
SPO.IDE.S.125	Seats and restraint systems
SPO.IDE.S.130	Supplemental oxygen
SPO.IDE.S.135	Flight over water
SPO.IDE.S.140	Survival equipment
SPO.IDE.S.145	Radio communication equipment
SPO.IDE.S.150	Navigation equipment
SPO.IDE.S.155	Transponder
SPO.IDE.B.100	Instruments and equipment — general
SPO.IDE.B.105	Minimum equipment for flight
SPO.IDE.B.110	Operating lights
SPO.IDE.B.115	Operations under VFR — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment
SPO.IDE.B.120	First-aid kit
SPO.IDE.B.121	Supplemental oxygen
SPO.IDE.B.125	Hand fire extinguishers
SPO.IDE.B.130	Flight over water
SPO.IDE.B.135	Survival equipment
SPO.IDE.B.140	Miscellaneous equipment
SPO.IDE.B.145	Radio communication equipment
NCO.IDE.B.150	Transponder]

[F142 CHAPTER 11 U.K.

Textual Amendments

F142 Sch. 13 Pt. 2 Ch. 11 inserted (5.12.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/1160), arts. 1, 8

Provision of Part-ORO	Subject matter
ORO.GEN.110(a) to (i) inclusive	Operator responsibilities
ORO.GEN.120(b) to (d) inclusive	Means of compliance
ORO.GEN.130	Changes related to an AOC holder
ORO.GEN.140	Access
ORO.GEN.150(c)	Findings
ORO.GEN.155	Immediate reaction to a safety problem
ORO.GEN.200	Management system
ORO.GEN.205	Contracted activities
ORO.GEN.210	Personnel requirements
ORO.GEN.220	Record-keeping
ORO.AOC.110(b) and (f)	Leasing agreement
ORO.AOC.115	Code-share agreements
ORO.AOC.125(a)	Non-commercial operations of aircraft listed in the operations specifications by the holder of an AOC
ORO.AOC.130	Flight data monitoring–aeroplanes
ORO.AOC.135	Personnel requirements
ORO.AOC.140	Facility requirements
ORO.AOC.150	Documentation requirements
ORO.SPO.100	Common requirements for commercial specialised operators
ORO.MLR.100 (other than (c) and (h))	Operations manual – general
ORO.MLR.105	Minimum equipment list
ORO.FC.100 (other than (d))	Composition of flight crew
ORO.FC.105 (other than (d))	Designation as pilot-in-command/commander
ORO.FC.110	Flight engineer
ORO.FC.115	Crew resource management (CRM) training
ORO.FC.120	Operator conversion training
ORO.FC.125	Differences training and familiarisation training
ORO.FC.130	Recurrent training and checking
ORO.FC.135	Pilot qualification to operate in either pilot’s seat
ORO.FC.140	Operation on more than one type or variant
ORO.FC.145	Provision of training
ORO.FC.200	Composition of flight crew
ORO.FC.A.201	In-flight relief of flight crew members
ORO.FC.202	Single-pilot operations under IFR or at night
ORO.FC.205	Command course
ORO.FC.215	Initial operator’s crew resource management (CRM) training
ORO.FC.220	Operator conversion training and checking
ORO.FC.230	Recurrent training and checking
ORO.FC.235	Pilot qualification to operate in either pilot’s seat
ORO.FC.240 (other than (c))	Operation on more than one type or variant
ORO.FC.A.245 (other than (a) and (e))	Alternative training and qualification programme
ORO.FC.A.250(a)	Commanders holding a CPL(A)
ORO.FC.H.250	Commanders holding a CPL(H)
ORO.FC.330	Recurrent training and checking – operator proficiency check
ORO.CC.100	Number and composition of cabin crew
ORO.CC.110	Conditions for assignment to duties
ORO.CC.115	Conduct of training courses and associated checking
ORO.CC.120	Initial training course
ORO.CC.125	Aircraft type specific training and operator conversion training
ORO.CC.130	Differences training
ORO.CC.135	Familiarisation
ORO.CC.140	Recurrent training
ORO.CC.145	Refresher training
ORO.CC.200	Senior cabin crew member
ORO.CC.205	Reduction of the number of cabin crew during ground operations and in unforeseen circumstances
ORO.CC.210	Additional conditions for assignment to duties
ORO.CC.215	Training and checking programs and related documentation
ORO.CC.250	Operation on more than one aircraft type or variant
ORO.CC.255	Single cabin crew member operations
ORO.TC.105	Conditions for assignment to duties
ORO.TC.110	Training and checking
ORO.TC.115	Initial training
ORO.TC.120	Operator conversion training
ORO.TC.125	Differences training
ORO.TC.130	Familiarisation flights
ORO.TC.135	Recurrent training
ORO.TC.140	Refresher training
ORO.FTL.115	Crew member responsibilities
ORO.FTL.120	Fatigue risk management (FRM)
ORO.FTL.125	Flight time specification schemes
ORO.FTL.200	Home base
ORO.FTL.205	Flight duty period (FDP)
ORO.FTL.220	Split duty
ORO.FTL.225(a), (e) and (f)	Standby and duties at the airport
ORO.FTL.230	Reserve
ORO.FTL.235	Rest periods
ORO.FTL.250	Fatigue management training]

PART 3 U.K. Provisions Referred to in Article 265(7)

CHAPTER 1 U.K.

Article of Order	Subject matter
33(1)	Aircraft not to fly without a certificate of airworthiness
33(7)	Aircraft to comply with flight manual
37(2)	Non-military State aircraft to have a national certificate of airworthiness or [F143 a Part-21] certificate of airworthiness
37(3)	Requirements for non-military State aircraft with [F144 Part-21] certificate of airworthiness
[F145 47(3)	Certificate of release to service not to be issued if any known danger to flight safety]
97(2)	Requirement to comply with regulations for the carriage of dangerous goods
98(2)	Requirements for carriage of munitions of war
98(3)	Prohibition on carriage of sporting weapon or munition of war where passengers have access
99	Prohibition on carrying on board sporting weapons or munitions of war
101(1)	Aircraft not to fly for public transport without AOC
F146 . . .	F146 . . .
103	Aircraft not to fly on a commercial air transport operation except under a Part-CAT AOC
104(1)	Offering commercial air transport and public transport flights without AOC
[F147 115A	Operator responsibilities in relation to communications]
134(4)	Aircraft not to fly in the service of a police authority except under a Police Air Operator's Certificate, a national Air Operator's Certificate or a Part-CAT air operator certificate
136	Requirement for appropriate licence to act as member of flight crew of [F148 Part-21] aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
137	Requirement for appropriate licence to act as member of flight crew of [F149 non-Part-21] aircraft registered in the United Kingdom
148	Requirement for appropriate licence to act member of flight crew of aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
[F150 149(1)	Requirement for appropriate licence to act as flight crew member of [F151 Part-21] registered aircraft elsewhere than in the United Kingdom]
162	Requirement for a Part MED medical certificate for a Part-FCL licence
175(1)	Operator's obligation to regulate flight times of crew
175(2)	Operator's obligation not permit flight by crew in dangerous state of fatigue
176(1)	Crew's obligation not to fly in dangerous state of fatigue
F152 . . .	F152 . . .
179	Fatigue of crew – F153 ... Part-CAT operator's responsibilities
180(1)	Requirement for air traffic control approval
[F154 187(1)	Instrument flight procedures to be approved before notification]
[F155 188(2)]	Requirement to hold student air traffic controller licence or air traffic controller licence
F156 . . .	F156 . . .
F156 . . .	F156 . . .
220(6)	Aviation fuel not to be dispensed if not fit for use
220(7)	Compliance with direction not to dispense aviation fuel
F152 . . .	F152 . . .
241	Endangering safety of any person or property
242	Drunkenness in aircraft
245(c)	Intentional interference
247	Obligations of operator and pilot in command when flying over foreign country
248(1)	Compliance with operational directives
250(1)	Restriction on carriage, where valuable consideration is given or promised, in aircraft registered elsewhere than in the United Kingdom
250(7)	Restriction on holding self out as a person offering carriage by air
252	Restriction on aerial photography, aerial survey and commercial operation in aircraft registered elsewhere than in [F157 the United Kingdom]
256 (except (2) and (5))	Prohibitions in relation to documents and records
257(3)	Flight in contravention of CAA's direction not to fly
258	Grounded aircraft not to fly
259(3)	Flight in contravention of Secretary of State's direction not to fly

Textual Amendments

F143 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(i)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F144 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(i)(bb) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F145 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 56(a)

F146 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(ii) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F147 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 inserted (4.11.2024) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2024 (S.I. 2024/990), arts. 1(2), 10

F148 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(iii)(aa) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F149 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(iii)(bb) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F150 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 56(b)

F151 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(iii)(cc) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F152 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 revoked (7.8.2019) by The Air Navigation (Cosmic Radiation Protection of Air Crew and Space Crew and Consequential Amendments) Order 2019 (S.I. 2019/1115), arts. 1, 28(1)(c) (with arts. 3, 28(3))

F153 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(a)(iii)(dd) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

F154 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 56(c)

F155 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 56(d)

F156 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 omitted (14.12.2017) by virtue of The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 56(e)

F157 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 1 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Operation of Air Services (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2018 (S.I. 2018/1392), regs. 1(2), 6(5); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 2 U.K.

Provision of Part 21, Part M, Part 145, Part 66 or Part 147	Subject matter
M.A.201(a) and (b)	Responsibilities of owner or lessee
M.A.201(d)	Responsibilities of the pilot in command or operator
M.A.201(e) and (f)	Responsibilities of continuing airworthiness management organisation
M.A.201(h)	Obligations of commercial air transport operator
M.A.201(i)	Obligations of certificated operator
M.A.403	Aircraft defects to be rectified
M.A.902(b)	Aircraft not to fly if airworthiness review certificate invalid

F158 CHAPTER 3 U.K.

Textual Amendments

F158 Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 3 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(b) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

[F159 CHAPTER 4 U.K.

Textual Amendments

F159 Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 4 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 57

Provision of F160 ... Air Traffic Controller Licensing Regulation	Subject matter
Article 2(1)	Compliance with requirements and procedures
ATCO.A.015(b)	Exercise of the privileges of licences and provisional inability
ATCO.MED.A.020	Decrease in medical fitness]

Textual Amendments

F160 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 4 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(c) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 5 U.K.

Provision of F161 ... Air Operations Regulation	Subject matter
CAT.GEN.MPA.155	Prohibition of carriage of weapons or munitions of war
CAT.GEN.MPA.100(c)	Crew member's obligation not to fly in dangerous state of fatigue
CAT.GEN.MPA.200	Operator to comply with Technical Instructions
SPA.DG.100	Operator to hold approval to transport dangerous goods

Textual Amendments

F161 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 5 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(d) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

CHAPTER 6 U.K.

Provision of F162 ... Aerodromes Regulation	Subject matter
ADR.OR.C 030	Failure to report any accident, serious incident or occurrence or to report in the form and manner required or within the required time limit

Textual Amendments

F162 Word in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 6 omitted (31.12.2020) by virtue of The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 85(4)(e) (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

[F163 CHAPTER 7 U.K.

Textual Amendments

F163 Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 7 substituted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 58

Provision of SERA	Subject matter
2020	Problematic use of psychoactive substance
3101	Negligent or reckless operation of aircraft
5005 (j)	VFR flight within or into designated areas or along designated routes
8020	Adherence to flight plan
8025	Position Reports
8035	Communications
11015(b)	Pilot-in-command of an aircraft to comply with instructions given by intercepting aircraft]

CHAPTER 8 U.K.

Provision of Occurrence Reporting Regulation	Subject matter
4	Requirement to report occurrences

CHAPTER 9 U.K.

Provision of Part-NCC	Subject matter
NCC.GEN.150	Transport of dangerous goods

CHAPTER 10 U.K.

Provision of Part-NCO	Subject matter
NCO.GEN.105(a)(5)	Pilot in command responsibilities and authority
NCO.GEN.140	Transport of dangerous goods
NCO.GEN.145	Immediate reaction to a safety problem
NCO.OP.185	In-flight fuel management
[F164 NCO.SPEC.160	Release of dangerous goods
NCO.SPEC.165	Carriage and use of weapons
NCO.SPEC.HESLO.110	Transportation of dangerous goods]

Textual Amendments

F164 Words in Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 10 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 59

[F165 CHAPTER 11 U.K.

Textual Amendments

F165 Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 11 inserted (14.12.2017) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2017 (S.I. 2017/1112), arts. 1, 60

Provision of Part-SPO	Subject matter
SPO.GEN.150	Transport of dangerous goods
SPO.GEN.155	Release of dangerous goods
SPO.GEN.160	Carriage and use of weapons
SPO.SPEC.HESLO.110	Transportation of dangerous goods]

[F166 CHAPTER 12 U.K.

Textual Amendments

F166 Sch. 13 Pt. 3 Ch. 12 inserted (5.12.2018) by The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2018 (S.I. 2018/1160), arts. 1, 9

Provision of Part-ORO	Subject matter
ORO.GEN.110(j) to (k) inclusive	Operator responsibilities
ORO.GEN.125	Terms of approval and privileges of an AOC holder
ORO.GEN.160	Occurrence reporting
ORO.AOC.100(a)	Application for an air operator certificate
ORO.AOC.120(a) and (b)	Approvals to provide cabin crew training and to issue cabin crew attestations
ORO.DEC.100	Declaration
ORO.SPO.110(a)	Authorisation of high risk commercial specialised operations
ORO.SPO.115	Changes
ORO.SPO.120	Continued validity
ORO.SEC.100	Flight crew compartment security – aeroplanes
ORO.SEC.105	Flight crew compartment security – helicopters
ORO.FTL.110	Operator responsibilities
ORO.FTL.210	Flight times and duty periods]

PART 4 U.K. Provisions Referred to in Article 265(8)

Article of Order	Subject matter
240	Endangering safety of an aircraft

Article 274

SCHEDULE 14 U.K. REVOCATIONS AND SAVINGS, CONSEQUENTIAL AMENDMENTS AND TRANSITIONAL ARRANGEMENTS

PART 1 U.K. Revocations and savings

1.  The instruments specified in column 1 of the table, with the reference in the corresponding entry in column 2 of the table, are revoked to the extent specified in the corresponding entry in column 3 of that table. U.K.

Column 1 Instrument Title	Column 2 Reference	Column 3 Extent of revocation
The Air Navigation Order 2009	S.I. 2009/3015	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2010	S.I. 2010/770	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2011	S.I. 2011/2432	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2012	S.I. 2012/1751	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2013	S.I. 2013/3169	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2014	S.I. 2014/508	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 2) Order 2014	S.I. 2014/1888	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 3) Order 2014	S.I. 2014/2920	Whole instrument
The Air Navigation (Amendment) (No. 4) Order 2014	S.I. 2014/3302	Whole instrument
The International Interests in Aircraft Equipment (Cape Town Convention) Regulations 2015	S.I. 2015/912	Paragraph 4 of Schedule 5
The Air Navigation (Amendment) Order 2015	S.I. 2015/1768	Whole instrument

PART 2 U.K. Consequential amendments

CHAPTER 1 U.K. Primary legislation

Amendment of the Police Act 1997 U.K.

2.  In the Police Act 1997 M23 —

(a) in section 113A as it applies to Northern Ireland M24 , for subsection (6D)(fff), substitute—

“(fff) an offence under article 240 or 241 of the Air Navigation Order 2016;”;

(b) for paragraph 23 of Schedule 8A M25 , substitute—

“23.   An offence under article 265 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 in respect of a contravention of article 240 of that Order (endangering safety of aircraft).”.

Marginal Citations

M23 1997 c.50.

M24 Subsection (6D) was inserted in respect of Northern Ireland by S.R. (NI) 2014 No 100.

M25 Schedule 8A was inserted by S.S.I. 2015/423.

CHAPTER 2 U.K. Secondary legislation

SECTION 1 U.K. United Kingdom Statutory Instruments

Amendment of the Civil Aviation (Working Time) Regulations 2004 U.K.

3.  In the Civil Aviation (Working Time) Regulations 2004 M26 —

(a) in regulation 3—

(i) in the definition of “commercial air transport flight”, for “article 255(1) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”;

(ii) in the definition of “public transport”, for “article 260(2) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 6(2) of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”;

(iii) in the definition of “scheme”, for “article 145(1)(b) or 149(a) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 175(1)(b) or 179(2)(a) of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”;

(b) in regulation 10(2), for “a scheme referred to in article 145(1) or 149 of the Air Navigation Order 2009” (twice), substitute “ a scheme referred to in article 175(1) or 179 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.

Marginal Citations

M26 S.I. 2004/756.

Amendment of the Plant Protection Products (Sustainable Use) Regulations 2012 U.K.

4.  In paragraph 7(e) of Schedule 2 to the Plant Protection Products (Sustainable Use) Regulations 2012 M27 , for “article 131(2) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 91(2) of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.

Marginal Citations

M27 S.I. 2012/1657.

Amendment of the Kentish Flats Extension Order 2013 U.K.

5.  In the Kentish Flats Extension Order 2013 M28 —

(a) in paragraph 5(e) of Part 3 to Schedule 1; and

(b) in paragraph 2(e) of Part 2 to Schedule 2,

for “Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.

Marginal Citations

M28 S.I. 2013/343.

Amendment of the Wireless Telegraphy (Limitation of Number of Licences) Order 2014 U.K.

6.  In paragraphs 7, 9, 14, 18 and 23 of Part 2 of Schedule 6 to the Wireless Telegraphy (Limitation of Number of Licences) Order 2014 M29 , for “Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.

Marginal Citations

M29 S.I. 2014/774.

Amendment of the Health and Social Care Act 2008 (Regulated Activities) Regulations 2014 U.K.

7.  In paragraph 9(4)(a) of Schedule 1 to the Health and Social Care Act 2008 (Regulated Activities) Regulations 2014 M30 , for “article 6 (aircraft to be registered) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 27 (application for the registration of an aircraft) of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.

Marginal Citations

M30 S.I. 2014/2936.

Amendment of the Town and Country Planning (General Permitted Development) (England) Order 2015 U.K.

8.  In the Town and Country Planning (General Permitted Development) (England) Order 2015 M31 —

(a) in the definition of “aerodrome” in article 2(1)—

(i) for “article 255 of the Air Navigation Order 2009 (interpretation)”, substitute “ paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”; and

(ii) for “article 255 of that Order”, substitute “ paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to that Order ”;

(b) in paragraph U of Part 19 of Schedule 2, for “article 255 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.

Marginal Citations

M31 S.I. 2015/596.

Amendment of the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015 U.K.

9.  In the Rules of the Air Regulations 2015 M32 —

(a) in rule 1(3) in Schedule 1, for “article 258 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 5 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”; and

(b) in rule 2 in Schedule 1, for “articles 160(3) and 252(1) of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ articles 249(3) and 22(1) of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.

Marginal Citations

M32 S.I. 2015/840.

Amendment of the Air Navigation (Isle of Man) Order 2015 U.K.

10.  In the Air Navigation (Isle of Man) Order 2015 M33 —

(a) in article 68(1), for “article 132 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 97 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”;

(b) in article 91(1), for “article 160 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ article 249 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”; and

(c) in article 167(1), in the definition of “applied regulations”, for “Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.

Marginal Citations

M33 S.I. 2015/870.

SECTION 2 U.K. Scottish Statutory Instruments

Amendment of the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (Exclusions and Exceptions) (Scotland) Order 2013 U.K.

11.  For paragraph 23 of Schedule A1 to the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 (Exclusions and Exceptions) (Scotland) Order 2013 M34 , substitute—

“23.   An offence under article 265 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 in respect of a contravention of article 240 of that Order (endangering safety of aircraft).”.

Marginal Citations

M34 S.S.I. 2013/50.

SECTION 3 U.K. Northern Ireland Statutory Rules

Amendment of Rehabilitation of Offenders (Exceptions) Order (Northern Ireland) 1979 U.K.

12.  In article 1A(4)(fff) of the Rehabilitation of Offenders (Exceptions) Order (Northern Ireland) 1979 M35 , for “Article 137 or 138 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ Article 240 or 241 of the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.

Marginal Citations

M35 S.R. 1979/195.

Amendment of the Planning (General Permitted Development) Order (Northern Ireland) 2015 U.K.

13.  In the definition of “airbase” in the “Interpretation Part 29” section of Part 29 of the Schedule to the Planning (General Permitted Development) Order (Northern Ireland) 2015 M36 , for “Article 255 of the Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ paragraph 1 of Schedule 1 to the Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.

Marginal Citations

M36 S.R. 2015/70.

Amendment of the Planning (General Development Procedure) Order (Northern Ireland) 2015 U.K.

14.  In article 2(1) of the Planning (General Development Procedure) Order (Northern Ireland) 2015 M37 , in the definition of “licensed aerodrome”, for “Air Navigation Order 2009”, substitute “ Air Navigation Order 2016 ”.

Marginal Citations

M37 S.R. 2015/72.

PART 3 U.K. Transitional arrangements

Log Books U.K.

15.  In respect of any log book kept under article 34 of the Air Navigation Order 2009 immediately before the commencement of this Order—

(a) such a log book may continue to be used to comply with the requirements of this Order;

(b) entries made in such a log book before the commencement of this Order must be retained as though they were entries made in accordance with the requirements of this Order; and

(c) entries in such a log book which were required to be made by the Air Navigation Order 2009 immediately before the commencement of this Order and which have not been so made continue to be required to be made.

Equipment of [F167 non-Part-21] aircraft U.K.

16.  A [F167 non-Part-21] aircraft which, immediately before the commencement of this Order, was fitted with equipment in conformity with article 37 of the Air Navigation Order 2009 is deemed to meet the requirements of article 77 of this Order.

Textual Amendments

F167 Word in Sch. 14 para. 16 substituted (31.12.2020) by The Aviation Safety (Amendment etc.) (EU Exit) Regulations 2019 (S.I. 2019/645), reg. 1, Sch. 1 para. 86 (with Sch. 3) (as amended by S.I. 2019/1098, regs. 1(3), 12); 2020 c. 1, Sch. 5 para. 1(1)

Instructor ratings U.K.

17.  An instructor rating held pursuant to the Air Navigation Order 2009 immediately before the commencement of this Order—

(a) is, for the purposes of this Order, deemed to be the equivalent instructor certificate issued under this Order;

(b) remains valid until—

(i) that rating would have ceased to become valid under the Air Navigation Order 2009, had that Order not been revoked; or

(ii) an equivalent instructor certificate issued under this Order would cease to be valid,

whichever is the sooner; and

(c) on the first occasion where revalidation or renewal is required in accordance with this Order, is to become an instructor certificate issued under this Order.

Aircraft markings U.K.

18.  An aircraft which, immediately before the commencement of this Order, bore markings in conformity with article 119 of the Air Navigation Order 2009 is deemed to meet the requirements of paragraph 7 of Schedule 5 or paragraph 6 of Part 1 of Schedule 6 of this Order.

Certificates of experience and test U.K.

19.  For the purposes of article 154(2), a certificate of experience or certificate of test obtained under the Air Navigation Order 2009 is to be treated as a certificate of revalidation until such time as—

(a) the holder next applies to the CAA for the renewal or variation of their licence; or

(b) the CAA requires a variation of the holder's licence,

whichever is the earlier.

Medical declarations U.K.

20.—(1) For the purposes of article 163, a medical declaration which immediately before the commencement of this Order was valid under article 73A of the Air Navigation Order 2009—

(a) is to be treated as a declaration made in accordance with, and satisfying the requirements of, paragraph (3) of article 163; and

(b) subject to paragraph (4) of article 163, continues to be valid until the expiry of the relevant period mentioned in the table in paragraph (4) of article 73A of the Air Navigation Order 2009.

(2) In the application of article 163 to a medical declaration mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)—

(a) the reference in paragraph (4)(b) of that article to “paragraph (3)” is to be treated as though it read “article 73A of the Air Navigation Order 2009, had that article remained in force”; and

(b) the reference in paragraph (4)(c)(i) of that article to “paragraph (3)(a)(i)” is to be treated as though it read “article 73A(2)(a) of the Air Navigation Order 2009, had that article remained in force”.